I agree he probably did not. Philo's use of the term is much broader than John's use. With Philo it could mean God's mind, God's mediators throughout history (Old Testament personifications--Abraham, Moses, et. al.) and several other things. From the history of this subject it appears there are some similarities in John's use of terms like logos, light, and water in his Gospel when it is compared to Philo's writings, but not direct evidence that John used the terms the way Philo did. If anything he would be refuting Philo's use of the terms and not endorsing them.

Reformed and Always Reforming,