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#45670 Fri Dec 24, 2010 3:14 AM
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Lynda Offline OP
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I know that believers have the imputed righteousness of Christ. When it comes to sanctification, can you explain by what means it takes place? And please help me out with Bible verses. I just heard of imparted righteousness. Can you explain that to me and tell me if it is a correct teaching or false one? Thank you so very much!

Last edited by Lynda; Fri Dec 24, 2010 3:15 AM.
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Tom Offline
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Originally Posted by Lynda
I know that believers have the imputed righteousness of Christ. When it comes to sanctification, can you explain by what means it takes place? And please help me out with Bible verses. I just heard of imparted righteousness. Can you explain that to me and tell me if it is a correct teaching or false one? Thank you so very much!

Hi Lynda

Just running out, so I need to make this a quick response.
I thought I would point you to some of the many articles that the Highway has on sanctification .

Tom

Last edited by Pilgrim; Fri Dec 24, 2010 9:19 PM. Reason: Corrected the link to point to articles on sanctification
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Annie Oakley
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You might find some helpful information here. It is not a term commonly used in Reformed circles. You will find it more frequently used by Wesleyans and Seventh Day Adventists.


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Annie Oakley
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There is a good explanation found in the article "Arminianism Exposed" by Mark Herzer.

He says:
Quote
Even the most recent twentieth-century Wesleyan theologian argues the same. "We Arminians understand that God as Judge, when He forgives us, really does make us righteous by imparting righteousness to us, and we feel [my emphasis] that many passages of Scripture support this understanding." Justification, for him, means to "make you righteous" and not "declare you righteous." He says that he believes in imputation of righteousness but also in imparted righteousness, the emphasis being on the imparted.

and
Quote
They feared that the historic doctrine undercut moral responsibility, and so they charged the Calvinists of being antinomians. They argued that the atonement put one on an equal footing with Adam.56 Once this atonement was accepted by faith, all sins were forgiven and we were then imparted righteousness which by grace will lead us to holiness. The question then becomes, by what righteousness is a person justified? Is it soley the imputed righteousness of Christ? No. Then, is it by this mixed righteousness in a person (the imparted righteousness mixed with our obedience)? That seems to be the conclusion one must draw.

and further:
Quote
Imparted righteousness: such a teaching is unbiblical and not protestant or evangelical. It is nothing less than the Romish notion of infused righteousness. This is not mere name calling. Some of their writers concede. Thomas Oden does not deny that the similarities exist. Wesleyans (along with others), he believes, "moderated" the extremes between Wittenberg and Rome. He believes that this moderation is a "via media."70 This is dangerous. He believes imparted righteousness needs to be underscored; there is too much "dialectic" between imputation and impartation.71 We must never let the two meet; imputed righteousness alone justifies; imparted righteousness does not play any role in our justification. There can be no moderation. The antithesis between imparted/infused and imputed righteousness must always exist. If they continue to maintain this position, then they seriously err. It is Roman Catholicism in Protestant garb.


The Chestnut Mare

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