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David and Bathsheba question #55022
Fri Jul 06, 2018 11:59 PM
Fri Jul 06, 2018 11:59 PM
Joined: Apr 2001
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Kelowna, British Columbia, Can...
Tom Offline OP
Needs to get a Life
Tom  Offline OP
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Here is a question related to David and Bathsheba.
The text is quite clear that David used his authority as king to fulfill his lust. Thinking further however, is there any indication from the text itself that Bathsheba was an innocent victim in the matter?
As I read the text, unless I missed it I see no indication that she resisted his advances. However, some say when Nathan confronted David he likened Bathesheba to a Ewe lamb to the slaughter. They go on to say, in Nathan’s story, both Bathsheba and her husband were depicted as completely innocent while David alone was “the man”. (2 Sam. 12:1-4)
Thoughts?

Tom

Re: David and Bathsheba question [Re: Tom] #55033
Mon Jul 09, 2018 11:46 AM
Mon Jul 09, 2018 11:46 AM
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Pilgrim  Offline

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Originally Posted by Tom
Here is a question related to David and Bathsheba.
The text is quite clear that David used his authority as king to fulfill his lust. Thinking further however, is there any indication from the text itself that Bathsheba was an innocent victim in the matter?
As I read the text, unless I missed it I see no indication that she resisted his advances. However, some say when Nathan confronted David he likened Bathesheba to a Ewe lamb to the slaughter. They go on to say, in Nathan’s story, both Bathsheba and her husband were depicted as completely innocent while David alone was “the man”. (2 Sam. 12:1-4)

I agree with you that there is no evidence that Bathsheba was an "innocent" party to adultery. She was an adult and a married woman too. Therefore, she was certainly culpable knowing full well that even David's advances, which doubtless took place over a period of time, were immoral and a sin. Nothing is mentioned that David raped her, nor that she resisted.

Quote
2 Samuel 12:1-4 (ASV) And Jehovah sent Nathan unto David. And he came unto him, and said unto him, There were two men in one city; the one rich, and the other poor. The rich man had exceeding many flocks and herds; but the poor man had nothing, save one little ewe lamb, which he had bought and nourished up: and it grew up together with him, and with his children; it did eat of his own morsel, and drank of his own cup, and lay in his bosom, and was unto him as a daughter. And there came a traveller unto the rich man, and he spared to take of his own flock and of his own herd, to dress for the wayfaring man that was come unto him, but took the poor man's lamb, and dressed it for the man that was come to him.

The point of this passage has nothing to do with the "innocency" of either the owner of the flock nor the ewe lamb. To say otherwise is nothing more than pretext gained from eisogesis. The Spirit of God, who authored that text intended to illustrate the guilt of the David; the rich man in taking a treasured possession (Bathsheba) of the poor man (Uriah) having used his power to do so. The only "innocent" party in the actual situation could be Uriah, assuming that he was not privy to Bathsheba's adulterous relationship with David, whom he had great respect, trust and loyalty.


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