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Peter really does appear to be saying that the false prophets have been redeemed or bought by Jesus even though they are denying him. I have found no simple explanation that makes clear sense (although other passages make Limited Atonement very clear) therefore, I know what it is not saying from the rest of scripture. Peter cannot be teaching Universal Atonement.

The first question to be asked here is who 2 Peter is addressed to:

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Simon Peter, a bondservant and apostle of Jesus Christ, To those who have obtained like precious faith with us by the righteousness of our God and Savior Jesus Christ: (2 Peter 1:1 NKJ)

As this letter is not addressed to the reprobate, 2 Peter 2:1 cannot mean that the Lord bought the reprobate in any real sense. That would be an outright contradiction. The next option is that you use this verse to adopt Arminianism and a general, universal atonement. But this fails to meet the test of Scripture compared with Scripture. Hebrews has similar passages where temporary believers appear to partake of the divine nature but not really:

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For it is impossible for those who were once enlightened, and have tasted the heavenly gift, and have become partakers of the Holy Spirit, 5 and have tasted the good word of God and the powers of the age to come, 6 if they fall away, to renew them again to repentance, since they crucify again for themselves the Son of God, and put Him to an open shame. (Hebrews 6:4-6 NKJ)

Reading this verses in light of those who are members of the visible congregation and who partake of the visible signs and seals of the sacraments, it would "appear" that they partake of the Holy Spirit and were "bought" by the Lord. But it turns out that they were not. This is only a problem verse if you believe that the visible church and the invisible church are one and the same thing:

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`Let both grow together until the harvest, and at the time of harvest I will say to the reapers, "First gather together the tares and bind them in bundles to burn them, but gather the wheat into my barn."'" (Matthew 13:30 NKJ)

The explanation based on the term from buying and selling in the market does not settle anything in my mind, although it was an interesting argument. Scripture does not contradict Scripture because God's revelation is logical and rational, not irrational. There is usually a logical solution that is plainly stated in the text.

Calvin's commentary on Hebrews 6:4-6:

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The knot of the question is in the word, fall away. Whosoever then understands its meaning, can easily extricate himself from every difficulty. But it must be noticed, that there is a twofold falling away, one particular, and the other general. He who has in anything, or in any ways offended, has fallen away from his state as a Christian; therefore all sins are so many fallings. But the Apostle speaks not here of theft, or perjury, or murder, or drunkenness, or adultery; but he refers to a total defection or falling away from the Gospel, when a sinner offends not God in some one thing, but entirely renounces his grace.



And that this may be better understood, let us suppose a contrast between the gifts of God, which he has mentioned, and this falling away. For he falls away who forsakes the word of God, who extinguishes its light, who deprives himself of the taste of the heavens or gift, who relinquishes the participation of the Spirit. Now this is wholly to renounce God. We now see whom he excluded from the hope of pardon, even the apostates who alienated themselves from the Gospel of Christ, which they had previously embraced, and from the grace of God; and this happens to no one but to him who sins against the Holy Spirit. For he who violates the second table of the Law, or transgresses the first through ignorance, is not guilty of this defection; nor does God surely deprive any of his grace in such a way as to leave them none remaining except the reprobate.



Charlie

Last edited by Cranmer; Sun Apr 21, 2013 9:39 PM.

For "who has known the mind of the LORD that he may instruct Him?" But we have the mind of Christ. (1 Corinthians 2:16 NKJ)