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#51978 Fri Apr 01, 2016 8:10 AM
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Pilgrim Offline OP
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Why did Jesus preach/teach in parables?


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Pilgrim #51997 Sun Apr 10, 2016 1:39 AM
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Good Morning, Pilgrim

Your unanswered leading question seems enigmatic in itself. Asking it on April 1 adds to the mystery.

I will open my mouth with a parable; I will utter hidden things, things from of old (Psalm 78:2)

Jesus fulfilled that which was written by speaking and teaching by parable:
So was fulfilled what was spoken through the prophet: "I will open my mouth in parables, I will utter things hidden since the creation of the world." (Matthew 13:35)

Matthew 13:
This is why I speak to them in parables:

“Though seeing, they do not see;
though hearing, they do not hear or understand.
14 In them is fulfilled the prophecy of Isaiah:

“‘You will be ever hearing but never understanding;
you will be ever seeing but never perceiving.
15 For this people’s heart has become calloused;
they hardly hear with their ears,
and they have closed their eyes.
Otherwise they might see with their eyes,
hear with their ears,
understand with their hearts
and turn, and I would heal them.’

Kaylin #51998 Sun Apr 10, 2016 9:36 AM
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Great...! You found some passages which reference the question I asked, with one that speaks in direct terms; Matt. 13 which references Isaiah 6:9,10. But you offered no explanation of those passages. grin

There are two other passages which are to be found in the NT which also speak to the matter in direct terms: Mark 4:10-12 and John 12:37-40. Would you care to make comments on:

1. Isaiah 6:9-10 compared to Matt 13:13-15?

2. What is the main emphasis in the Matthew passage?

3. Compare the Matthew 13 passage with the Mark and John passage?

4. What is the main emphasis found in the Mark and John passages (hint: they are nearly identical).

My questions aren't restricted to you only but are open to all. wink

Thanks for responding. BigThumbUp


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Pilgrim #51999 Mon Apr 11, 2016 11:23 AM
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Jesus taught in parables so that only his disciples would understand & not the entire crowds. The secrets of the Kingdom is reserved for the saints, the others were lost in his parables. Which is why most people do not understand him.

Luke 8:10 he said, “To you it has been given to know the secrets of the kingdom of God, but for others they are in parables, so that ‘seeing they may not see, and hearing they may not understand.

Last edited by flowers92; Mon Apr 11, 2016 11:28 AM.

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Pilgrim #52006 Wed Apr 13, 2016 1:40 AM
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In comparing Isaiah 6:10 with Matthew 13:13-15, the Isaiah passage states actively hardening the hearers:
"Make the heart of this people calloused;
make their ears dull
and close their eyes." (Isaiah 6:10)

It seems the Isaiah passage is more devastating a judgment against Israel. It isn't preceded with explaining the parable of the sower, and it doesn't offer "whomever has ears, let him hear"

It seems the audience was past the gracious point of receiving and hearing a cautionary warning of not hardening their hearts.

Pilgrim #52020 Sun Apr 17, 2016 11:45 AM
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Thanks again for both of you who did take the time to respond. Evidently, the question is of little or no interest to others? shrug

1. The Isaiah passage which all the NT passages either quote or allude to is prophetic where in the NT they are the final fulfillment of what God spoke to Isaiah, albeit there was a partial historic fulfillment then and through OT history.

2. The "stage" is set in the Isaiah passage which contains two essential elements:
- v. 9: The responsibility of the hearers and the revelation of their rebellion against God is the focus, e.g. Hear ye indeed, but understand not; and see ye indeed, but perceive not.
- v. 10: The sovereign will of God is the focus which is to be accomplished through Isaiah's preaching, e.g. Make the heart of this people fat, and make their ears heavy, and shut their eyes... And, the purpose, i.e., the eternal decree of God is revealed which begins with "lest". It was God's will (decretive) that the hearers would not comprehend, nor repent, nor finally that they be healed (saved).

3. There are 3 major NT passages and 3 lesser passages which reference the Isaiah passage: Matt 13:10-16; Mk 4:10-12; Jh 12:37-41; cf. Lk 8:9,10; Acts 28:26-28; Rom 11:7,8. The tri-focus of the Isaiah passage is split between these 6 NT passages. Some focus upon God's sovereignty and purpose and others focus upon man's responsibility and culpability.

4. It is essential that these elements be understood and then the ramifications held firmly and not diminished, ignored nor rejected which is what so many in our day have done.

