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kevin -:- James 5:13-18
-:- Mon, Feb 21, 2000 at 19:58:32 (PST)
_ stan -:- Re: James 5:13-18
-:- Tues, Feb 22, 2000 at 20:40:12 (PST)
__ Rod -:- amen!
n/t -:- Wed, Feb 23, 2000 at 05:30:49
(PST)
_ laz -:- Re:
James 5:13-18 -:- Tues, Feb 22, 2000
at 08:17:42 (PST)
__ kevin -:- Re:
James 5:13-18 -:- Tues, Feb 22, 2000
at 19:04:49 (PST)
_ Tom -:- Re:
James 5:13-18 -:- Tues, Feb 22, 2000
at 01:16:12 (PST)
__ kevin -:- Re:
James 5:13-18 -:- Tues, Feb 22, 2000
at 05:42:07 (PST)
___ john hampshire -:- Re: James 5:13-18 -:- Tues,
Feb 22, 2000 at 22:10:10 (PST)
____ a monitor -:- Re:
James 5:13-18 -:- Wed, Feb 23, 2000 at
08:01:23 (PST)
_____ Rod -:- a
monitor: exactly! Thanks. n/t -:- Wed,
Feb 23, 2000 at 08:35:36 (PST)
____ kevin -:- Re:
James 5:13-18 -:- Wed, Feb 23, 2000 at
05:04:54 (PST)
_____ laz -:- Re:
James 5:13-18 -:- Wed, Feb 23, 2000 at
07:30:23 (PST)
______ Rod -:- 'if' -:- Wed, Feb 23, 2000 at 09:09:54 (PST)
_______ Tom -:- A
thought occured to me -:- Thurs, Feb
24, 2000 at 01:00:59 (PST)
________ Rod -:- You
are correct, brother Tom. -:- Thurs,
Feb 24, 2000 at 08:59:07 (PST)
_________ kevin -:- small point on gifts -:- Thurs,
Feb 24, 2000 at 10:46:55 (PST)
__________ Rod -:- a
couple of other significant points -:-
Thurs, Feb 24, 2000 at 13:13:32 (PST)
__________ Pilgrim -:- Re: small point on gifts -:-
Thurs, Feb 24, 2000 at 12:23:41 (PST)
___________ kevin -:- thank you -:- Thurs, Feb 24,
2000 at 12:43:29 (PST)
____________ Pilgrim -:- Re: thank you -:- Fri, Feb
25, 2000 at 07:57:37 (PST)
_____________ kevin -:- Re: thank you -:- Fri, Feb
25, 2000 at 14:57:58 (PST)
______________ kevin -:- post by kevin titled Re: thank you for Rod and Pilgrim -:- Fri, Feb 25, 2000 at 15:21:41 (PST)
________ kevin -:- Re:
A thought occured to me -:- Thurs, Feb
24, 2000 at 03:47:46 (PST)
_______ laz -:- Re:
'if' -:- Wed, Feb 23, 2000 at 11:00:58
(PST)
________ Rod -:- Re:
'if' -:- Wed, Feb 23, 2000 at 11:35:02
(PST)
_________ laz -:- Re:
'if' -:- Wed, Feb 23, 2000 at 14:26:02
(PST)
Vernon -:- Wife
-:- Sun, Feb 06, 2000 at 07:01:05 (PST)
_ stan -:- Re: Amen! great to hear nt -:- Sun, Feb 06, 2000 at 08:53:34 (PST)
_ Anne -:- Re:
Wife -:- Sun, Feb 06, 2000 at 08:16:33
(PST)
_ clark -:- Re:
Wife -:- Sun, Feb 06, 2000 at 08:07:44
(PST)
__ Vern -:- Re:
Wife -:- Sun, Feb 06, 2000 at 17:17:47
(PST)
___ clark -:- Re:
Wife -:- Mon, Feb 07, 2000 at 05:45:25
(PST)
____ Vernon -:- Re:
Wife -:- Mon, Feb 07, 2000 at 06:50:05
(PST)
Subject: Everett Harrison From: Linda To: All Date Posted: Wed, Mar 01, 2000 at 08:56:49 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
I'm hoping someone might have access to articles by Everett Harrison.
He wrote the Romans Commentary in the Expositor's Commentary, helped
start Fuller Seminary, was a prolific writer and well known theologian
of the 20th century. I have just never seen anything posted here
about him. I am particularly interested finding something by him
on salvation or election. He died last year in his nineties. Blessings,
Linda Linda
Subject: Article of the Month for March From: Pilgrim To: All Date Posted: Tues, Feb 29, 2000 at 21:02:51 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
With the recent discussions involving
'ShowMe' and those who are want to acknowledge the biblical doctrine
of Original Sin and Total Depravity, the 'Article of the Month'
for March will be of great interest to most. In addition, the even
more recent topic of the Holy Spirit makes it even more apropos.
This month features a chapter from the beloved Iain Murray's latest
book, Pentecost Today?
by Banner of Truth Trust. You can surf over to the article by clicking
here: Charles G. Finney: How Theology Affects
Understanding of Revival May the Lord
God bless this article to your hearts and enrich your minds; being
filled with the knowledge of God.
In His Precious Blood, Pilgrim
Subject: Re: Article of the Month for March From: Rod To: Pilgrim Date Posted: Tues, Feb 29, 2000 at 22:00:27 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: Pilgrim, Both an excellent article and most appropriate
to our study.
Subject: Written Word and Doctrine From: monitor To: All Date Posted: Tues, Feb 29, 2000 at 13:37:44 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
This is a repeat...sorry. I feel that this debate over what is authoritative
is getting too complicated. The scriptures clearly indicate that
we are not to go beyond what is written. 1Co
4:6 And these things, brethren, I have in a figure transferred to
myself and to Apollos for your sakes; that ye might learn in us
not to think of men above that which
is written, that no one of you
be puffed up for one against another.
There is no biblical warrant to believe that tradition supercedes
or is even at par with God's Word. That would be pure presumption.
The written Word will infallibly reach the Elect and they WILL understand
by His Spirit working in concert with that good Word thru God's
ordained means...to include godly pastors, teachers, creeds, confessions,
sacraments, etc... We need to consider the Word above men and the
works or men, even godly men....to include any doctrines or traditions.
The written word is how God has always established and maintained
His preceptive will for us. Jesus Christ quoted and fullfilled scripture
(written Word) to make His point. Traditions of men consistently
took 'hits'. On the road to Emmaeus, the resurrected Christ opened
up the SCRIPTURES. Do we have any indication in all of redemptive
history where 'traditions' hold equal weight with God's very Words?
Now that we have the written Word...what of doctrine? Here is an
analogy which may easily break up. Clark might like this one. haha
The written word is like pure science and doctrine is like engineering.
One comes first...for you can't do real engineering without a firm
grasp of the sciences...as engineering is merely the application
of science. Engineering is the servant of science....doctrine is
the servant of the Word. And we find the NT replete with the term
'doctrine' and it's indespensible place within the life and work
of the Church. Eph 4:14 That we henceforth be no more children,
tossed to and fro, and carried about with every wind of doctrine,
by the sleight of men, and cunning craftiness, whereby they lie
in wait to deceive; 1Ti 1:3 As I besought thee to abide still at
Ephesus, when I went into Macedonia, that thou mightest charge some
that they teach no other doctrine, 1Ti 1:10 For whoremongers, for
them that defile themselves with mankind, for menstealers, for liars,
for perjured persons, and if there be any other thing that is contrary
to sound doctrine; 1Ti 4:6 If thou put the brethren in remembrance
of these things, thou shalt be a good minister of Jesus Christ,
nourished up in the words of faith and of good doctrine, whereunto
thou hast attained. 1Ti 4:13 Till I come, give attendance to reading,
to exhortation, to doctrine. 1Ti 4:16 Take heed unto thyself, and
unto the doctrine; continue in them: for in doing this thou shalt
both save thyself, and them that hear thee. 1Ti 5:17 Let the elders
that rule well be counted worthy of double honour, especially they
who labour in the word and doctrine. 1Ti 6:1 Let as many servants
as are under the yoke count their own masters worthy of all honour,
that the name of God and his doctrine be not blasphemed. 2Ti 4:2
Preach the word; be instant in season, out of season; reprove, rebuke,
exhort with all longsuffering and doctrine. 3 For the time will
come when they will not endure sound doctrine; but after their own
lusts shall they heap to themselves teachers, having itching ears;
Tit 1:9 Holding fast the faithful word as he hath been taught, that
he may be able by sound doctrine both to exhort and to convince
the gainsayers. 2Jo 1:10 If there come any unto you, and bring not
this doctrine, receive him not into your house, neither bid him
God speed: So, we are to hold the written Word as the supreme and
only infallible authority and to also defend the biblically-derived
doctrines of the Church (as we have codified in our historic creeds
and confessions) against all satanic assaults. Churches that hold
the written Word as supreme and teach 'sound doctrine' (i.e., biblically
derived), disciplining the membership in accordance with that Word,
and properly administering the sacraments commanded in the Word,
are the only TRUE Churches, having been given the 'keys to the Kingdom'
- Christ assurredly being present and glorified. How can I say any
of this? Because it's supported by the written Word FIRST AND FOREMOST, and also
embraced by Christ's faithful Church where we can rest assured that
the Spirit has been active through her by that written Word.! a
monitor 2Ti 3:16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and
is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction
in righteousness:
Subject: Preach On Monitor N/T :^ ) From: Brother Bret To: monitor Date Posted: Tues, Feb 29, 2000 at 19:47:25 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Subject: Rewarding search From: Rod To: All Date Posted: Tues, Feb 29, 2000 at 11:48:01 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: All this talk about 'Can we know the truth' prompted
me to take a look at the words 'true' and 'truth' in the concordance.
I found/rediscovered some truly wonderful things, but too many to
list them all. I'll just say that my spirit, though never doubting
we could know the truth, was uplifted by being reminded how sure
we are that we can know! 'Sanctify them through thy truth; thy word
is truth' (John 17:17; convenient reference, isn't it?).
Subject: why do some messages disappear? From: kevin To: All Date Posted: Tues, Feb 29, 2000 at 07:29:50 (PST) Email Address:amoshart@earthlink.net
Message:
I posted a response earlier and now it is gone. What is the reason
for that? In Him, kevin sdg I have included my email address if
there is an issue of error on my part and the monitor would like
to contact me privately.
Subject: Re: why do some messages disappear? From: monitor To: kevin Date Posted: Tues, Feb 29,
2000 at 10:39:01 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: I posted a response earlier and now it is gone. What
is the reason for that? In Him, kevin sdg I have included my email
address if there is an issue of error on my part and the monitor
would like to contact me privately. --- Kevin - your earlier
post was an aggregious affront to everything we hold dear on this
website.... ...kidding! ;-) I responded to you on a post further
down...but for others who may be having the same problem I will
elect to repeat myself here. For some reason, you had a post earlier
today that was blank...no message. So, I did the only logical thing...I
zapped it. I recall having to delete another blank post within the
last few days as well...not sure it was yours. Not sure what else
to tell you other than let's see what happens next. a monitor
Subject: thank you From: kevin To: monitor Date Posted: Tues, Feb 29, 2000 at 17:47:39 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
monitor, I reckon I'll have to chalk that one up to my soveriegn
God. He must have known it was to wordy. In Him, kevin sdg
Subject: Concerning the Holy Spirit of God From: Rod To: All Date Posted: Mon, Feb 28, 2000 at 12:23:59 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: There is a great deal of confusion about the Spirit
of God. There are 'Charismatics;' there is the 'Oneness' heresy;
and there are many others. Those whom I consider to be closest to
the truth in Christianity have largely seemed not to have retained
a solid 'doctrine of the Holy Spirit' and those who claim to have
'rediscovered' Him have gone off on tangents and in error of serious
proportions.. It's time that we sought God's truth about Him, from
the Word of God which He gave by inspiration. Fifteen years ago
or more, I heard a taped sermon given by J. Vernon McGee at the
Chruch of the Open Door in L.A.. I am going to post a summary of
my notes on that sermon in the hope that they might be a springboard
that we all might use to better understand the workings of God.
'Seven Ministries of the Holy Spirit for Today' The first two ministries
are ecumenical, worldwide, applying to everyone. They are: 1) Restraining
evil in the world. 2 Thes. 2:6-7 indicates that, though men are
unspeakably evil, depraved, they aren't actaully as bad as they
can be because God is holding back a portion of their evil, to be
revealed in its depths at a time yet future. 2) Convicting men of
sin. John 16:7-8; Eph. 5:9-13 speak to this. (The remaining five
ministries are for believers only.) 3) Regeneration; the new birth.
Two significant passages concerning this are John 3:5-8 and Titus
3:5. 4) Indwelling the believer. The continuing presence of the
Holy Spirit for believers is assured. Rom. 5:5; 8:9; 1 Cor. 2: 12;
6:19. Compare Ps. 51:11, where David indicates that this continual
presence was his desire. It's our assurance. 5) Baptism of. This
is the action by which one becomes a part of the Church, is placed
in Christ. 1 Cor. 12:13. 6) Sealing as assurance and proof of 'ownership.'
Eph. 1:13-14; 2 Cor. 1:21:22. 7) Filling. 'And be not drunk with
wine, in which is excess, but be filled with the Spirit...submitting
yourselves to one another in the fear of God' (Eph. 5:18, 21).
Subject: Re: Concerning the Holy Spirit of God From: Brother Bret To: Rod Date Posted: Tues, Feb 29,
2000 at 08:45:36 (PST) Email Address:Lovitz5@aol.com
Message: Hello Rod: You are so correct regarding the misunderstandings
about the holy Spirit. To add another one, would be that some do
not think of Him as the third Person of Tri-unity and also being
God. John 16:13 is also a verse that I think is often missed: 'Howbeit
when He, the Spirit of truth is come, He will guide you into all
truth: FOR HE SHALL NOT SPEAK OF HIMSELF, but whatsoever He shall
hear, that shall He speak, and He will show you things to come.'
I like events and situations in the Old Testament that are either
types and pictures for the New Testament. Or can be used as an illustration
for a New Testament truth. One such situation is in the book of
Genesis where Abraham sent out his servant to find a bride for Isaac.
We are not given the name of Abraham's servant, and the servants
mission was for his master and the master's son, not for himself.
In this picture (which I personally believe in an intentional 'type'
by the Lord), Abraham represents the God the Father, Isaac the Son
of God, the servant the holy Spirit, and Rebecca the bride of Christ.
