Read about Sodom:

"Now the people of Sodom were wicked, great sinners against the LORD." (Gen 13:13, NRSV) The KJV reads "men" and the NRSV is "people" no reference to males here. Men is plural of man which means people, humans, mankind unless the context shows otherwise, the Hebrew being enowsh. The difference can be seen in the following: "And Abraham took Ishmael his son, and all that were born in his house, and all that were bought with his money, every male(zakar) among the men(enowsh) of Abraham's house; and circumcised the flesh of their foreskin in the selfsame day, as God had said unto him." (Gen 17:23, KJV)

"But before they lay down, the men(people) of the city, even the men(people) of Sodom, compassed the house round, both old and young, all the people from every quarter" (Gen 19:4, KJV)

The same word here for "men", Hebrew enowsh, the context of the verse shows clearly this was not just about males. But, even if it were only the males, what happened? According to God's word, this is what happened:

"And they said, Stand back. And they said again, This one fellow came in to sojourn, and he will needs be a judge: now will we deal worse with thee, than with them. And they pressed sore upon the man, even Lot, and came near to break the door. (Gen 19:9, KJV) The word "brethren" in v7 is a very broad word not specifically "males": "brethren" used chiefly in formal or solemn address or in referring to the members of a profession, society, or religious denomination - our church brethren" Merriam-Webster online

That is clearly attempted rape by the entire people upon the presumed to be young men. If you don't think women can rape also, just read the daily paper. Now, if rape or attempted rape of male on female does not condemn all male-female relations in and of itself, neither does male on male rape condemn males who love males. Rape is a sin of violence, domination not love. But, the Lord GOD told us what the sin of Sodom was, and it was not listed as sexual:

"As I live, saith the Lord GOD, Sodom thy sister hath not done, she nor her daughters, as thou hast done, thou and thy daughters. Behold, this was the iniquity of thy sister Sodom, pride, fulness of bread, and abundance of idleness was in her and in her daughters, neither did she strengthen the hand of the poor and needy. And they were haughty, and committed abomination before me: therefore I took them away as I saw good." (Ezek 16:48-50, KJV)

Before reading homosexuality into the word "abomination", check how the word is used in Ezekiel. It is the Hebrew to ebah and it is found approximately 41 times in Ezekiel, the most of any OT book. But, trace the word through Ezekiel and it seems to mainly indicate things connected to idolatry as v36 of this very chapter shows:

"Thus saith the Lord GOD; Because thy filthiness was poured out, and thy nakedness discovered through thy whoredoms with thy lovers, and with all the idols of thy abominations, and by the blood of thy children, which thou didst give unto them" (Ezek 16:36, KJV)

We can see from a book of history how the Jews of about 180BC viewed the sin of Sodom: "He did not spare the neighbors of Lot, whom he loathed on account of their arrogance. (Sirach 16:8 NRSVA)

It appears as if everyone answering here is content to read into the Scriptures their own bias and prejudice rather than let the word of God speak for itself. Did I violate a rule of hermeneutics here? Did I define a word improperly? If one uses proof texting, you need to understand exactly what each proof text means before stringing them together in an attempt to support a belief. The Roman Catholic Church, in its arrogance, contradicted the Lord GOD, and created a sin called "sodomy" based on the city of Sodom, and their twisting of the account. Try finding a sin called "sodomy" in any English version of Scripture, I've yet to find one. Even the KJV "sodomites" refers to idolatrous male cult prostitutes, not males who love males. Compare the following:

"None of the daughters of Israel shall be a temple prostitute; none of the sons of Israel shall be a temple prostitute. You shall not bring the fee of a prostitute or the wages of a male prostitute into the house of the LORD your God in payment for any vow, for both of these are abhorrent to the LORD your God." (Deut 23:17-18, NRSV)

If being a male temple prostitute condemns male to male love; then being a female temple prostitute would condemn male-female love.

I don't see that this discussion will go anywhere. If anyone, I mean anyone, has a relative, close friend, any Christian who needs to understand what the Bible says and does not say about the psychological concept called homosexuality, feel free to PM me and I'll try to help. I'm 75 and have studied this topic in depth, it is my spiritual welfare at stake here so I've dedicated a lot of sincere study on it.