5. So, in summary, what is the doctrine taught in these 7 passages? scratchchin

a. It was God's eternal decree and purpose that a remnant of Adam's fallen race be saved through the instrumentality of the preaching and teaching of the Scriptures.

b. It was God's eternal decree and purpose that the majority of Adam's fallen race should not be saved and through the instrumentality of the preaching and teaching of biblical truth, their natural hatred of God should be exposed and solidified (hardened). The Marcian passage 4:10-12 is probably the most obnoxious to most who read it for it clearly states:

Quote
all things are done in parables: THAT seeing they may see, and not perceive; and hearing they may hear, and not understand; lest haply they should turn again, and it should be forgiven them.
I emphasized THAT because in the Greek it is the word, iva/hina, i.e., so that, in order that... In other words, Jesus preached in parables with the specific intent that those who heard would not be saved. This truth is diametrically opposed to the current notion which is growing in popularity even within Reformed denominations that God desires all men to be saved, i.e., it is God's will that all be saved. Surely, if God from eternity desired/willed that all be saved then they would infallibly be saved. For who can thwart the eternal sovereign purpose and good pleasure of God? (Ps 135:5,6; Isa 14:24,27; 43:10-12; 46:9-10; 55:11; Jer 32:17f; Dan 9:35; Jh 10:24-30; et al). Indeed, the Father sent the Son into the world so that the elect in all the world (those given to believe) would be saved (Jh 3:16) of which ALL those who were given to the Son would infallibly come to Him (Jh 6:37) and be saved. The grace, mercy and love of God is unlimited in its quality and efficacy. But it was never decreed, it was never the eternal good pleasure of God that ALL should receive them and be redeemed by Christ's precious blood. What is equally true is that God desires/wills (prescriptive) that ALL repent and believe upon Christ. What this means is that ALL who hear are commanded to repent and believe in the same way that it is God's will, sometimes referred to as His declarative will that all men obey His commandments. Put another way, it is God's will revealed to men which ALL men are required to do. There is a significant difference in understanding the "will" of God and it is essential that they not be confused.

If anyone has been given eyes to see, ears to hear and a mind that comprehends the ineffable holiness of God and the indescribable depth of their own sinful heart, then it is because God has determined to shed His grace on them in order that they will embrace the Lord Christ and be justified, sanctified and glorified as adopted sons of Him Who called them out of darkness into the light.


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Pilgrim #52021 Sun Apr 17, 2016 5:09 PM
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Yeah i think you have to do much context butchering in order to make it seem that God wants to save everyone.


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flowers92 #52022 Sun Apr 17, 2016 6:06 PM
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Originally Posted by flowers92
Yeah i think you have to do much context butchering in order to make it seem that God wants to save everyone.
Those of us who hold to that view are often lambasted, ostracized and not uncommonly called "hyper-Calvinists". [Linked Image] But as you, I believe rightly commented, it takes "much context butchering" and I would add exegetical gymnastics as well as a total disregard for the principle of "The Analogy of Faith", i.e., comparing Scripture with Scripture.

I firmly hold that this view exalts the holiness of God and His eternal infinite love beyond comprehension. "Jacob I love and Esau I hated" surely humbles any tendency to pride in one's heart. The question is NOT "How could God hate Esau?" but rather, "How could God love Jacob?" And, with a new heart of flesh one infallibly asks, "How could God ever love ME??" drop vs. God loved me no different than anyone else but I took advantage of that universal love and universal atoning death of Christ and chose to believe. igiveup


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Pilgrim #52023 Sun Apr 17, 2016 11:15 PM
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Pilgrim

Just so you know I didn't respond mainly because you have actually asked this question before, either as the main topic of a thread, or as part of another thread.


Pilgrim said:
Quote
If anyone has been given eyes to see, ears to hear and a mind that comprehends the ineffable holiness of God and the indescribable depth of their own sinful heart, then it is because God has determined to shed His grace on them in order that they will embrace the Lord Christ and be justified, sanctified and glorified as adopted sons of Him Who called them out of darkness into the light.


That brought to mind the following Scripture verses.



Quote
Matthew 16:15-17 English Standard Version (ESV)

15 He said to them, “But who do you say that I am?” 16 Simon Peter replied, “You are the Christ, the Son of the living God.” 17 And Jesus answered him, “Blessed are you, Simon Bar-Jonah! For flesh and blood has not revealed this to you, but my Father who is in heaven.


Tom

Pilgrim #52025 Mon Apr 18, 2016 11:46 AM
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Pilgrim,

I have a different understanding of the main theme of the parables concerning election.

You have interjected "Adam's race" into your explanation, where the context is the Jews. The Jews were hardened, by decree and by their own rebelliousness, so that salvation could be offered to the Gentiles.

While I believe the parable of the sower, the prophecy of Isaiah, and Paul's speaking of the hardening of Israel serve to teach us, remind us, and ought leave us humbled as to the mystery of election and God's mercy and grace.

Kaylin #52027 Mon Apr 18, 2016 12:05 PM
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I certainly agree that the historic application of the "hardening" was in reference to the Jews, its FULFILLMENT is universal in scope, i.e., ALL who have been predestined to judgment are hardened. I hold to Double Predestination... Positive - Negative. grin


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