Sometimes I think we as Christians, are shy about worshipping the
Lord in spirit and truth maybe because of the Charismatics and Pentacostals.
However, they do place too much of an emphasis (IMHO)in the holy
Spirit. Who is God, yet has a specific role in the Godhead to point
to almighty God and the Lord Jesus Christ! Not Himself :^). May
God's will and good pleasure be done.......Brother Bret
Subject: Re: Concerning the Holy Spirit of God From: Rod To: Brother Bret Date Posted: Tues, Feb 29,
2000 at 10:06:31 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: Hi, Bro. Bret :>), I, too am a subscriber to the
typology in the search for Isaac's bride. The emphasis on the Father's
will and the unswerving, fervent desire of the servant to accomplish
that will; the demonstration of the riches that would be hers when
she became joined to Isaac; the leading of her away from her "natural"
family, though they tried to hang on and to delay her committment;
and many other factors of the account are too plain to be missed
by the discerning reader. The inheritance of the son was there for
the taking, but it was only to the bride. The inheritance was believed
and accepted on faith because of the testimony of the servant and
his 'earnest' (the jewels he presented to Rebecca) he provided.
Though never seeing the son, the bride was excited about the revelation
of him by this man, knowing by that testimony that he was the one
for her! If one understands the process of salvation and the role
of each of the Persons of the Triune God, it is unmistakeable. Thank
you for bringing it up.
Subject: The substance of truth From: john hampshire To: All Date Posted: Mon, Feb 28, 2000 at 05:05:30 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
All, Can't believe I actually just read every post under the earlier
thread. : 0 I understand there is an underlying debate concerning
the authority for our beliefs, the role of church history, and who
we can trust. Yet from my perspective, we all judge these things,
if only in pretense, against Scripture and ourselves, yet imperfectly..
Even the most apostate theologian or religion-monger holds his beliefs
as truth; based upon the validation with Scripture (even falsely
understood) and their inner-being (good or evil). Does not this
present a circle of reasoning. We know extra-Biblical sources are
true because they agree with Scripture, and we know when have agreement
with Scripture because we have the extra-Biblical sources. I agree
we can learn much from extra-Biblical sources, and I agree we can
learn much from self-study, both are viable ways to learn. But neither
can tell us when we have arrived at truth. It cannot be just a matter
of interpretation, for surely there is a right understanding that
forces all else to be wrong. But how do we know when we are wrong?
Again, I would say, and many would agree, we know we are right when
our spirit agrees with our understanding of it, and we find comfort,
calling this comfort 'truth'. But this cannot be the end of it,
for surely a wrong spirit finds agreement in wrong doctrine. It
was stated that our fruits will show the kind of spirit we possess,
and if their fruits are good, the doctrine be good too. Still, this
is not it. For good spirits are not without error in doctrine, are
they? Yet those who hold errors, though they have a good (or bad)
spirit, do they knowingly hold errors? I think not. But, what mechanism
drew them or bound them to error, why did the spirit not become
repulsed, can there be comfort in error for a perfect spirit? To
this I concede the sin of Adam. Error can indeed bring comfort,
a false hope may still relieve suffering and pain. We are all prone
to seek relief. Doctrine is often framed around what we refuse to
accept or needfully must accept as true. Blame Adam, blame ourselves.
Is it then impossible to be completely certain of truth? I say it
depends upon how honestly and diligently we search for it. As Sherlock
Holmes would say, if we remove all those things that cannot be,
what remains is the truth of the matter. How honest we are in our
removal of distortions depends on how distorted we are ourselves
(assuming a perfect spirit), how diligently did we crucify the flesh
to fulfill the desire of our spirit. And is this not just God working
in us to do His good pleasure, does not He move and motivate us
to do good? For me, the answer is: we have no complete assurance
that we hold unassailable truth. All our reference points are marred,
sin-bent, and distorted so that we cannot judge correctly. We are
not God, we are not Jesus, we do not see things as they really are.
Yet, as intimated above, if we have harmony between our spirit and
Scripture, and have diligently considered all possible resolutions,
and honestly removed those that fail, then we are as close to truth
as we can be in this life. Our assurance can be a false one. It
remains God’s business to reveal error in ourselves (pride no doubt)
which in-turn frees us to search deeper into truth (and does not
God reveal truth in Scripture which reveals error in ourselves—here
the reverse being true). How can we blindly entrust truth to other
men-- theologians, scholars, written creeds, or books galore-- when
we ourselves cannot be trusted. It is one thing to say these things
are valuable as they may, here and there, express truth, it is another
to say they are true categorically. Is not history a history of
mere men who, like you, sought out truth, but did not perfectly
attain it in totality (or at all). Did not God makes us judge over
these things, do we not have to test every thing, for this is how
we test ourselves too, is it not? If we find comfort in the thoughts
of others, haven’t we settled for less. Can our spirit actually
rest peacefully until every shred of revealed error is stripped
away laying truth bare. How can we trust a thing that is not fully
tested, and where is the error if we cannot locate error but swallow
whole all manner of teachings? john
Subject: Re: The substance of truth From: Rod To: john hampshire Date Posted: Mon, Feb 28, 2000 at 09:53:18 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: john, It is true that it's imperative that a Christian
be certain that he possesses the truth. Of course, not any of us
will be right in every point, due to rebellion and sin, our flawed
nature, but the emphasis is placed in this regard, not on us who
are seeking the truth, but on the Source and Embodiment of Truth.
It seems to me to be an outgrowth of our faith that, if we didn't
'get ourselves saved,' we can know that we don't arrive at the knowledge
fo God's truth in a vacuum either. In all things related to faith
and salvation, God is the initiator and cause, man is the reactor
and beneficiary. God gave us the regeneration of the Holy Spirit
and His indwelling presence prior to our coming to faith. That was
the actual cause of our faith, as the Spirit of God within in replaces
our old will with a new will to come to God in Christ. That new
will remains the same, not only desiring saving faith, but also
desiring the truth of God because it honors the Son. I won't cite
the Scripture references yet again, but the Bible makes it evident
that the Spirit is both God's Spirit and Christ's Spirit, proceeding
from both the Father and the Son. See Rom. 8:9 for one example.
God, being one God, has a unity of purpose. Manifesting Himself
in His three personalities, He has established a marvelous means
of bringing his own to His truth. The Father gets glory because
the Son's purpose is to reveal and to glorify Him. The Son gets
glory by the Father's glorifying Him (John 17:1), and by the Spirt's
mission of bringing men to conviction of His truth and power. The
Spirit of God doesn't, in a very real sense, 'put Himself forward,'
being content to honor the Father through the Son, but He is God
and He gets honor by our recognition of His role in our salvation
and in the writing of the Scripture, as well as in the making its
truths real to the believer. One of His ministries to us is that
of Teacher and Guide. So then, we can rest in the fact that, if
we belong to Christ Jesus in salvation and are children of God,
as the Bible repeatedly emphasizes, God's Spirit is committed to
guiding us as individuals and as a corporate body of believers,
the 'body of Christ,' His Chruch, into 'all truth' (John 16:13).
That is a promise made to the Apostles individually and as a body.
It is through their witness and leadership, guided by the Holy Spirit
in the will of Jesus Christ, that all the Church of Jesus Christ
came into being: 'Neither pray I for these alone, but for them also
who shall believe on me through their word; that they all may be
one, as thou, Father, art in me, and I in thee, that they also may
be one in us; that the world may believe that thou hast sent me.
And the glory which thou gavest me I have given them, that they
may be one, even as we are one' (John 17:20-22). Of one thing we
cn be certain: The truth of God always gives the utmost honor and
glory to His Son, our Lord Jesus Christ. The Spirit of God desires
to honor and glorify Jesus Christ. Therefore, if we are saved and
indwelt by His Spirit, God will get us the truth to honor His Son.
And we know that one of the manners in which He makes His truth
shine forth to us is by the appearance of various heresies which
force His people to seek out His mind and those of like mind with
Him. 'For who hath known the mind of the Lord that he may instruct
him? But we have the mind of Christ ' (1 Cor. 2:16; cp. 2:9-15 and
11:19). The Spirit of the Holy God and the 'mind of Christ' are
ours in grace, through the indwelling Presence and our submissive
will in seeking the Scriptures in obedience to God. I am assured
that we may trust Him to be our Teacher, verifiying the truth of
God when it is presented, resulting from His inner witness and our
diligence in knowing the Scriptures. May God give us a will to both
know His ways and to praise Him as we come to the knowledge.
Subject: GREAT post! n/t From: E.V. To: john hampshire Date Posted: Mon, Feb 28, 2000 at 09:04:06 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
You bring up some excellent points. Well .
Subject: Re: The substance of truth From: Pilgrim To: john hampshire Date Posted: Mon, Feb 28, 2000 at 08:40:24 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
John and all,
Although you have said many good
things above and have pointed out the fallacies of trusting other
men, it is my personal opinion that you go too far. As I have said
elsewhere, there is this infectious 'individualistic' mentality
taking over many who profess to be followers of Christ. It has not
restricted itself to any particular denomination it seems but is
widespread throughout Christendom. Further, it is made even worse
by those who rightly would speak out against the RCC and Orthodox
for their doctrines, particularly where they have appointed themselves
to be the source and bastion of all truth. However, the end result
is an error that is no less odious and harmful than that which is
on the 'other side'. The problem is a failure to recognize the biblical
doctrine of the Church in its fullness. Yes, the Church is made
of individuals whom God has predestinated to be joined together
with Christ. But this joining is not just with God, but with the
Saints of old as well as those who live with us and those to come.
(1Cor 12:27; Heb 12:22, 23) It's a 'body' which means it is a corporate
and living organism where different parts contribute to the life
of the whole (1Cor 12:12ff; Eph 4:16). Thus it is the Church as
a whole that holds the keys to the kingdom through its officers
who come from the 'rank and file'. Truth is found in God's Word
alone, to which we all should affirm together. And it is also true
that the Holy Spirit indwells each and every true believer and works
within each individual to bring to their understanding the truths
of God's Word; AS HE WILLS. And this is an important point to notice;
that not each person has been given the same measure of ability
which others have. The body of Christ is not some communist utopian
community where everyone shares everything in common, including
talents, material goods and intelligence. That there are many things
which all do have in common is not to be disputed or questioned,
but one of the things they do not have in common is autonomy to
DETERMINE truth for others. Rome of course misconstrues the Protestant
doctrine of Sola Scriptura to be sure. However, the horrors of rash
individualism which they deduce from their own 'strawman' figure
of Sola Scriptura is a reality. And this has come about because
those who would claim to be within the 'tradition' of Sola Scriptura
are actually denying the reality of that biblical and Reformed doctrine
and living out the 'strawman' which Rome fabricated as a distortion
of the real doctrine. The balance and harmony of Sola Scriptura
has been lost for the most part in our day and a counterfeit lie
has been embraced which casts off the proper place and authority
of the Church as an organization under the headship of Christ for
Satan's; 'and you will be as god, knowing good and evil'. The authority
of the Church is well established by Paul in many places and others.
And we need to return to this understanding today if we hope to
have some stability and uniformity in life and doctrine. This is
why the Confessions were written in part; to provide a check and
balance document whereby, positively, the truth would be guaranteed
throughout generations, and negatively as a safeguard against heretical
preachers/teachers within the church and to expose the errors and
attacks from the world without. When one joins a Confessional Church
(ideally to be sure), he or she has already considered the doctrinal
foundation of that congregation which is contained in the Confession;
whether it be the Westminster, Belgic, Savoy, London, Augsberg,
etc. And if there is anything within those Confessions or in an
official statement of the church which would lead one away from
Christ, THEN..... THEN, the individual being bound to CHRIST, first
and foremost, is bound to reject the false teaching of that church.
But unless one can show from Scripture that the teaching is false,
then the Church and its officers are an authority and are to be
trusted and believed as they too are under the headship of the HEAD
of the Church, Who appointed them by His Spirit to the office they
hold. As I pointed out to Christopher in a response to him below.
ALL the Confessions affirm that the Holy Scriptures are the one
and ONLY source of truth and authority by which men are to judge
all matters of faith (doctrine) and practice (living). Even the
confession itself where this affirmation is to be found, is subject
to it, and thus the various writers of these documents realized
that their Statement of Faith in the confession was subject to scrutiny
by the Spirit and His Word by the Church. It is not enough to 'feel
that you know' or to make a confession that 'the Spirit is one with
my spirit, and thus I know for sure that 'such and such' is a true
doctrine.' Truth is not subjective, it is objective and it is not
to be discerned subjectively, but objectively. One may come to an
assurance about a particular doctrine which is said to be true,
but that doesn't make it true. Paul indeed was aware of this fact
when he spoke about the zeal of his fellow Jews (Rom 10:2. 3). We
are told to be subject 'one to another' (Rom 12:5f; Eph 5:21; Col
3:16; 1Pet 4:10, 11; 5:5, 6) in all things, including teaching of
truth. No blind obedience to man or document will serve to replace
an individual's responsibility to 'search the Scriptures to see
if these things are true.' But the Spirit of God does not alienate
nor individualize 'truth' to individuals apart from the rest of
the body. (1Cor 14:31, 32) Thus we can look down through history
and read of the many various differences of doctrine that are held
by various groups, but we can also look and see an great unity in
doctrine among these groups as well. And this is a firm testimony
that the Spirit has indeed worked among men and revealed the truth
of God to others besides 'ME'. Therefore we have the 'essentials'
and 'non-essentials' over which decisions of fellowship can be made
or broken. A strong view of the Church will surely curb one from
'thinking to highly of oneself' (Rom 12:5) as one rejoices in the
fact that they are a MEMBER of a glorious BODY wherein the Spirit
of Christ guides, gifts and governs all who dwell therein. There
is a place for individual study, thinking and disagreement. But
it should not override the reality of the organism which is organized
by Christ Himself as having delegated authority over individuals
and responsible for them by preaching/teaching the truth according
as the Spirit opens the Word to those appointed to serve the Lord
Christ the Head. It's a 'both/and' and not an 'either/or' answer
here to the question of 'how and can we know truth'!!
