I have asked other times as well, but this quote from the url below shows the error in the baptist assertion that baptism is for disciples alone.......
Quote
Why did Malone title the book, “The Baptism of Disciples alone?” This is what he says – “I have chosen the designation "the baptism of disciples alone" to describe the only instituted and regulated baptism "expressly get down in Scripture." It is no more an unbiblical description of baptism in the Bible than are other principles of reformation theology: Scripture alone, grace alone, faith alone, Christ alone, and God's glory alone. That which is "expressly set down in Scripture" concerning an instituted, regulated sacrament is sufficient to earn the designation "alone." This is humorous. I say that tongue in cheek. First, Malone claims that Credobaptism is “expressly…instituted” in the New Testament. Where? Why does he make this assertion when he knows that baptistic theology is grounded on gathering data from historical examples in the New Testament? We already covered the fallacy of that. He will harp on Matthew 28 as the Great Commission, but exegetical work on that area will discredit the only “inductive” aspect of his argument that he thinks is one of the strongest.
Look for days.......it simply isn't there. It's also a false hermeneutical method.
God bless,
william
*******go here for true learning on the subject.......