What does it mean when Jesus said in Mark 10:5-7 that divorce was allowed because of the hardness of the peoples heart? It would seem that God has three positions on our actions:
He has the position of "Thou shalt not", things He will never approve as not being sinful. If we do them we sin and need forgiveness.
He has the position of "Thou shalt", things we can and may do that are not considered sin and we are free to do with his pleasure.
He has the position of "I do not want you to do this action, but will allow you to do it because of the hardness of your heart".
Is this a precedent that has been set that illustrates there are actions that God may allow us to do because of the hardness of our hearts even though He does not want us to do them which are not sin?
How did God view divorce before he allowed Moses to write a certificate of divorce? As a sin? If God viewed it as a sin, why would the hardness of peoples heart be a reason to allow them to commit this sin as an allowable rule of a relationship?
If God did not view it as a sin, why would he not have allowed it before Moses? Thank you... Michael