In His Precious Blood, Pilgrim
Subject: Re: The substance of truth From: Christopher To: Pilgrim Date Posted: Mon, Feb 28, 2000 at 10:00:27 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Pilgrim, I will respond to your post below tonight, as work prevents
me from writing a lengthy post today (work, how annoying!). It seems
the only difference is that you do not allow for the Holy Spirit's
guidance, 'stamp of approval,' so to speak on anything other than
Holy Scripture. Leaving aside the question of how we actually got
Holy Scripture, you are left to argue that something is the 'clear
teaching of Scripture' when what is clear is that Scripture can
very easily be understood in different ways by different people
at different times. Thus, we are left with the three alternatives
which I've mentioned: The pope, the individual or the whole Church
as the criterion for Truth. While you seem to maintain that the
Holy Spirit does guide the Church as a whole, you don't seem to
find it reasonable that that guidance should be able to be demonstrated
at all times and at all places. Talk to you later, Christopher
Subject: Even BETTER post...(n/t) From: laz To: Pilgrim Date Posted: Mon, Feb 28, 2000 at 09:35:51 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Subject: Got truth? From: john hampshire To: All Date Posted: Sat, Feb 26, 2000 at 04:50:02 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Here is a question where the obvious answer is not the answer What
is the final determinate that what you believe as truth, is indeed
true? Sure your belief has been tested, it harmonizes with all Scripture,
it sound right, it is approved by most theologians, but again, what
give YOU confidence that you are correct. The obvious answer is
that it is correct because it is not incorrect by the standards
listed above. As many who are honestly wrong are as many as those
who are honestly right, using the same criteria. We need not be
reminded of people, great and small, having held to apparent truth
that as it turned out, were incorrect upon closer examination (or
were they). Intellect and public acclaim are dubious measures of
truth. There are many an argument here over Scripture, each side
sure it has validated truth. Each sure the other side is a heretic
and a deceiver and boldly saying as much, each basing their belief
on a harmony of Scripture or the writings of theologians dead or
alive, or some other measure. My conclusion of debating is that
truth, or non-truth, cannot be conveyed, except to those who are
receptive to it, and in this we gain little measure of knowing what
is said is correct, only that some buy what is sold and some don’t.
(The hidden question is: what makes one idea attractive and another
detestable) In the final analysis, truth is accepted or denied based
not on externalized influences, but rather on meeting a prescribed
level of internal comfort, a self-attestation that arises from within,
an agreement that you have indeed gotten it right. We know it is
right, somewhat as John realized Jesus in Mariam, and leapt in the
womb at the comfort of Truth. But then, what is this thing that
does the leaping? Since I have found truth to be this subtle inner
agreement, a spiritual agreement, a light that guides cognition.
We cannot successfully argue others into truth or out of non-truth
(this does not preclude honest discussion). What is it that makes
us forget this, why do we press so hard to conform others? Knowing
this then, we can avoid the angry rehetoric that comes with our
failure to make others conform to our will (pride). We can present
our beliefs and debate Scriptures, but know that truth is not bought
or sold. As such, those things we believe to be true are only the
external manifestations of our inner spirit’s inclinations. If our
spirit is crooked, our truth is crooked, though we find agreement
in Scripture and history for it. Our agreement with external influences
can be as much a means to excuse our twisted inner-self as it is
to validate it. The state of our spirit being the source for all
that flows forth from it, and all that is sought by it, or rejected.
So where is this idle babbler going with this. Probably not far.
Oh yeah, lest I forget, the question was: what is your basis for
knowing you are right in regard to Scriptural truth. john
Subject: Re: Got truth? From: clark To: john hampshire Date Posted: Sun, Feb 27, 2000 at 07:21:04 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
John-- Interesting question. How do I test what I believe? (And
I know that I will get blasted for this one). I test it against
something else I know to be true and I, and no man, have any power
over. It was created by God and used by God/Jesus in explaining
His word. This little test is science. The whole premise is God
created the spiritual world and He created the physical world. He
wrote the spiritual laws and He wrote the physical laws (scientific
principles), then He used the physical images to explain the spiritual
images. So if God is using a 'tree' image or a 'fruit' image in
the story, I, personally feel, that we should also study about the
physical tree/fruit so that we can understand the spiritual tree/fruit.
Does what we hold true also hold true through the physical laws.
It is the 'second opinion'. The thing we can hold up and see whether
we are right according to God. Example: Dirt. Man was made from
dust. We have the parable of the sower and the seed, where there
is good soil, rocky soil, and soil that is to hard to break through,
and we have soil that is covered in thorns and thistles. If we look
at the different types of soil we can understand the message better
than if we just look at the words and agrue where we are in the
'soil game'. (Soil is used in the story as our 'foundation' and
the 'seed' is the Word of God--as explained later in the parable)
Anyway that is one of the way I test what I believe to be true,
or to understand scripture. clark
Subject: Re: Got truth? From: laz To: clark Date Posted: Sun, Feb 27, 2000 at 14:05:42 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
HAHAHA! You might get blasted for that, but before you do, let me
say that surely what you said does have some merit in my opinion
(for I find myself occasionally thinking along those lines). I believe
the physical world is designed to provide general revelation about
God (Ps 19, Rom 1)...but I would not get too carried away for we
need to read and interpret the Bible in the manner intended and
not get too esoteric where no such hermeneutic is warranted. The
Bible is about Christ's life and finished work from first to last.
Anything that tends to lead us away from that central theme is suspect
in my book. As they say, you can make the Bible say just about anything
you want...and people do just that! blessings, laz What is the spiritual
lesson in the design of the platypus? hehe
Subject: Re: Got truth? From: Pilgrim To: laz Date Posted: Sun, Feb 27, 2000 at 15:48:37 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
laz and Clark,
No blasting, but only awe in that
you have blatantly disregarded what the Special Revelation of God
says about the Natural Revelation of God. First, while 'the heavens
declare the glory of God and the firmament His handiwork' (Ps 19),
it is critically limited in its testimony (Rom 19, 20) to reveal
only the Godhead of the Creator and His wrath against all mankind.
Second, the creation itself was subjected to corruption due to Adam's
transgression and thus it is 'distorted' in its witness of that
which it was revealed before the Fall. Third, the depravity of soul
with which all men do inherit 'distorts' their vision; so much so
that they 'cannot see the kingdom of God, etc.' (Joh 3:3; Rom 8:7,
8; 1Cor 2:14; Eph 4:17-19, et al). Therefore, God condescended in
pity upon man in giving him His Special Revelation; His infallible
and inerrant Word with which men are able to discern the truth OF
creation. But it is certainly not the case that the Natural Creation
is the 'witness/light' by which we are to know TRUTH. The Spiritual
(Scripture) ALWAYS interprets the Natural. To reverse this is to
fall into vain philosophy, such as that embraced by Heraclitus,
Plato, Aristotle, Demosthenes, et al. Lastly, the Scriptures albeit
infallible and inerrant are indiscernible to the 'Natural Man' due
to his corruption of mind, body and soul. Thus the possession of
the Holy Spirit, Who ALWAYS works in conjunction with His Word,
is a fundamental necessity.
In His Precious Blood, Pilgrim Joh
17:17 "Sanctify them through thy truth: thy word is truth."
Subject: Re: Got truth? From: clark To: Pilgrim Date Posted: Tues, Feb 29, 2000 at 05:23:07 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Pilgrim-- Please reread your reply to laz and me and then compare
it with your reply to John (The substance of Truth). You yourself
have used the 'physical' to illustrate the spiritual. Please explain
the difference between when you use the images to explain and determine
the truth in scripture and my statement that I use the images to
understand the truth in scripture. “It's a 'body' which means it
is a corporate and living organism where different parts contribute
to the life of the whole (1Cor 12:12ff; Eph 4:16). Thus it is the
Church as a whole that holds the keys to the kingdom through its
officers who come from the 'rank and file'. Truth is found in God's
Word alone, to which we all should affirm together.”
Subject: Re: Got truth? From: Pilgrim To: clark Date Posted: Tues, Feb 29, 2000 at 07:44:42 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Clark,
I have tried on many occasions
to try and explain this to you and without much success. But I shall
try once again. The difference between what I wrote, as you quoted
from me above, and what you are subscribing too is like night and
day. My 'illustration' of the 'body' was nothing more than what
Paul wrote by inspiration. What I wrote was nothing more than an
exposition upon what was already written. Expounding upon a text
and then applying it is certainly a biblically valid use of the
Scriptures as can be clearly shown from various passages found in
the Scriptures themselves, (cf. 2Chron 30:22; 35:3; Neh 8:5-8; Lk
24:27; Matt 5-7; Acts 18:25, 26; 1Cor 1:21; 2:6-16; 2Cor 1:12, 13;
et al). Another good example of what I am trying to convey is Daniel's
interpretation of dreams. What was seen in the 'dreams/visions'
was earthly, and the meaning was sought not in the objects seen,
but from God. The interpretation of the dreams was spiritual, the
content of the dreams was earthly. Thus we are to learn that we
cannot nor should we seek 'truth' in the earthly, but only from
God; his Written Word. We must ALWAYS interpret the material world
FROM the Scriptures and NEVER imagine to find 'truth' in the material
world and thus interpret the Scriptures from it. And this is the
crux of the matter which divides our two views. You would propose
that we are able and should seek to find 'spiritual truths' in the
material world. Whereas I believe that the material world is insufficient
to reveal ANY truth in and of itself, but rather we come to understand
the material world only in God's written Word. As laz succinctly
put it, to try and project some 'truth' from observing the material
world is nothing more than speculation. And as I tried to point
out in my first response, to go from the physical world to the spiritual
is Philosophy. To go from the Scriptures, which are spiritual, to
the material creation is Theology. The earth has been subjected
to corruption (Gen 3:17, 18; 5:29; Isa 24:5, 6; Rom 8:20-22), thus
even if man were 'pure in heart' and possessed 'all wisdom' he would
not be able to discern anything other than a distorted image of
reality. Further, man himself lost true wisdom and knowledge (Col
3:10; Eph 4:17-19; Rom 1:19ff). Therefore it is foolish to seek
'truth' in the things which are made, for God's Word alone is the
source of all truth, wisdom and knowledge. (Joh 17:17; 2Tim 3:16,
17). Science may indeed discover the composition of physical things
and devise ways of using them, but it is powerless and unable to
discern anything further. That which is spiritual is spiritual.
And that which is earthly is earthly. God did not create the earth
as a 'book' from which man is to 'discover' truth. (Job 28:28; Ps
19:9-12; 111:10; Prov 1:7; 2:1-7; etc.). The creation is to be subservient
and understood by the wisdom of God which He has been pleased to
put into writing in His inspired, infallible and inerrant Word,
being opened by the working of the Spirit within those whom He has
been pleased to resurrect from the dead.
In His Precious Blood, Pilgrim
Subject: Amen. n/t From: Rod To: Pilgrim Date Posted: Tues, Feb 29, 2000 at 08:03:03 (PST) Email Address:na
Message:
Subject: Re: Got truth? From: laz To: clark Date Posted: Tues, Feb 29, 2000 at 06:17:28 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Clark - I think the short of it will be the fact that 'body of Christ' is an entirely
biblical term. Hope I've understood you correctly. From my perspective...if
I do see physical parallels btwn the physical and the spiritual...unless
I can make a firm 'biblical' case for it, I keep such observations
to myself for I too believe that only the Bible gives us objective
revelation as to the nature of God thru the person and work of Jesus
Christ. Anything else would be mere speculation. Besides, I would
not want to find myself engaging in a subtle form of idolatry thinking
upon God or the things of God in a manner not supportable by Scripture
(and thus clouding 'the truth') ... but more the product of my vivid
imagination. ;-) Sola Scriptura, laz
Subject: Re: Got truth? From: E.V. To: laz Date Posted: Sun, Feb 27, 2000 at 15:38:38 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
I once heard somebody say that the reason God gave us the ability
to sense thirst, is so that when Christ said: ...but whoever drinks
the water I give him will never thirst. Indeed, the water I give
him will become in him a spring of water welling up to eternal life.'
We would know what he was talking about. In Christ, E.V.
Subject: a little simple From: kevin To: john hampshire Date Posted: Sat, Feb 26, 2000 at 11:31:01 (PST) Email Address:amoshart@earthlink.net
Message:
John, Romans 8:16 & 17. In Him, kevin sdg
Subject: :) From: Christopher To: john hampshire Date Posted: Sat, Feb 26, 2000 at 11:12:16 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
john, I told Rod that was another thread, but I didn't think you
would be the one to start it...and so quickly! :) Christopher
Subject: Re: Got truth? From: Mike To: john hampshire Date Posted: Sat, Feb 26, 2000 at 10:26:31 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Dear John, As a newcomer, both to this discussion and to my understanding
of my standing before a Sovereign GOD,I would offer this, the proof
is in the pudding (fruit). While this may seem a bit pat, I can
think of no surer proof. As far as the disagreement over scripture
I am no authority Yet will maintain that to our knowledge we are
to add self control, to that perserverance, to that godliness, to
that brotherly kindness, and to that love. If after that the love
for the Christ of the Bible and His commands does not have priority,
that man can know he does not possess the truth. In closing, Iwill
agree with your conclusion about debating the truth, it will not
be recieved, except that regeneration has taken place. But that
is not for us to concern ourself with, our lot is to go out and
make desciples of all nations, and trust GOD for the increase. Yeah
there is no doubt that our pride will get tangled up in our confession
but we can rest assured that GOD will bring good out of evil. It
is that assurance that sends one aleaping. In Christ, Mike
Subject: Re: Got truth? From: laz To: john hampshire Date Posted: Sat, Feb 26, 2000 at 06:23:59 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Dear John the Babbler - My standard for personally knowing what
is true truth out of the pages of holy writ can only be what 'works
for me' as I humbly stand before the mirror of truth (the bible)
and look it straight in the eye, prayerfully examining my thoughts,
motives, and inclinations, considering even the opposing views in
light of the very same scriptures (and my own inner testimony of
thoughts, motives and inclinations). Yes, I do consider the views
of those older and wiser from the present and past (The Church!)
.... and simply TRUST that God is working thru His Word (and Sacrament)
by His Spirit in His Church to bring me into conformity with it.
I must avail myself to His means of grace being and resting in the
fact that... Php 2:13 For it is God which worketh in you both to
will and to do of his good pleasure. So, I can't prove what is true
truth (or convince others)in the absolute sense anymore than I can
prove God exists for the things of God are infinitely more complex
than my puny mind and are SPIRITUALLY DISCERNED by whomever God
grants eyes and hears. (Right,GENE!! hehe) It is God's domain to
convince...to regenerate, to bring about sanctification - to give
us an inner testimony by His Spirit that we are indeed of the true
faith even while we labor all life long honing in on the particulars
of the true truths revealed in scripture, growing in grace and KNOWLEDGE.
