Originally Posted by Tom
Pilgrim
If I get the chance I will ask him, but from the conversation it sounded like the Greek read significantly different than the Hebrew on the subject of divorce.

If that chance comes however, I would need to also ask him about the rest of the NT that was definitely written in Greek, not Hebrew. Would the rest of NT teaching on the same subject back the Hebrew text of Matthew, or the Greek text of Matthew?
Hope that sentence makes sense.
yep Makes perfect sense. I am going to stick my neck out and guess that the alleged Hebrew version forbids divorce on any grounds. This would certainly be something many KJV Only advocates would believe despite the clear teaching of Scripture. Does this person claim to be Reformed theologically? Or is he what would appear to lead one to believe a Baptist Fundamentalist? scratchchin


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simul iustus et peccator

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