speratus said:
Scripture teaches Christ has atoned for the sins of all men. On the basis of that atonement, can we say that God has objectively declared all men righteous apart from faith? Or, would that go beyond scripture?
You are beginning with an erroneous assumption and one that has never been able to be defended from Scripture. We have gone over this countless times here and you simply have ignored the biblical doctrine of a "Definite Atonement" or to use another term "Particular Redemption" and rested upon "Formula of Concorde" rather than "Sola Scriptura", which you being a Lutheran surprises me.
The FACT is that Scripture teaches that Christ atoned for all the sins of all the elect; those whom the Father gave Him, those who were predestined in love from eternity, etc. (Ph 1:4-13 and countless other passages). His atonement was
vicarious and
SUBSTITUTIONARY. In case you haven't grasped the significance of what it means that the Lord Christ died a
SUBSTITUTIONARY death, i.e., (Grok:
hyper) "in the place of", "in behalf of", etc. In His death God was
satisfied, i.e, ALL that was required for salvation was met and the means by which those for whom He died was secured "for them", e.g., regeneration, calling, faith, repentance and perseverance. (Rom 8:29, 30) Thus, again, the atonement of Christ 1) satisfied ALL of the judicial requirements and the penalty due those for whom He died. The atonement thus
accomplished EVERYTHING necessary for the redemption of those whom God predestinated to eternal life. 2) secured ALL that was necessary for the elect to receive the benefits of that atonement which Christ merited "for them". The means by which the elect apprehend those benefits are
applied to them in time through the work of the Holy Spirit, Who regenerates them, creates faith and repentance in them, calls them to faith in conjunction with the Word, clothes them with the righteousness of Christ, dwells within them and forever guides and upholds them until they are called home to be glorified before the throne of God.
It is utterly illogical, inconceivable and impossible that any for whom Christ
substituted Himself and accomplished a full atonement of ALL that God required and that which was necessary for: propitiation, redemption, sacrificial satisfaction and reconciliation should then be brought before the judgment seat of Christ and be found guilty for that which He Himself had already atoned and then cast them into eternal hell to suffer the penalty which Christ Himself previously suffered "in their place/behalf". <img src="/forum/images/graemlins/rolleyes2.gif" alt="" />
Then speratus asks:
To frame the question in a form that the Reform can relate to, are the elect declared righteous before Regeneration? What say you?
I say absolutely not. The
application of that which was objectively secured by Christ's atonement is done in time; the exact moment as foreordained by God in eternity through the
means which He also foreordained. One is ONLY justified when their is personal union with Christ. And that union is only actualized by faith; a faith which is wrought by the Holy Spirit in regeneration. Though their (elects) justification was eternally ordained and infallible secured by Christ in his atonement the
application of it occurs in time.
In His Grace,