At the end of the day, I must simply go by the faith graciously
granted to me by the author and finisher of true saving faith. There
you have it. blessings, lazarus
Subject: 'For it is God...' From: Rod To: laz Date Posted: Sat, Feb 26, 2000 at 11:24:33 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: '...even the mystery which hath been hidden from
ages and genertions, but now is made manifest
to the saints, to whom God
would make known what is the riches of
the glory of this mystery among the Gentiles, which is Christ in
you, the hope of glory' (Col.1:26-27). 'But God hath revealed them unto us by his Spirit; for the Spirit searcheth all things, yea, the deep things
of God' (1 Cor. 2:10). 'For who hath known the mind of the Lord,
that he may instruct him? But we have the
mind of Christ' (1 Cor.2:16). All of which
is to say that you are correct, laz, God is our witness and assurance.
It's my fervent belief that God is guiding us with His Spirit, and
that He wants us to discover, by studying His Word with that inner
leading and teaching, and the help of teachers specifically gifted
for that purpose, the truths He's made available to us. Studying
His Word 'on our knees' in submision to His leadership in Lordship
is the approved method to finding God's heart and mind. God gave
us His Spirit within in regeneration which leads to saving faith.
That gives us the ability to 'have' the mind of Christ. We have
that mind revealed in the written Word concerning the Incarnate
Word, and we have it by His indwelling Spirit: 'Now if any man have
not the Spirit of Christ, he is none of his' (Rom. 8:9), the exact
reason 'the carnal mind is enmity against God' (verse 7). The same
Apostle said, 'but Christ liveth in me' (Gal. 2:20). The Father
and the Son are glorified by the Spirit of God within the believer,
because the Spirit desires, above all, to reveal and honor the Son.
The Son's very 'food [was] to do the will of him that sent me' (John
4:34). There is one purpose with God, to reveal Himself to His own
for His own glory and honor. Mercifully, He has intended to share
that glory with His children, His 'sons' made so in Christ Jesus.
That 'sealing' to sonship Eph. 1:13-14) is the same thing which
made us alive to Him in the first instance, His indwelling Spirit.
And that produces a leading of the believer into His truth, when
he is submitted to God's will, assuring him, giving him insight
into what preacher/teacher is actually giving out the truth of God.
Submission to God in prayer before opening the Bible and an expectant
reading, waiting for Him to do what He delights to do, to reveal
Himself, won't go unrewarded. Even when we don't understand a concept/verse/passage
right then, if we ask Him, He will reveal His meaning to us, often
in an unexpected way, something seemingly 'coincidental.' I've often
made a request for insight and revelation and a few days later,
after I'd forgotten the matter, been rewarded with an answer from
a tape, a book, a post on the net...you get the idea. None of us
has all the truth, but if we don't have the assurance that we have
the basic truth, we're pitiful indeed.
Subject: Re: 'For it is God...' From: Christopher To: Rod Date Posted: Sat, Feb 26, 2000 at 12:21:32 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
>>>>>It's my fervent belief that God is guiding us
with His Spirit, and that He wants us to discover, by studying His
Word with that inner leading and teaching, and the help of teachers
specifically gifted for that purpose, the truths He's made available
to us.<<<<< >>>>>I've often made a
request for insight and revelation and a few days later, after I'd
forgotten the matter, been rewarded with an answer from a tape,
a book, a post on the net...you get the idea. <<<<<
From a previous post: >>>>>Christopher, to give as
much authority to the pronouncements of extra-Biblical sources as
to the Scripture, is not acceptable for a Christian.<<<<<
Rod, What you term 'extra-biblical' sources in that post are actually
the teachers given to the Church, guided by the Holy Spirit, that
are necessary for one to arrive at the answer to John's question.
If we admit that we learn from others--and it's not just me, God
and my Bible--then we're really back at how to arrived at who is
approved among us, no? We agreed on that in a previous thread. So,
with the exception of the Apostle Paul, I can't think of anyone
who can legitimately claim to have been taught directly by God.
The rest of us have to believe someone's teaching, someone's interpretation
of the Scriptures. Otherwise, if we trust only ourselves, we will
invitably err due to the reasons John mentioned. The bottom line
is that I am in complete agreement with you regarding your first
statement quoted. The question then becomes how to determine who
is approved? Christopher
Subject: Are we in agreement? From: Rod To: Christopher Date Posted: Sat, Feb 26, 2000 at 13:52:23 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: Christopher, Thanks for the reply. And it's my desire
that we come to agreement on this. We're, as you've pointed out,
saying somewhat the same thing, but with different meanings. At
least, that's my perception. Here's what I mean by that. Your primary
emphasis is on the teaching of men, as you quoted a 'father' to
me the other night, claiming that they have the insight needed.
The problem is that the 'fathers' weren't all in agreement on key
issues. Though the RCC claims the authority for the belief that
Peter and his successor 'vicars of Christ' (meaning His substitute
on the earth) is that the 'fathers' all taught that was the correct
interpretation of Matt. 16:17-19 and its intent. The truth is that
the vast majority of the "early fathers" didn't hold that
view, but a minority did. Were all these 'fathers' led by the Spirit
in that matter? You, similarly, while your church opposes the RCC
in this, do the same thing, appealing to 'tradition' overmuch. Also,
the Bible teaches that we aren't to run to the 'fathers' and other
teachers first to seek what we should believe, but to rely on the
teaching of the Holy Spirit in His Word, which is revealed and given
for our 'profit' (2 Tim. 3:16). That principle is underscored forcefully
in Acts 17:11: 'These [Bereans] were more noble than those in Thessalonica,
in that they received the word with all readiness of mind, and searched
the scriptures daily, whether these things be so.' They received
the true 'word,' because they were true believers and enabled by
the Spirit to do so. These Bereans weren't super-gullible, accepting
without question everything which Paul taught, but verified that it was so, that he was trustworthy, by looking at
the Holy Word for themselves. They were personally led by the Spirit
to see what the Spirit of God was doing and if Paul was actually
of that Spirit in everything he said. They applied the Bible to
his teaching to determine Paul's truth; they didn't apply his teaching
to the known Scriptures to determine their meaning, though that
can be done now that the NT is available. That activity these Bereans
performed is the 'testing of every spirit' which the Apostle John
wrote about so extensively in 1 John 4 (actually the entire epistle).
In verse 13, he writes, 'By this know we that we dwell in him, and HE
IN US, because he hath given us of his
Spirit' (cp. John 14:15-18; 26; 16:7:13-15). The emphasis is on
how God leads His child, not just 'exalted leaders,' but every one
who is His own, to know whether any teacher is actually of God or
not. 'Let that, therefore, abide in you which ye have heard from
the beginning...But the anointing which ye have received of him
abideth in you, and ye need not that any
man teach you; but as the same anointing
teacheth you of all things, and is truth, and is no lie, and even
as it hath taught you, ye shall abide in him' (1 John 2:24; 27).
What can that mean? 'Ye need not that any man teach you.' But John
was a man and he was teaching as he said it. John, writing by inspiration,
revealed that God's indwelling Spirit is our first and primary Teacher.
He will confirm to His own what is His truth by the standard of
its agreement with the Bible. If any man tells you he has a corner
on the truth and that God can only be known through his interpretation,
he is to be shunned and avoided. Men don't determine God's message.
God's message in His written Word is to be applied to every non-inspired
teacher, including 'fathers,' and that is the final determination
of truth, not the other way around. Our first resource, if we are
believers in the Christ of the Bible, is to the Bible, relying utterly
on the leadership of the Spirit within, and then, being frimly grounded
in that truth, we will be able to verify if a preacher/teacher is,
first, 'gifted' by God with the ability to help understand His Word;
and, second, if he is correct in this particular
instance. I once was speaking to a woman
and giving her Bible verses (she was a professed believer) about
her error on a particular matter ('soul sleep'). She haughtily interrupted
me and said, 'I'll have to read some books to see what I think!'
Now, she was correct to 'test' my teaching, but she was incorrect
in her manner of doing it. She was going, not to the Bible and God
in prayer first, but to men, to determine
her way of thinking for her! We must avoid
that at all costs! It's an insult to God not to trust His Spirit
to lead us, if we are His and have that Spirit.
Subject: Re: Are we in agreement? From: Christopher To: Rod Date Posted: Sat, Feb 26, 2000 at 15:05:38 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Rod, And thank you for your reply. I think I have it figured out.
You and I should limit our responses to each other to 5 within each
thread. More than that and we get testy with one another. :) Your
raise good questions and I will do my best to respond as thoroughly
as possible. Unfortunately, I can't deal with everything all at
once this afternoon. I'm looking forward to this discussion, as
it seems we are actually getting to the heart of the matter. Christopher
>>Your primary emphasis is on the teaching of men,<<
Always negative? The 'teaching of men' must be distinguished from
the proper interpretations of Scripture provided by God to the Church
through the Holy Spirit, no? I have come to the conclusion that
we must be careful about what we label the teaching of men, for
God did indeed appoint some teachers. We have that from Scripture
(since that's where we're starting). Since God's truth does not
change (there is no 'apostolic seed' or 'development of doctrine'
theory in the Orthodox Church), there must be those we can trust,
whether they were teaching in the first century or today--or at
any time inbetween. Otherwise, we are orphans. It makes no sense
to me that God would go to such great lengths to preserve a text
and then leave us to bumble around arguing about what they mean.
All true Christians seek to believe, as Pilgrim has pointed out,
the one faith handed down for all. And, as Pilgrim has stated, that
faith has been confirmed and heresy refuted through a variety of
confessions and creeds. Most importantly, it has been preserved
in 7 Ecumenical Councils. >>>>>These Bereans weren;'t
super-gullible, accepting without question everything which Paul
taught, but verified that it was so, that he was trustworthy, by
looking at the Holy Word for themselves.<<<< I agree
with you completely. This point you make is one of the basic Reformation
problems with the Roman insistance on keeping the people away from
Scripture. Orthodoxy does not know any such tradition. In fact,
do you know why the Russian alphabet is called the Cyrillic alphabet?
The Russians were given their written language by missionaries (named
Cyril and Methodius) in order to translate the Scriptures and the
liturgy. And that was in the first milleneum. When Innocent went
to Alaska in the 1800's, one of his first projects was to get the
Aleuts the NT in their own language. There never has been any sort
of 'keep it all away from the people, who are inherently stupid'
mentality. Anyway, the point is that there is a difference between
being gullible and accepting that something is true. Those Bereans
were evaluating teaching, correct? And that is exactly what we all do. Some to
different lengths than others. >>>>>Though the RCC
claims the authority for the belief that Peter and his successor
'vicars of Christ' (meaning His substitute on the earth) is that
the 'fathers' all taught that was the correct interpretation of
Matt. 16:17-19 and its intent. The truth is that the vast majority
of the 'early fathers' didn't hold that view, but a minority did.
Were all these 'fathers' led by the Spirit in that matter? You,
similarly, while your church opposes the RCC in this, do the same
thing, appealing to 'tradition' overmuch.<<<<< And
we can go right on down the line: purgatory, indulgences, etc. All
second millenium Roman innovations. The papacy didn't start getting
such grand ideas about itself until late in the first milleneum.
Things started to get really bad when Charlemagne became emporer
(filioque, etc) and everything came to a head in 1054. The Church
split over the very idea that one man is supreme over all the Church.
For 1,000 years, there was one Church, which made final decisions
in council, just like in Jerusalem in the book of Acts. All of that
to say this: you are right. Not everything written by even those
who are Fathers of the Church is correct. The Fathers are not to
be read that way. Believe it or not, not every father believed in
total depravity. Only Augustine. Gregory of Nyssa says something
quite different, as do John Chrysostom and a variety of others.
But because they were not all right (see Origen, who started out
very right and ended up very wrong) does not mean that we should
toss them all out the window. Discernment is something that God
has given his Church. The bottom line is that the Holy Spirit guides
the individual within the Church, which is the Body of Christ. The
clergy are not set apart and above from the people, because, while
the bishop is the icon of Christ, isn't every member of the Church
called to be an icon (image) of Christ? Just because Rome claims
to be the top (only) dog and they happen to be wrong, doesn't mean
that every Christian writing prior to the Reformation needs to be
ignored or thrown out. If that's the case, you may as well throw
out the NT itself. But I digress. It goes back to John's question.
How do we know something is true? There are three options: 1) Rome
rests it's authority on the pope, 2) the Protestants rest authority
on the individual being guided by the Holy Spirit, or 3) the Orthodox
rest authority on the Church as a whole. My contention is this:
the Reformers diagnosed the problem correctly, but they did not
get the cure right. That's why I'm converting. If God preserved
only the text and not the interpretation, then it comes down to
you and I or you and EV or Pilgrim and someone else debating what
truth is. Someone has to show consistency for 20 centuries in order
to be trusted, and the Orthodox are the only ones I've seen do that.
As I mentioned in a previous post, if you and I agree on something,
does that mean we have arrived at Truth, or does it just mean that
we agree with each other? We may certainly have arrived at Truth,
but all we really know between the two of us is that we have the
same opinion. Talk to you soon, Christopher
Subject: As you can see, we're not in agreement. From: Rod To: Christopher Date Posted: Sat, Feb 26,
2000 at 16:53:01 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: Christopher, I see you (and laz) have been quite
busy while I've been eating and composing a post below to another.
I do ask this: Please try to keep the focus narrowed to one question
at a time. That will avoid 'runaway' threads and chasing rabbits,
what I call a 'shotgun approach' where every point is hit at once.
I can't deal with too many things at once, being limited in intellect
and ability. As I've emphasized, these posts are a labor for me,
though I don't mind it if we can achieve something. ________________________________________________________
I do believe that we've reached the heart of the matter, best expressed
in two of your statements. First: 'But because they were not all
right (see Origen, who started out very right and ended up very
wrong) does not mean that we should toss them all out the window.
