Alan
You said:
However, Gerstner could not imagine how any theologian in our time could possibly come to that conclusion, considering all the evidence for an ancient universe across so many disciplines of science.
Like Pilgrim I have a lot of respect for Gerstner; however it seems to me that this understanding, at least from what it seems to be saying here; takes outside sources such as so called evidence for an ancient universe to interpret Scripture.
It makes it sound like Gerstner believes that it is ok to use science (or other outside sources) to interpret Scripture.
I believe this is a very dangerous practice and doubt that Gerstner came to believe in the doctrines of grace by the same method.
I might add that this so called evidence for an ancient universe across so many disciplines of science. Is not so cut and dried as you seem to believe. There are many scientists that believe in a young earth.
Many of them have said things like all scientists deal with the same facts, however not all scientists agree with where those facts lead. This is because the facts to date can only take us so far and where those facts end our presuppositions kick in.
Honest scientists (both Old and Young Earthers) will tell you that where scientific facts end we must develop logical theories in order to reach our presuppositions.
The problem is, many (on both sides) talk about these “theories” as though they are facts.
But I have digressed from my original intention of starting this thread.
Which is, from the context of the creation story in Genesis chapter one; what is the author’s intent for using the Hebrew word “Yom”?
As someone who does not know Hebrew and is limited in my understanding of Hebrew words and their context; to a certain extent I find myself, having to rely on theologians who have more knowledge than me.
However, this is quite confusing when theologians sharing (for the most part) the same theological tradition; disagree on the same points.
From my studies on the topic, my understanding says that throughout the OT whenever the word “Yom” is used with a numeral, it mean a 24 hour period of time.
Many such as the author in the link I provided say this isn’t true.
That particular critique challenged John MacArthur’s exegesis of the word “Yom”.
For example the article says that seeing a definate article is not used in the context of the original Hebrew writing, it doesn't necessarily mean a 24 hour period (see article for clarification).
I am not sure exactly what he means by this.
Is there a way to find out for sure who is correct?
Tom
