How should we treat passages, such as John 8 1:11 (really starting with last verse in 7) and last section of Mark 16, as both passages are omitted in many of the earlier copies found? The Mark passage can be easily dismissed because of its subject matter, but the John passage is more difficult. Some wants to link it as being canonical as verses 6, 8 go with Jeremiah 17:13.

Should we teach on those passages or maybe referenced them, or should we mostly ignore them?

Now, if they should be dismissed what is the best theory of why they were added by later Christians?


John Chaney

"having been firmly rooted and now being built up in Him and established in your faith . . ." Colossians 2:7