Discernment is something that God has given his Church' Discernment
is an individual's gift not something given to a chruch ORGANIZATION. The church is the people within it, made up of various
and varying gifts. And that is a major (possibly the major) point
of departure between us. That statement ties in very directly with
another you made earlier: 'The 'teaching of men' must be distinguished
from the proper interpretations of Scripture provided by God to
the Church through the Holy Spirit, no?' Now, I want to be very
clear and explicit about this. I don't want anyone flying off the
handle at what I'm about to say because they think I've said something
I didn't. I recognize the value of the various Councils. And I affirm
that creeds and catechisms, and commentaries may contain wonderful
truths of God. But, none are inspired, even if the men were guided
by God's Spirit in determining them. They aren't infallible. Only
the Bible as originally given has that distinction. The decisions,
interpretations, and writings of uninspired men may and do err (as
your post says) and there is nothing man has done which comes close to equaling the lofty
authority of that book. There is nothing that uninspired men can
do which is totally free from error and totally complete. God can,
has, and is preserving His truth in a body through the centuries,
but it is not in an organization of men; it is in and through a
living body, the one made up of an ever-changing group of members
performing the various functions of the 'body of Christ' in obedience
to the Head. It isn't the various 'one true church' organizations
of men, but of the real one and only Church, the universal body
of all believers in Christ. Thank God for the good work of uninspired
men, but thank God we don't have to rely on those, but have His
Spirit and His Word! Marvelous provision.
Subject: Re: As you can see, we're not in agreement. From: Christopher To: Rod Date Posted: Sat, Feb 26,
2000 at 17:21:14 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Rod, Yes, I'm actually enjoying this, too, since
we're really talking about something. We may not be in agreement,
but I think we're on parallel tracks waving at one another. >>>>>God
can, has, and is preserving His truth in a body through the centuries,
but it is not in an organization of men; it is in and through a
living body, the one made up of an ever-changing group of members
performing the various functions of the 'body of Christ' in obedience
to the Head.<<<<< You are becoming more Orthodox
by the moment...I agree with every word. Where Protestantism departs
from Orthodoxy is that, in Orthodoxy, those Councils were the Holy Spirit speaking.
Again, see Acts and the council of Jerusalem. It the whole basis
for dogma in Orthodoxy and the opposition to the papal claims. However,
you can't say that the Church is a living body, without saying that
it is an organization of men (and women, for that matter). That
is an impossible division. Again, if you throw out everything after
the NT was written, you may as well throw out the NT itself, based
on the definition of Church. God became Man to save man, and the
Church, the Body of Christ, is made up of men. The extreme of your
logic is that I could throw out everything you say, since you are
a man and therefore your words must be the words of a man, and not
of God. But let's get back to the original question: how do you
know something is true? If you say sola scriptura, that's fine,
in as much as it excludes the Koran. However, it doesn't tell me
anything about how to resolves the differences that were resolved
in Council. You tell me that God has preserved His Truth, but you
don't tell me how. You say it's all in the Bible. I've made a distinction
between what the text says and what it means. None of our disagreement has to do with what the text
says. Protestants (most of them, anyway, and some to varying degrees),
Roman Catholics and Orthodox all accept the 27 books of the NT as
Holy Scripture. They all agree about what it says. Where they differ
is about what it means and that, ultimately, is what we're discussing,
no? Christopher
Subject: Re: As you can see, we're not in agreement. From: Pilgrim To: Christopher Date Posted: Sun, Feb 27,
2000 at 02:41:18 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Christopher,
If I may interject here by way
of your invitation from below. Although you loudly protest against
the Roman state church, and to this I can certainly agree, with
it's preposterous claims of being 'the authority' of truth, etc.,
there is much similarity between the Orthodox and Rome to which
the Reformers and myself perceive. The manner of expressing where
you find 'truth' in the Orthodox is certainly unlike what Rome says,
but in essence the end is the same; i.e., extra-biblical authority.
Now, since you have been so gracious to acknowledge that some of
us are truly busy with other things and don't have the available
time to participate here and/or in the manner we would really desire
to (I am particularly referring to myself here among others), I
sometimes must resort to the writings of others who, having had
to deal with like topics/subjects have written some things which
I feel are exemplary and useful to share with others. And so I will
do so at this time. Consult the following if you would please as
relevant words of which I would have written; given the time and
talent! :-) Creeds and ConfessionsSola Scriptura by Dr. GodfreyProtestant Tradition? YES You may have already read one of more of the articles
referenced above. And you may protest that some of them are more
directly applicable to Romish issues of authority, etc. But again,
knowing that this will doubtless cause you some consternation, there
exists a commonality between Rome and Orthodox versus Protestantism
in the matter of authority and Scripture and the relationship between
these and the 'Church' the 'faith once given to the saints'. Lastly,
you simply and quickly dismissed the reality of historical progressive
dogma, resting comfortably upon a presupposition that the Orthodox
have in their possession the finality of all truth which was allegedly
codified evidently before the end of the first century? And thus
no development of dogma has taken place over the history of the
New Testament Church. Well, I certainly protest and think that such
a statement flies in the face of common knowledge and even common
sense. Pray tell, can you give me a date whether relative or exact
when all dogma was finalized; per the Orthodox of course! :-) Thanks.
In His Precious Blood, Pilgrim
Subject: Re: As you can see, we're not in agreement. From: Christopher To: Pilgrim Date Posted: Sun, Feb 27,
2000 at 09:16:35 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Pilgrim, >>>Well, I certainly protest and
think that such a statement flies in the face of common knowledge
and even common sense. Pray tell, can you give me a date whether
relative or exact when all dogma was finalized; per the Orthodox
of course! :-) Thanks.<<< How about Pentecost? The only
alternative that I can see is that we have to accept the Roman idea.
If dogma does change, then there is no point in searching the Scriptures
for what they plainly say, since something might have changed. Are
you seriously maintaining that there is something different about
the Faith now than in the first century? I would have strongly objected
to this even before I was Orthodox. Either the true Faith was 'rediscovered,'
as you say on the entrance to this forum and as so many other Protestant
writers have maintained, or dogma develops, just like the Roman
Catholic Church says it does. You know as well as I do, and you've
said the same thing, that the Councils were defending what was already
true against heresy. As far as flying in the face of common knowledge
and sense, I might ask, then, to know exactly what dogmas of the
Christian faith have changed since the first century. Either that,
or you are making exactly the same distinction between development
and change as the Roman Catholics do. But what's worse, from my
perspective is that you seem to be claiming both a rediscovery of
the faith of the Apostles, and that makes it look like you are trying
to maintain two doctrines that are opposed to one another. Either
one faith was handed down, or it wasn't. Either it has been maintained
ever since, or it was lost at some point and had to be rediscovered.
Christopher
Subject: Re: As you can see, we're not in agreement. From: Pilgrim To: Christopher Date Posted: Sun, Feb 27,
2000 at 15:32:21 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Christopher,
I am maintaining that the 'faith
once delivered unto the saints' has not changed one iota! And I
am also maintaining that the formulation of those doctrines in their
details came about progressively in history. Thus the 'Councils'
are to be either accepted or rejected on the basis of the Scriptures.
Councils do err, since they are the product of fallible men. However,
once their accuracy is determined, then they become a secondary
authority in the church(es). This may leave you with an uneasiness
to be sure, since that would mean that some of the 'sacred' doctrines
and practices of your new found religion could be erroneous. Therefore,
I am indeed maintaining BOTH, that there is ONE TRUE TRUTH, and
that it was 'rediscovered, refined and restated' at various times
in history. :-) I have virtually NOTHING in common with the assertions
of authority and infallibility of the Roman state church. :-) Again,
the three articles I referred you to set forth briefly some of the
aspects of that which I hold to be true.
In His Precious Blood, Pilgrim
Subject: Re: As you can see, we're not in agreement. From: Christopher To: Pilgrim Date Posted: Sun, Feb 27,
2000 at 15:54:59 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Pilgrim, Like this thread, the articles prove convincingly
that Rome is wrong, but do not prove that their interpretations
of Scripture are correct. As you are short on time, I won't press
you further on the matter. I feel no uneasiness whatsoever, but
thanks again for responding. Your posts are always appreciated.
Hope to talk to you soon, Christopher
Subject: I'm not a 'Protestant.' From: Rod To: Christopher Date Posted: Sat, Feb 26, 2000 at 20:07:48 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: All catholics refer to the rest of Christendom as
'protestants,' but that isn't so. Here is exactly where we depart:
'Where Protestantism departs from Orthodoxy is that, in Orthodoxy,
those Councils were the Holy Sprit speaking.' That is a grave error. The Holy Spirit guides and teaches,
but the 'speaking,' is by the inspirtation in the Holy Scriptures
which are what He uses to speak to men today. God directs men and
His body, the Church, to speak about the truth of God which His
Spirit has already 'spoken' in every page of that Word, but to say
the Councils were the actual 'speaking' of the Spirit ascribes later writings the exact status
of authority as the Bible. That's what I've objected to in your
stance all along, from the beginning. And, as I say, we are not
saying the same thing. We're in direct and total opposition in that
doctrine. To believe that point of view, we have to rip the back
cover off the Bible and start adding books. ___________________________________
Your statement: 'But let's get back to the original question: how
do you know something is true? If you say sola scriptura, that's
fine...' But that's not precisely what I said. I said, repeatedly
and with Scriptural references, that it is by the witness of the
Spirit of life within the believer taking the Word of God in the
Bible and making the realization of its truth real and alive. 'Faith
cometh by hearing and hearing by the word of God' (Rom. 10:17).
That isn't restricted to the original saving faith, though that's
true, but it includes and embraces the sustaining faith by which
God keeps us saved. Faith in Christ is an on-going and growth experience,
else there would be no purpose in God's leaving us here on earth
after salvation. As laz quoted recently, 'For it is God who worketh
in you both to will and to do of his good pleasure.' And that was
said immediately after we are told to 'work out our own salvation...'
See Phil. 2:12-13. We believers, by the leading and empowerment
of the Holy Spirit of God, are to 'work' and to perform His purposes
by His leading. That is because, 'We are his workmanship, created
in Christ Jesus unto good works, which God hath before ordained
that we should walk in them' (Eph. 2;10). The walk of Christian
faith is to bring one deeper into His grace by the gifted faith
and witness within. Again, you're giving other works the same status
as the Bible. ________________________________________ I have to
demand that you stop attributing things to me I never said. It's
really unfair and shows that you're either imposing others' thoughts
onto me or deliberately using it as a 'debating technique.' Here
is what I mean, though this is but one example: 'Again, if you throw
out everything after the NT was written....' This is a bald falsehood.
I have affirmed that God has gifted us with teachers and preachers
and evangelists who have gifts from the Spirit of God. But nothing
they say or write is inspired. I benefit from many of the departed
saints who have loved the Lord and written about their faith and
insights. God has appointed these gifted individuals to open the
Bible and by allowing the Spirit of God to illuminate them in faith,
be able to share the insights and thoughts they have, of which some will inevitably be wrong or partially
wrong because they aren't themselves inspired.
They won't be wrong all the time, and some won't be wrong very often.
But none is infallible. We'll all have our doctrine 'purified' when
we arrive in glory. In the meantime, if the preachers/teachers don't
take themselves too seriously, but do take God and His Word seriously,
and the people receiving the teaching don't place them on pedestals,
the Church is edified by their work (Eph. 4:11-16). __________________________________
Your words: 'The extreme of your logic is that I could throw out
everything you say, since you are a man and therefore your words
must be the words of a man, and not of God.' I urge you not to go
to ridiculous extremes, nor to ascribe them to me. The truth is,
you shouldn't accept anything I, or any other Bible teacher says,
without applying the principle of Acts 17:11 to it--search the Scriptures
to see if their truths are being faithfully upheld. I ask nothing
more. After all, as we say here who believe in God's sovereignty,
'We don't do the convincing.' And that's really the whole point
of this thread, to determine Who does. __________________________________________
Your statement: 'You tell me that God has preserved His Truth, but
you don't tell me how. You say it's all in the Bible. I've made
a distinction between what the text says and what it means.' No
comment, except that it means what it says, and that the Spirit
within the believer must illuminate it for him. _______________________________________
Your statement: 'None of our disagreement has to do with what the
text says. Protestants (most of them, anyway, and some to varying
degrees), Roman Catholics and Orthodox all accept the 27 books of
the NT as Holy Scripture. They all agree about what it says. Where
they differ is about what it means and that, ultimately, is what
we're discussing, no?' No. What our present disagreement centers
on is from whence is the power, ability, and enablement to interpret
what it says correctly under the leadership of God. We ascribe that
to vastly different sources.
Subject: Re: I'm not a 'Protestant.' From: Christopher To: Rod Date Posted: Sun, Feb 27, 2000 at 09:59:38 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Rod, I apologize for anything I said that caused offense. I did
not mean to attack you, we are just discussing the outcomes of certain
methods of thinking. You will no more throw the NT than I will rip
off the back cover and start adding books. Christopher
Subject: Now this is meaningful. From: Rod To: Christopher Date Posted: Sun, Feb 27, 2000 at 11:18:00 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: Christopher, We're now back to the heart of the issue.
:>) It seems extreme to you that I would say that about 'ripping
off the cover and adding books.' But, consider this. It isn't extreme,
but enitrely accurate, if we actually believe
the Holy spirit has 'spoken' directly
anywhere other than the Bible. That 'speaking' immediately, by the
fact of its utterance directly by the Spirit of God, becomes Scripture.
It's a description of what the essence of 'Scripture' is. It would
then attain exact equal status with the Holy Word. That is the whole
point of my disagreement with your statements and conclusions, not
just the one above, but in general. You will notice that laz has
somewhere indicated that you appear to do this, just as the RCC
people do. I entirely agree that it seems to be the case, though
you disagree with the RCC on several issues. My distinct impression
is that you rely more on what uninspired men have written than on
the inspired Word of God. This is no attack, but an attempt to clearly
delineate the differences we have, hopefully in an attempt to resolve
them.
Subject: Re: Now this is meaningful. From: Christopher To: Rod Date Posted: Sun, Feb 27, 2000 at 11:38:42 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Rod, No, I'm afraid we're back to rhetoric. Please see my response
to Pilgrim regarding the development of dogma. >>>>>You
will notice that laz has somewhere indicated that you appear to
do this, just as the RCC people do<<<< But we aren't
to judge according to appearances, are we? You disagreed with what
I posted from St John Chrysostom. He was making an interpretation
of Scripture. Why should I believe your interpretation over his
interpretation? How do we determine who is 'rightly dividing?' To
toss something out because it is 'extra-biblical' makes no sense.
None of us invented our interpretations, we learned from someone.
