How would you respond to someone who said the following:

Pre-Mil due to the Hebraic-hermeneutical method to Bible prophecy. This is the method attested to throughout all of Scripture as opposed to the dominant Augustinian GentileCentric-hermeneutic (allegorization)
If one were to apply this simple LGH method to Zechariah it would consistently harmonize with Revelation. The symbols would rightly be attributed to their literal counterparts and their eschatology would not be as confusing as others make it out to be.

I assume this guy is referring to Dispensational Pre-Millennialism.
I ask this question mainly because he has touched on an area I know little about.

The first thing that came to my mind when I heard this is I guess he is not a Calvinist and he may favor theologians like NT Wright and his NPP.
However, I have no idea, if that is correct.