I describe homosexual orientation as psychology defines it, since it is a word in psychology, it is not found in the Bible. Just notice how the NKJV and NASB are eager to put "homosexuals" in 1 Cor.6:9 but disagree on what word should be thus translated. I had not planned to post any more because it always degenerates into nothing but heat and raw emotions. But, I handle Rom. 1:26, 27; 1 Cor. 6:9 & 1 Tim. 1:10 together since all by Paul. But, I will paste my notes on 1 Cor. 6:9 -
"Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate(Greek malakos), nor abusers of themselves with mankind(Greek arsenokoites)," (1Cor 6:9, KJV)
The most accurate translation in today's language I believe is by Reverend Arthur Marshall in the NIV/Grk-Eng Interlinear, with the literal rendering:
"Or know ye not that unrighteous men will not inherit [the] kingdom of God? Be not led astray; not fornicators nor idolaters nor adulterers nor voluptuous persons nor sodomites,"
Has the historical translation of malakos referred to sexual acts with the word "effeminate"? No!
1. having the qualities generally attributed to women, as weakness, timidity, delicacy, etc.; unmanly; not virile
2. characterized by such qualities; weak; soft, decadent, etc.: effeminate art"
Websters New World College Dictionary
1. Having the qualities of the female sex; soft or delicate to an unmanly degree; tender; womanish; voluptuous." the 1828 Websters English Dictionary
The New Jerusalem Bible translates malakos as "the self-indulgent".
The BDAG defines malakos thus: "being passive in a same-sex relationship, effeminate esp. of catamites, of men and boys who are sodomized by other males in such a relationship, opp. ἀρσενοκοίτης"
But, Heinrich Meyer, a 19th century evangelical (Lutheran) German Greek scholar states:
"μαλακοί] effeminates, commonly understood as qui muliebria patiuntur, but with no sufficient evidence from the usage of the language (the passages in Wetstein and Kypke, even Dion. Hal. vii. 2, do not prove the point); moreover, such catamites (molles) were called πόρνοι or κίναιδοι. One does not see, moreover, why precisely this sin should be mentioned twice over in different aspects. Rather therefore: effeminate luxurious livers."https://www.studylight.org/commentaries/hmc/1-corinthians-6.html
These two Greek authorities disagree but I find Meyer to have the best reasoning. Why would Paul use malakos figuratively, meaning a 'catamite', when the Greek had the exact word for a 'catamite'. The only other uses of malakos in the NT are twice in Matt. 11:8 and once in Luke 7:25 and those 3 occurrences refer solely to soft, luxurious clothing. I cannot believe God the Holy Spirit had Paul use malakos to mean 'catamite' here in 1 Cor. 6:9 when all the other references in the NT refer to soft, luxurious clothing and the Greek had the exact word for 'catamite' that Paul could have used. For centuries, malakos, starting with the Vulgate, up through the Douay, the KJV and ASV; the word "effeminate" was the translation. The first translation to translate the word malakos in the sense of 'catamite' and joined to arsenokoites as "homosexuals" was the first Edition of the RSV NT in 1946. In the RSV Revision, the word "homosexuals" was changed to "sexual perverts". It appears as though the obsession with homosexuality in this modern era has caused a bias in the minds of the translators, reading back into the Bible modern words and concepts not found in the biblical Hebrew and Greek.
This leaves the Greek arsenokoites, "abusers of themselves with mankind" in the KJV and then "sodomites" in the NRSV, YLT and the Interlinear I quoted above, along with other versions. It is a very difficult word and a lot of variance in the views of the meaning. In Principles of Interpretation, page 123 is this statement: "RULE: The meaning of a rare word, not decided by usage, should be sought first in the etymology, then in early versions, and lastly in kindred tongues."
I believe it is Bernard Ramm who warns that the etymology of a word is its history, not its meaning. That is generally true, but if we are studying the one who coined the word from two other words, as Paul did by joining G730 ἄρσην arsen (male) to G2845 κοίτη koite (bed or couch) etymology is important. The occurrence of the word in the NT is the first known use of the word so Paul is thought to have coined it. The word koite in Heb. 13:4 stands for the marriage bed, morally honorable. In Rom. 9:10 it stands for conception. So, it has a sexual meaning and in these two cases it is moral. Yet we find the word used in a vice list in the following:
"Let us walk honestly, as in the day; not in rioting and drunkenness, not in chambering and wantonness, not in strife and envying." (Rom 13:13, KJV)
Here koite is rendered "chambering", which is quite suggestive since it means men bed-hopping, promiscuity. The 19th century Methodist Adam Clarke in his commentary states on this word: "This is no legitimate word, and conveys no sense till, from its connection in this place, we force a meaning upon it. The original word, κοιταις, signifies whoredoms and prostitution of every kind."https://www.studylight.org/commentaries/acc/romans-13.html
When the word has "male" prefixed to it and in a vice list, is it sin as in Rom. 13:13, or is it sin just because it has "male" attached to it? To me it seems that male to male sex in 1 Cor. 6:9 is the same as what Adam Clarke described as the male-female sin. While the passage in 1 Cor. 6 has no real category or structure so we can get an idea from word association of the meaning, Paul uses arsenokoites once more where we do get an idea from word associations. In 1 Tim. 1:9, 10 KJV we find the sins by category:
"A. lawless, disobedient, ungodly, sinners, unholy and profane
B. murderers of fathers, murderers of mothers, manslayers
C. whoremongers, arsenokoites, menstealers (NRSV 'slave traders')
D. liars, perjured persons"
There the word is sandwiched between "whoremongers" and "menstealers" or slave traders. The meaning of this word now is more clear, an abusive, dominating and promiscuous male. The description of Nero's perversion comes to mind again. Paul wrote in the day of Nero, the pervert and I believe the type of conduct in Nero is what Paul had in mind. It surely fits Paul's descriptions. You can read 3 paragraphs of Nero's conduct here:https://sourcebooks.fordham.edu/pwh/suet-nero.asp
This is how I understand 1 Cor. 6:9 about the words in question; but it is better when seen in the context of all 3 of Paul's references. But, I'm not in the mood to debate this. I was more interested in civil, Christian discussion. I believe I will add a quote from a theologian on this problem:
One of the early discussions of homosexuality in Christian ethics, was by the German theologian Helmut Thielicke in his 1964 book, "The Ethics of Sex". The first statement he makes at the beginning of the chapter on homosexuality is as follows:
"One cannot expect to find in the theological ethics of German-speaking Protestantism a clear, consistent attitude toward homosexuality simply because hitherto the writers on ethics have taken little or no notice of the mere fact itself and therefore a body of opinion -- to say nothing of the unanimity of judgement -- is almost non-existent." page 269 and also...
"Doctrinaire prejudices, which at the same time distort the theological problem presented by homosexuality, manifest themselves also in the fact that the value-judgment "homosexuality is sinful" is not isolated from an objective assessment of the phenonemon but is rather projected into it, and the result is that one arrives at an a priori defamation of those who are afflicted with this anomaly." page 270