What we are discussing is who's interpretations of Scripture are
correct and on what basis they should be accepted. Yes? Christopher
Subject: A Clarifacation please From: Tom To: Christopher Date Posted: Sun, Feb 27, 2000 at 12:50:48 (PST) Email Address:ahardy@rapidnet.net
Message:
Christopher Are you saying that the Orthodox do not place men's
writing on par with scripture? If so, are you also saying that,
although the Orthodox do not place men's writings on par with scripture,
they have the correct understanding of scripture? Tom.H
Subject: Re: A Clarifacation please From: Christopher To: Tom Date Posted: Sun, Feb 27, 2000 at 14:27:10 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Hi Tom, Rod wore me out, so this will be short. :) Christopher Are
you saying that the Orthodox do not place men's writing on par with
scripture? --yes If so, are you also saying that, although the Orthodox
do not place men's writings on par with scripture, they have the
correct understanding of scripture? --yes Tom.H
Subject: Re: A Clarification please From: Pilgrim To: Christopher Date Posted: Sun, Feb 27, 2000 at 16:00:32 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Christopher,
Tom wrote and you replied: Are you saying that the Orthodox do not place men's
writing on par with scripture?--yesIf so, are you also saying that, although
the Orthodox do not place men's writings on par with scripture,
they have the correct understanding of scripture?--yes Then this begs the question which YOU must
answer: 'How do YOU KNOW that the Orthodox has the correct interpretation
of Scripture? On what BASIS have you determined this? If it is not
the infallible and inerrant Word of God, then you are trusting in
fallible men!' :-)
In His Precious Blood, Pilgrim
Subject: Re: A Clarification please From:
Christopher To: Pilgrim Date
Posted: Sun, Feb 27, 2000
at 16:43:40 (PST) Email
Address:Not Provided
Message: Pilgrim, I keep asking the same question:
How do you know which councils got the Scriptures right and which
did not? What is your criteria for determining which interpretations
of Scripture are right and which are not, ie--what makes your interpretation
of Scripture correct and someone else's wrong? All men are indeed
fallible. That is why we do not accept the decision of one man--whether
it's you, me or the pope. But, as I've said before (me & Rod
like to post in flurries, so you may have missed it), the standard
of truth in the Christian Church is the council, established in
the book of Acts, with which you are doubtless familiar. That is
the Scriptural basis for decision making and that is why I can trust
the decisions of the seven ecumenical councils. Christopher
Subject: The 'nitty gritty' of the matter! From: Pilgrim To: Christopher Date Posted: Sun, Feb 27, 2000 at 20:53:20 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Christopher,
Now that is truly a novel approach!
:-) I don't mean that in a sarcastic way at all, but to base your
trust in the 'seven ecumenical councils' upon the gathering of Apostles,
prophets and disciples at Jerusalem in Acts 15 is intriguing indeed.
For you see, that my 'trust' in the great Evangelical Confessions
and Creeds as SECONDARY sources is far less that your 'trust' in
the 'seven ecumenical councils'. Secondly, my 'reliance' in the
historic Creeds and Confessions is tempered by the fact that they
are 'sub-authoritative' to the Scriptures, which ALONE are to be
'the sole and final authority in all matters of faith and practice.'
And to this truth all the Confessions of the Evangelical Church
affirm; e.g.,
The Westminster
Confession of Faith: CHAPTER I: Section
IV. 'The authority of the Holy Scripture, for which it ought
to be believed, and obeyed, dependeth not upon the testimony
of any man, or church; but wholly upon God (who is truth itself)
the author thereof: and therefore it is to be received, because
it is the Word of God.' (II Peter 1:19-20; II Tim. 3:16; I John
5:9; I Thess. 2:13; Rev. 1:1-2.) Section IX. 'The infallible
rule of interpretation of Scripture is the Scripture itself:
and therefore, when there is a question about the true and full
sense of any Scripture (which is not manifold, but one), it
must be searched and known by other places that speak more clearly.
(Acts 15:15; John 5:46; II Peter 1:20-21). Section X. 'The supreme
judge by which all controversies of religion are to be determined,
and all decrees of councils, opinions
of ancient writers, doctrines of men, and private spirits, are to be examined, and in whose sentence we are
to rest, can be no other but the Holy Spirit speaking in the
Scripture. (Matt. 22:29,31; Acts 28:25; I John 4:1-6). CHAPTER XX: Section II.
'God alone is Lord of the conscience,[10] and hath left it free
from the doctrines and commandments of men, which are, in anything,
contrary to his Word; or beside it, if matters of faith, or
worship.[11] So that, to believe such doctrines, or to obey
such commands, out of conscience, is to betray true liberty
of conscience:[12] and the requiring of an implicit faith, and
an absolute and blind obedience, is to destroy liberty of conscience,
and reason also.[13] 10. James 4:12; Rom. 14:4, 10; I Cor. 10:29
11. Acts 4:19, 5:29; I Cor. 7:22-23; Matt. 15:1-6, 9; 23:8-10;
II Cor. 1:24 12. Col. 2:20-23; Gal. 1:10; 2:4-5; 4:9-10; 5:1
13. Rom. 10:17; Isa. 8:20; Acts 17:11; John 4:22; Rev. 13:12,
16-17; Jer. 8:9; I Peter 3:15 The Belgic
Confession of Faith, Article VII The Sufficiency of the Holy
Scriptures to Be the Only Rule of Faith:
'We believe that those Holy Scriptures fully contain the will
of God, and that whatsoever man ought to believe unto salvation
is sufficiently taught therein. For since the whole manner of
worship which God requires of us is written in them at large,
it is unlawful for any one, though an apostle, to teach otherwise
than we are now taught in the Holy Scriptures: nay, though it
were an angel from heaven, as the apostle Paul says. For since
it is forbidden to add unto or take away anything from the Word
of God, it does thereby evidently appear that the doctrine thereof
is most perfect and complete in all respects. Neither may we
consider any writings of men, however holy these men may have
been, of equal value with those divine Scriptures, nor ought
we to consider custom, or the great multitude, or antiquity,
or succession of times and persons, or councils, decrees or
statutes, as of equal value with the truth of God, since the
truth is above all; for all men are of themselves liars, and
more vain than vanity itself. Therefore we reject with all our
hearts whatsoever does not agree with this infallible rule,
as the apostles have taught us, saying, Prove the spirits, whether
they are of God. Likewise: If any one cometh unto you, and bringeth
not this teaching, receive him not into your house.' The French Confession: Article V: 'We believe that the Word contained in these books
has proceeded from God,[1] and receives its authority[2] from
him alone, and not from men. And inasmuch as it is the rule
of all truth,[3] containing all, that is necessary for the service
of God and for our salvation, it is not lawful for men, nor
even for angels, to add to it, to take away from it, or to change
it.[4] Whence it follows that no authority, whether of antiquity,
or custom, or numbers, or human wisdom, or judgments, or proclamations,
or edicts, or decrees, or councils, or visions, or miracles,
should be opposed to these Holy Scriptures,[5] but, on the contrary,
all things should be examined, regulated, and reformed according
to them.[6] And therefore we confess the three creeds, to wit:
the Apostles', the Nicene, and the Athanasian, because they
are in accordance with the Word of God.' 1. II Tim. 3:15-16;
II Peter 1:21 2. John 3:31, 34; I Tim. 1:15 3. John 15:11; Acts
20:27 4. Deut. 4:1, 12:32; Gal. 1:8; Rev. 22:18-19 5. Matt.
15:9; Acts 5:28-29 6. I Cor. 11:1-2, 23
As you can easily see from these
Confessions, to which I could add many more from various time periods,
countries and of different denominations, they are unanimous in
their affirmation that it is not the Confession itself that is to
be trusted, but the Holy Scriptures ALONE; which are to be known
by the inner working of the Holy Spirit. Thus the Confession is
of secondary authority and its verity is to be judged by the very
foundation on which it too rests: the teaching of the Holy Scriptures
ALONE. And perchance you have read to this point, I would like to
ask you to exegete for me that portion of Acts 15 which you feel
lays the universal precedent for all following councils to be entrusted
with divine authority and ability to determine and declare what
is truth for the entire church of God? And more specifically, where
in Acts 15 is the teaching that declares that the Eastern Orthodox
church and its 'seven councils' are the bulwark of the truth for
all believers? I will thank you now in anticipation of your reply.
:-)
In His Precious Blood, Pilgrim
Subject: Re: The 'nitty gritty' of the matter! From: Christopher To: Pilgrim Date Posted: Mon, Feb 28,
2000 at 19:41:00 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Pilgrim, This post is pretty long, but it seemed
warranted, given the nature of the discussion. >>>>>Now
that is truly a novel approach! :-) I don't mean that in a sarcastic
way at all, but to base your trust in the 'seven ecumenical councils'
upon the gathering of Apostles, prophets and disciples at Jerusalem
in Acts 15 is intriguing indeed.<<<<< It should strike
you as neither novel nor intriguing. This is the way it was done.
Given your familiarity with the councils and other writings of the
first milleneum, I assumed you were aware of that. Either I have
overestimated the extent to which you are familiar with these documents
and the people behind them, or your statements are some sort of
test to gauge exactly what I know and what I don't. Now it is I
who don't mean to appear sarcastic. :) Holy Scripture is indeed
at the top of the list and councils second. There are also numbers
three, four and five, should you be interested to know--but maybe
you did. Claiming to believe in the authority of the Scriptures
'ALONE' and yet believing that there are secondary sources of authority
is clearly contradictory. Either these creeds and confessions carry
some weight for you or they don't. There was no ALONE until the
16th century, if you don't count heretics. >>>>>As
you can easily see from these Confessions, to which I could add
many more from various time periods...they are unanimous in their
affirmation that it is not the Confession itself that is to be trusted,
but the Holy Scriptures ALONE;<<<<< Given my statments
above, I would indeed be interested in seeing a confession or two
from a time period after the first century and prior to the 16th
which substantiates your claim. I had always been taught that it
was the 'alone' part that was 'rediscovered,' but you are always
full of surprises, so I now await you. >>>>>And perchance
you have read to this point, I would like to ask you to exegete
for me that portion of Acts 15 which you feel lays the universal
precedent for all following councils to be entrusted with divine
authority and ability to determine and declare what is truth for
the entire church of God?<<<<< I am no exegete. Again,
this is simply the way it was done and the decisions were (and are)
considered final and trustworthy. We are not told of any other councils,
that I can recall, in the NT. However, this has always been the
standard. I am not making it up and this claim can be substantiated
in a variety of places. I would be glad to post such documentation,
should you desire. >>>>>And more specifically, where
in Acts 15 is the teaching that declares that the Eastern Orthodox
church and its 'seven councils' are the bulwark of the truth for
all believers? I will thank you now in anticipation of your reply.
:-)<<<<< Well, since I don't go by Scripture ALONE,
that would be difficult to do. And knowing that you don't really
go by Scripture ALONE either, it would be pointless. I assume that
the nature of your question, once the sarcasm has been squeezed
out, relates to proof of the claim to be the true Church. It can
be shown, quite easily, given the understanding of 'Church' that
was assumed until a different one was invented in the 16th century.
However, since you believe that the Church is absolutely invisible,
or at least that we can only define it in terms of the 'invisible
assembly of the elect' or some other appropriate terminology, to
the exclusion of anything else, the answer would carry no credibility
with you. But I will answer briefly and incompletely anyway. (It's
quite possible that I'm repeating myself here. If so, I apologize.)
For 1,000 years, the Church was one. Then, in 1054, it was no longer
one. Then, 500 years after that, someone decided that 'Church' didn't
mean what it had for the previous 1,500 years--and, I believe, you
are among those who hold this latter view. If you are right, then
Apostolic Christianity was indeed 'rediscovered.' But, by that definition,
you cannot have it the other way, too, since everyone for those
first 1,500 years thought otherwise. Well, except heretics. Anyway,
if we accept the fact that the Church is one, then the reasons for
that split in 1054 are significant. Interestingly enough, they have
their source in the same problem that the Reformers objected to--papal
supremacy. This, of course, is the theme of Luther's 95 Theses,
highlighted in the false doctrine of purgatory and the odious notion
of indulgences. The Orthodox Church had been maintaing for several
hundred years before Luther came along that the pope was not a sovereign.
It had also been maintaining in each attempt at reunion that the
doctrines of purgatory and indulgeneces were false. Now, the reason
why the Eastern Orthodox Church, the Orthodox Church, is in fact
the Church which can claim to be the true Church, is that it is
the Church which maintains the dogma and defnitions of these first
seven councils, 'following the holy Fathers,' which continued to
express the truth of Apostolic Christianity. It can show that it
holds the one faith handed down for all in a concrete way, not an
invisible, difficult to substantiate, we might be wrong about 20%
but we're really sure about this 80%, way. The net is quite a big
place and there is plenty of informtation for anyone who wants to
look for it. However, if you would like the names of some 20th century
Orthodox theologians whom you can read and make your own analysis
of whether the Church is as it was, here are a few--Florovsky, Romanides,
Schmemann, Hopko, Lossky, Meyendorff. The bottom line is that the
Councils had a pretty good 'batting average.' Unless we are going
to become Arians or Nestorians or non-Chalcedonians (OK, they maintain
they were misunderstood and may be in communion soon) or what have
you, we must admit that they 'got it right.' If there was error,
this error must be clearly pointed out. However, none has been pointed
out. It has only been claimed that they erred, and left at that.
Therefore, it remains only a claim and, until some error is pointed
out and substantiated,
it is not a valid argument. So, what I initially viewed as a 'pretty
good batting' average turns out to be believed to be the infalliable
guidance of the Holy Spirit. To be sure, there are local councils
and other documents of the second milleneum, the contents of which
are considered normative, though not of ecumenical authority. The
three responses of Patriarch Jerimiah to the Lutheran theologians
is an example, and is quite interesting reading. I realize this
all sounds way too simplistic, given the mindbending complexities
brought about by the Reformation which have led sincere, honest
and dilligent people to question whether they really can know truth
and how they would go about acquiring it, but it happens to be the
case. Lacking knowledge of any specific error that a Council made,
and understanding that those who claim the 7 Councils claim them
to be guided by the Holy Spirit just as the Council in Acts 15 was,
I am left to ask, why should I not accept them? What is tied to
this question is an earlier question: assuming that we are accepting
certain interpretations of Scripture that you and I did not personally
come up with, and which happen to be articulated by men, why should
I accept Luther, Calvin, Zwingli, Whitefield, Owen and Edwards instead
of Athanasius, Cyril of Jerusalem, Gregory of Nyssa, Basil the Great,
John Chrystostom, Maximos the Confessor, John of Damascus and Gregory
Palamas? Assuming that your occasionally condescending tone and
sarcasm are of the good natured variety, I continue to enjoy our
discussion. And please do let me know if I failed to address any
of your points fully or at all. I didn't want this post to turn
into a book. Talk to you soon, Christopher
Subject: Re: The 'nitty gritty' of the matter! From: Pilgrim To: Christopher Date Posted: Mon, Feb 28,
2000 at 21:35:55 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Christopher, You wrote: 'I
am no exegete. Again, this is simply the way it was done and the
decisions were (and are) considered final and trustworthy. We are
not told of any other councils, that I can recall, in the NT. However,
this has always been the standard. I am not making it up and this
claim can be substantiated in a variety of places. I would be glad
to post such documentation, should you desire.'
You faithfully keep making my points valid for me. :-) I realize
that this is certainly not your intention, but I thank you just
the same. You admit to being 'no exegete' and thus it would appear
that you are either unable to extract your presuppositional position
on the councils, or you are unwilling to accept what does not appear
in the text. A further justification for my conclusion is the fact
that you also admit that there is not one other reference to any
other councils being recorded in Holy Writ. Secondly, it is clearly
NOT the Scriptures upon which you base your trust in regards to
discerning the truth, for you wrote: 'However,
this has always been the standard. I am not making it up and this
claim can be substantiated in a variety of places.' Would I be incorrect in assuming that these 'places'
which you are willing to post are not various passages of Scripture,
but rather the testimony of the Orthodox church? If so, this is
surely no valid 'substantiation' for it is the validity of that
organization which is in question. Quoting from them as saying that
they have the authority is no different, as has been pointed out
to you by me and others here, than what Rome does in their own claim
to having the authority to determine what is 'truth'. It's self-serving
and irrelevant to the issue in question. Further, since you have
professed to believe 'Holy Scripture is
indeed at the top of the list and councils second', then to use the secondary sources to 'prove' their own
validity is hypocritical and contradictory on your part. Would not
the proper argument be therefore to present the biblical evidence
that would substantiate the Orthodox's claim that it and it's councils
have been ordained by God to be the 'bearers of truth'? This certainly
is what all the Reformers did when they put forth the fundamental
5 'Solas', one of which is 'Sola Scriptura'; quoting the Scriptures
teaching and its own self-attestation for Divine authorship and
supreme and sole authority. You ask: 'Claiming
to believe in the authority of the Scriptures 'ALONE' and yet believing
that there are secondary sources of authority is clearly contradictory.
Either these creeds and confessions carry some weight for you or
they don't. There was no ALONE until the 16th century, if you don't
count heretics.' ANS: There is clearly
no contradiction in holding to the supreme and sole authority of
God's written Word and giving credence to documents which echo the
truths found in it. I am guessing that this is just one of the weak
arguments set forth by the Orthodox to try and dash Sola Scriptura
and to exalt their own self-appointed position once again as being
the purveyors of 'truth'? To acknowledge the Scriptures as divinely
inspired to which nothing can be added or subtracted is hardly denied
by acknowledging that there are summaries of its teaching in existence
which are faithful in expression of those teachings. This is hardly
contradictory for we do this repetitively in other myriad ways throughout
our entire lives. If you are employed by a company, and your immediate
supervisor tells you that the owner desires you to do such and such
a thing, I doubt seriously that you refuse to acknowledge your supervisors
request on the grounds that only the owner has the authority to
ask anything of you! And further, you would hardly tell your supervisor
that you don't acknowledge his delegated authority and you doubt
that what he is telling you to do is not true; that the owner alone
is capable of speaking the truth of what he wants of you, or that
your supervisors requests are only paraphrases and therefore not
true.!! You then erroneously wrote: 'Well,
since I don't go by Scripture ALONE, that would be difficult to
do. And knowing that you don't really go by Scripture ALONE either,
it would be pointless.' ANS: I will assume
that this was a typographical error on your part? But even if were,
it is non-sensical and a blatant denial of what I have affirmed
all along: SOLA SCRIPTURA, ie., The Word of God inscripturated is
the FINAL and SOLE authority in ALL MATTERS of faith and practice!
What is pointless is for you to try and prove by the determinations
of men that they themselves are an authority unto themselves, appointed
by themselves with the FINAL and SOLE authority to divest in themselves
that authority to which they claim. This type of argumentation,
if one can even esteem it as such, is pointless and insulting to
any form of intelligent creature. It would be no different than
if I said, 'I am God Almighty, because I say I am God Almighty,
and being God Almighty I have the divine right to do so; and being
God Almighty, I cannot lie and thus what I have just claimed is
therefore indisputably true!' Again!!! This is no different that
what Rome declares of itself. You then progress in your failure
to grasp what I have CLEARLY written in this thread and many other
places by saying: 'However, since you believe
that the Church is absolutely invisible, or at least that we can
only define it in terms of the 'invisible assembly of the elect'
or some other appropriate terminology, to the exclusion of anything
else, the answer would carry no credibility with you.' ANS: I'm sorry Christopher, but you have either not read
anything I have written about the nature of the Church in the myriad
messages I have written on this forum, some even to you, or you
are so blinded by your own presuppositions that you have to fabricate
strawman arguments out of desperation to defend an organization
which is not what it claims to be. Again, this is nothing less than
what Rome did and still does when confronted with the truth of God's
Word. It would be more than foolish for anyone to confess that the
Church of the Lord Christ is strictly and only invisible. For to
do so would immediately mean that the person making that claim was
not a member of the Church... unless of course that person would
like to claim that they themselves were invisible! :-) After offering
nothing BIBLICAL to support the claim that the Orthodox church was
handed the 'keys of the kingdom' with all it's benefits and responsibilities,
but only it's own self-exalting rhetoric, you had to go and write
this: 'Assuming that your occasionally
condescending tone and sarcasm are of the good natured variety,
I continue to enjoy our discussion.' ANS:
You began with erroneous statements and you end in erroneous statements
which are misrepresentative of the Reformers, the doctrines of the
Reformation, facts not entered into, and finally myself. I remember
when you first entered into the discussions on this forum. You made
the claim that you were 'considering the claims of the Orthodox
church' but you had not yet joined with them; you were only reading
their literature, etc. To be honest, I doubted that this was in
fact your actual situation, and I have continually been assured
that my initiate estimation was correct. For you are far too fervent
in your defense of something which you allegedly know little about,
never mind being a 'non-member'of the specific organization. Further,
unless you are exceptionally gifted, it would be highly improbable
that you could attain to the level of knowledge of the Orthodox
dogma that you seem to have. And another interesting observation
is the fact that one can hardly make a valid and intelligent decision
between two things which are purportedly being considered if one
only has knowledge of one side. Your lack of knowledge of the Protestant
Reformation and sadly of Holy Scripture forces me to believe that
this just may be a ruse on your part, OR that Orthodox believers
are again much like those members of the Roman state church, who
by and large have very little acquaintance with God's written Word
or that part of history which exposed the Roman state church for
what it really was. If, as was surely the case, that the Lord Christ
was totally obedient to His Father's words; that His confession
that 'man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word which
proceedeth from God', how can I as a professed disciple of HIM,
rest in anything less? I value those men and women who God, by His
Spirit has gifted in comprehending and expounding God's Word, but
only in so far as they faithfully expound it. And thus I rely on
God's Spirit to give me discernment as I 'test the spirits' of men
against the FINAL and SOLE authority in all matters of faith and
practice; the Holy Scriptures!
In His Precious Blood, Pilgrim
Subject: Re: The 'nitty gritty' of the matter! From: Christopher To: Pilgrim Date Posted: Tues, Feb 29,
2000 at 08:02:42 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Pilgrim, Thank you again for your reply. Given the
anonymous nature of the internet, assurances do not mean much, but
I assure you that was raised a Baptist, and only began to read about
the Orthodox Church last summer. It was the claims I was reading
about that prompted me to participate in a Reformed discussion.
I sincerely apologize if what I did then seemed an attempt to 'defend'
Orthodoxy. My intent was merely to shake the trees and see whose
claims were true. I apologize again for anything I misrepresented
regarding your doctrine of 'Church.' Maybe misunderstood would be
a better word. I assure you I had no intent on twisting any of your
words and have been completley honest on this board. It remains
that if the confessions that you claim are normative, if not authorative,
for the Christian Church, then I should be able to find some substantiation
for that claim. Additionally, we don't seem to be able to get to
the bottom of why I should accept the interpretation of some people
and not others. But I think we're probably each tired of trying
to 'get' the other to see our points, so we do not need to continue.
Again, assurances may or may not mean much, but I assure you that
my interest here has always been educational. If I have gone about
that in a way which has caused offense, I do ask your forgiveness--especially
for some of my tongue-in-cheek comments. They have obviously been
quite a failure. I do also want to thank you for all the times where
you have been so kind to provide lengthy and very informative posts
on issues such as infant baptism, etc. Thanks again, Christopher
Subject: Pilgrim, PS From: Christopher To: Christopher Date Posted: Tues, Feb 29, 2000 at 12:16:36 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Pilgrim, I don't know what it will be worth, but I will throw it
out there anyway, by way of explanation. You had a suspicion that
I either knew more than I let on or was particularly gifted. It
was actually neither. It was simply that I did not have to work
at the time last summer when I discovered Orthodoxy. I had much
more time than the average working person to read and I used that
time. Then, in the fall, I went back to school full time, taking
some GE classes which were not very demanding. This provided further
time to read. As you may recall, one of my classes was an independent
study course on a related topic which required me to do even more
research. I would just not want anyone here--you and Rod in particular,
who have kindly taken so much time care in responding to my posts--to
think that there has been any sort of deceit, whatsoever, involved
with my participation on this board. Christopher
Subject: Re: The 'nitty gritty' of the matter! From: Tom To: Pilgrim Date Posted: Tues, Feb 29,
2000 at 00:55:56 (PST) Email Address:ahardy@rapidnet.net
Message: Pilgrim I am in 100% agreance with you on this. What
I can't understand though is why Christopher can not exegete Acts
15. Or at least give his oppinion of what it is saying. To me, it
would seem (although he said otherwise) that indeed he must place
Orthodox dogma on par with scripture. I once heard a Jehovah Wittness
claim that if one was stranded on a desert island. They would be
better off with Watch Tower literature than the Bible, because they
wouldn't be able to understand the Bible. What Christopher has said,
kind of reminds me of the JW claim. Would you agree? Tom
Subject: Re: The 'nitty gritty' of the matter! From: Christopher To: Tom Date Posted: Tues, Feb 29,
2000 at 09:03:00 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Hi Tom, >>>>>What I can't understand
though is why Christopher can not exegete Acts 15. Or at least give
his oppinion of what it is saying.<<<<< Did I not
say what I thought it meant? However, my reticence is to express
my personal opinion as if it were absolute truth. You and I could
exegete all day. If we agree, we have only established that we agree.
We may certainly be correct, but all we know is that we agree with
one another. >>>>>To me, it would seem (although
he said otherwise) that indeed he must place Orthodox dogma on par
with scripture.<<<<< If the dogma of the Orthodox
Church is true, then it is Scriptural truth. If the contents of
the various confessions that Pilgrim has posted are true, then they
are Scriptural truth. If it is not, then it is not truth, and cannot
be on par with Scripture. We are only trying to determine what is
true and what is not, based on the assumption that the Scriptures
are true. Where we seem to be going around in circles is how we
are to know whose dogmas are actually Scriptural truth, whose interpretations
are correct. I have said before that I find it unreasonable that
God should preserve a text, but not the proper understanding of
it. I disagreed, very early on, with the contention that the Scriptures
are clear enough so that anyone can have a basic understanding of
salvation. If 'all' does not mean what I would naturally think it
does, and 'is' does not mean what I would naturally think it does,
then I didn't see how a basic understanding of 'salvation' could
logically follow. All this, in turn, brings us back to John's original
question. How are we certain that we know truth? If, as Christians,
we can have certainty that we know truth, then we should not have
a hard time saying that something is true, and saying that we know
it's true, and that we are certain that we have the faith of the
Apostles and Prophets, those who wrote the Scriptures.. I offer
Gene's continual objections to the Trinity as an example. Christopher
PS--For the record, I think I would be fine on a desert island with
only the Bible. While I would certainly wish to have works of the
Fathers to read also, being alone on a desert island with the Scriptures
would certainly provide one with the opportunity to struggle in
prayer. While I have come to love the liturgy and hymnography of
the Church that has been written over the years and which I get
to experience, much of what comprises that liturgy is simply the
Psalms, so I don't see what I would be lacking. When a monk goes
to live in solitude, the Scriptures are often the only thing he
takes with him.
Subject: Re: The 'nitty gritty' of the matter! From: Rod To: Christopher Date Posted: Tues, Feb 29,
2000 at 10:53:21 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: Christopher, You wrote something very revealing of
the nature of our dispute with you in the post above. here it is
: 'If the dogma of the Orthodox Church is true, then it is Scriptural
truth. If the contents of the various confessions that Pilgrim has
posted are true, then they are Scriptural truth. If it is not, then
it is not truth, and cannot be on par with Scripture. We are only
trying to determine what is true and what is not, based on the assumption
that the Scriptures are true.' This is emphatically not true! 'Scritural
truth' is the whole of Scripture, for it and it alone is truth.
Any other writing is, if it is true, agreement with that truth,
not the actual truth of Scripture itself. There is a vast, irreconcilable
difference and, consequently, it is not "on a par with Scripture."
If something is 'Scriptural truth,' it is, as I've been saying constistently,
stated in the Bible, THE holy Word of God. The things men write verifying their
belief in and agreement with that truth are 'confessions' of their
faith in that truth and testimony to their faith, not the reason
for or the source of faith, as is the Bible and its truth. ________________________
You also wrote: 'How are we certain that we know truth? If, as Christians,
we can have certainty that we know truth, then we should not have
a hard time saying that something is true, and saying that we know
it's true, and that we are certain that we have the faith of the
Apostles and Prophets, those who wrote the Scriptures.. I offer
Gene's continual objections to the Trinity as an example.' Your
example of Gene's objections is a very faulty. Gene is, by his own
testimony of rejecting the diety of Christ, self-condemned. He is
not a Christian and doesn't have the necessary Spirit of God and
Christ. He is lost and the enemy of God, as Rom. 8:7-9 declare.
__________________________ Your statement: 'When a monk goes to
live in solitude, the Scriptures are often the only thing he takes
with him.' We are called, not to go into solitude and a 'monkery,'
but to take the gospel into all the world. To completely isolate
oneself is, in itself, a serious error.
Subject: monkery From: Christopher To: Rod Date Posted: Tues, Feb 29, 2000 at 14:41:16 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
monkery--1 b) [pl.] monastic practices or beliefs. Generally a hostile
term. --Webster's New World Dictionary, Second College Edition Wow,
Rod, I thought for sure you were making that word up. Guess you
really do learn something new every day! Christopher
Subject: Re: The 'nitty gritty' of the matter! From: Rod To: Tom Date Posted: Tues, Feb 29,
2000 at 07:47:20 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: Tom, I don't know about Pilgrim, but I'm in agreement!
(Pretty sure Pilgim is too.) Christopher was mightily disturbed
some months ago when I called his salvation into question. That
was not a thing I do lightly for two reasons: First, only God and
the individual can ultimately know about a person's status in this
life; and, second, I have had the same thing said to me many times
and it is offensive. But the fact remains that Christopher has no
understanding of the working of the Spirit of God and denies the
final authority of the Bible, placing other uninspired documents
in the same league (effectively adding books to the Bible). These
are clear enough signs to warrant a severe questioning and asking
him to examine himself to see if he is in the faith, as Paul tells
us to do in 2 Cor.13:5. Those led by the Spirit of God know that
the Bible is our sole source of truth, know it undeniably. Christopher
recently wrote that the councils were the 'Holy
Spirit speaking (and he placed it in italics
for emphasis), placing their rulings on the exact same footing as
the Bible (as I advised him), in effect adding those pronouncements
to the books of the Bible. That is nothing more or less than what
others do who are in grave error. You pointed out that the JW's
do the exact same thing. I would add the RCC, and apparently, the
Orthodox. All these make the Bible dependent on outside interpretation
and revelation, denying its absolute and final authority. The fact
that Christopher can't see what Pilgrim means by the word 'secondary'
is an extreme indication of that.
Subject: Re: The 'nitty gritty' of the matter! From: kevin To: Tom Date Posted: Tues, Feb 29,
2000 at 07:26:42 (PST) Email Address:amoshart@earthlink.net
Message: Let's try this one more time. I had posted this and
then it disappeared. Regarding Christophers position on the councils
it would seem that Tom is correct in his assertion of them being
similar to Jehova's Witnesses' beliefs. I personally found them
to be along the lines of Roman Catholic. Tradition and creeds are
important but they always must answer to scripture. If councils
are not in line with scripture then they are wrong. If they are
in line then you can look at them as the way men hash out their
beliefs of the scripture. The scriptures are always the final authority.
The same can be said of the lives and individual writings of the
lives of the saints. They can show us how other believers dealt
with issues that could very well concern us today. But once again
the bottom line is scripture. Jesus is the cornerstone and the teachings
of the apostles is the foundation. We must build from there. By
relying on councils equally or more so than scripture we are truly
building without a foundation. In Him, kevin sdg
Subject: Re: The 'nitty gritty' of the matter! From: a monitor To: kevin Date Posted: Tues, Feb 29,
2000 at 10:16:57 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Hey Kevin - I deleted your post...it was blank when
I saw it...thought maybe you committed a booboo. ;-) The scriptures
indicate that we are not to go beyond what is written...Paul said
this....verse escapes me. 1Co 4:6 And these
things, brethren, I have in a figure transferred to myself and to
Apollos for your sakes; that ye might learn in us not to think of men above that which is written, that no one of you be puffed up for one against another.
And we find the NT replete with the term
'doctrine' and it's indespensible place within the life and work
of the Church. Eph 4:14 That we henceforth
be no more children, tossed to and fro, and carried about with every
wind of doctrine, by the sleight of men, and cunning craftiness,
whereby they lie in wait to deceive; 1Ti 1:3 As I besought thee
to abide still at Ephesus, when I went into Macedonia, that thou
mightest charge some that they teach no other doctrine, 1Ti 1:10
For whoremongers, for them that defile themselves with mankind,
for menstealers, for liars, for perjured persons, and if there be
any other thing that is contrary to sound doctrine; 1Ti 4:6 If thou
put the brethren in remembrance of these things, thou shalt be a
good minister of Jesus Christ, nourished up in the words of faith
and of good doctrine, whereunto thou hast attained. 1Ti 4:13 Till
I come, give attendance to reading, to exhortation, to doctrine.
1Ti 4:16 Take heed unto thyself, and unto the doctrine; continue
in them: for in doing this thou shalt both save thyself, and them
that hear thee. 1Ti 5:17 Let the elders that rule well be counted
worthy of double honour, especially they who labour in the word
and doctrine. 1Ti 6:1 Let as many servants as are under the yoke
count their own masters worthy of all honour, that the name of God
and his doctrine be not blasphemed. 2Ti 4:2 Preach the word; be
instant in season, out of season; reprove, rebuke, exhort with all
longsuffering and doctrine. 3 For the time will come when they will
not endure sound doctrine; but after their own lusts shall they
heap to themselves teachers, having itching ears; Tit 1:9 Holding
fast the faithful word as he hath been taught, that he may be able
by sound doctrine both to exhort and to convince the gainsayers.
2Jo 1:10 If there come any unto you, and bring not this doctrine,
receive him not into your house, neither bid him God speed: So, we are to hold the Bible as the supreme and only infallible
authority and to also defend the biblically-derived doctrines of
the Church (as we have codified in our historic creeds and confessions)
against all satanic assaults. A Church that holds the written Word
as supreme and teaches 'sound doctrine' (i.e., biblically derived),
disciplines the membership in accordance with that Word, and properly
administers the sacraments commanded in the Word is a TRUE Church
- Christ being present and glorified. It's THAT simple...to me anyway.
a monitor 2Ti 3:16 All scripture is given
by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof,
for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
Subject: Re: The 'nitty gritty' of the matter! From: Rod To: Pilgrim Date Posted: Sun, Feb 27,
2000 at 21:19:18 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: Pilgrim, Without being derogatory to our friend,
Christopher, I'm afraid this is the point which he just can't see,
though it's been stressed several times: ',,,they [creeds and confessions,
etc.] are unanimous in their affirmation that it is not the Confession
itself that is to be trusted, but the Holy Scriptures ALONE; which
are to be known by the inner working of the Holy Spirit. Thus the
Confession is of secondary authority and its verity is to be judged
by the very foundation on which it too rests: the teaching of the
Holy Scriptures ALONE.' The Spirit of God making alive and real
the truth and testimony of the Word of God for the believer: the
cause of our knowledge, conviction, and assurance.
Subject: Not empty rhetoric. From: Rod To: Christopher Date Posted: Sun, Feb 27, 2000 at 11:58:34 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: Christopher, You've consistently and continually
gone to 'Orthodox fathers' in every dispute and bought the 'party
line,' from all appearances in your posts. I have no desire to read
into what you say, but it seems to be the clear direction, given
the body of your posts since I've been here. That is my honest assessment.
You asked a legitimate question. Here it is: 'Why should I believe
your interpretation over his interpretation? ' Answer: You shouldn't
accept either one unless the Scriptures bear it out. That has been
my point from the start. I mentioned in a recent post that I ask
nothing more than that you judge what I say by the Bible. Many,
many people disagree with me. That's perfectly acceptable, as long
as they are doing it to agree with the Bible. BTW, you've not addressed
the issue of the Holy Spirit of God 'speaking' as you represented
it above. It really is THE QUESTION in all this.
Subject: Re: Not empty rhetoric. From: Christopher To: Rod Date Posted: Sun, Feb 27, 2000 at 12:34:09 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Rod, I guess we're going in circles, since you're convinced I haven't
addressed your question and I'm convinced you haven't addressed
mine. Given that, we should probably stop here. I leave the last
word to you. Hope to talk to you soon, Christopher
Subject: Re: Are we in agreement? From: laz To: Christopher Date Posted: Sat, Feb 26, 2000 at 15:37:04 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Christopher - The Protestants don't hold that the individual holds
the final authority as he/she is guided by the Spirit. I hold no
authority whatsoever. Yes, I alone am the one who has to answer
to God for my life and walk, but that is not to say that I have
final authority. No, the Bible is the ONLY absolute authority...and
so the true believer(the Elect) WILL infallibly find a loving and
drawing God within the pages of Holy Writ...a merciful God who reveals
Himself to His children as He has determined to do before time.
The Church (and her biblically derived teachings/doctrines) has
also been granted authority and must serve and protect the flock
in accordance with the infallible and inerrant Scriptures. To hold
to a Church tradition primarily because it has the longest pedigree
is .... foolish and decidedly unbiblical. You must be a Berean...EVEN
TODAY! These nobel people did not take Paul's word for it...you
shouldn't blindly take Constantinople's word for it either. God
speaks thru His Word and so it is there where you must place your
ultimate trust for it alone is quick, and
powerful, and sharper than any twoedged sword, piercing even to
the dividing asunder of soul and spirit, and of the joints and marrow,
and is a discerner of the thoughts and intents of the heart. (Heb4:12) and alone is given
by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof,
for correction, for instruction in righteousness: 17 That the man
of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.(2Tim 3:16) As I see it, you are currently no different
than Romanists in your approach to God's truth, who uphold 'tradition'
above the very words of God. Sola Scriptura, laz
Subject: laz, you and I see it the same. From: Rod To: laz Date Posted: Sat, Feb 26, 2000 at 17:10:08 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: And that is correctly, of course! :>) Here is
the most important truth in your post: 'As I see it, you are currently
no different than Romanists in your approach to God's truth, who
uphold 'tradition' above the very words of God.' I've been trying
to get that point over for some months.
Subject: Re: Are we in agreement? From: Christopher To: laz Date Posted: Sat, Feb 26, 2000 at 15:50:23 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
laz, Thanks for your reply. Please look into the matter further,
as you assume to much. Orthodox do not 'blindly take Constantinople's
word for it.' >>>>>To hold to a Church tradition
primarily because it has the longest pedigree<<<<<
Please reread my post. I think you missed the point. Christopher
Subject: Re: Are we in agreement? From: laz To: Christopher Date Posted: Sat, Feb 26, 2000 at 16:11:25 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
laz, Thanks for your reply. Please look into the matter further,
as you assume to much. Orthodox do not 'blindly take Constantinople's
word for it.' >>>>>To hold to a Church tradition
primarily because it has the longest pedigree<<<<<
Please reread my post. I think you missed the point. Christopher
--- Christopher - perhaps I did miss your point but I am
nevertheless troubled by this one you made: Someone
has to show consistency for 20 centuries in order to be trusted,
and the Orthodox are the only ones I've seen do that. Is 'consistency' the barometer for truth? Hang on, you
DID say: 3) the Orthodox rest authority
on the Church as a whole. Is not 'pedigree'
a legitimate issue? laz p.s. It's simply not human nature to take
anyone's word for it (unless you posses a gullible mindest given
to cultish leanings)...so of course YOU probably don't buy every
jot and tittle of Greek Orthodox teachings (yet, hehe) ...but you
ARE (in my opinion) making a church choice based primarily on church
tradition over biblical substance. That's my point which I thought
was germaine to yours. But then, what do I know? hehe
Subject: Re: Are we in agreement? From: Christopher To: laz Date Posted: Sat, Feb 26, 2000 at 16:31:40 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
laz, Thank you for responding and I certainly understand where you
and Rod are coming from. However, what is germaine is John's question
and Pilgrim's (biblical) contentions that one faith was handed down
for all. There is truth, and there is error, no? You assume that
Tradition is placed over Scripture, when Tradition, the ongoing Life of the Church,
is precisely how we know what Scripture means. Your post does not
address my contention that if God only preserved a text and did
not also preserve the interpretation, then God has left believers
as orphans to duke it out amongst themselves. The Ethiopian's question
to Philip and Paul's letters to Timothy clearly indicate that Christian
truth is something that is received, passed down. The Bible is not
a Calculus text, in which all truth can be arrived at with enough
study and enough brains. We do not understand the mystery of salvation
like we came to understand the second law of thermodynamics. So,
we must ask, is all 'tradition' bad? Or is there such a thing as
Tradition? A criterion for Truth? If we hold that God preserved
the texts of a few letters from some fishermen to some followers,
a couple of letters from a convert doctor to a friend, a letter
from another low-class fellow to converts from the scattered 12
tribes, and notes from the vision of an exile, I don't see why it's
such a stretch to say that God has preserved a means by which all
those desiring to know Truth can understand those texts. I don't
know whether consistency is a barometer for truth, but that consistency
impressed me, given the lack of consistency in western Christendom
since the Reformation. What I do know are barometers for Truth in
the Christian Church are universality, antiquity and consent. These
benchmarks were accepted very early on (the first documentation
I know of is Vincent of Lerins in the fifth century). The only people
I see claiming sola scriptura in the first milleneum are those that
end up being declared heretics by ecumencial councils. I could ask,
if the concept of sola scriptura went horribly wrong then, why is
it right now? Thanks for your participation in the conversation,
by the way. I'm really not here to argue and I sincerely enjoy discussing
matters of substance. Christopher
Subject: Forgot one thing, Rod... From: Christopher To: Christopher Date Posted: Sat, Feb 26, 2000 at 15:33:19 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
If 2 Peter was written to the Church, should we not also assume
that I John was, as well?
Subject: To imply that I've said otherwise is completely false,
Christorpher. n/t From: Rod To: Christopher Date Posted: Sat, Feb 26, 2000 at 17:19:09 (PST) Email Address:na
Message:
Subject: Re: To imply that I've said otherwise is completely false,
Christorpher. n/t From: Christopher To: Rod Date Posted: Sat, Feb 26, 2000 at 17:29:27 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
>>>>>The emphasis is on how God leads His child,
not just 'exalted leaders,' but every one who is His own, to know
whether any teacher is actually of God or not. 'Let that, therefore,
abide in you which ye have heard from the beginning...But the anointing
which ye have received of him abideth in you, and ye need not that
any man teach you; but as the same anointing teacheth you of all
things, and is truth, and is no lie, and even as it hath taught
you, ye shall abide in him' (1 John 2:24; 27). What can that mean?
'Ye need not that any man teach you.' But John was a man and he
was teaching as he said it. John, writing by inspiration, revealed
that God's indwelling Spirit is our first and primary Teacher. He
will confirm to His own what is His truth by the standard of its
agreement with the Bible. If any man tells you he has a corner on
the truth and that God can only be known through his interpretation,
he is to be shunned and avoided.<<<<< Rod, I believe
we must be very careful with this passage. Some have taken it to
mean that all one needs is his Bible and he can go through his Christian
life without harm, being taught directly by the Holy Spirit. Only
we know that when people claim that, they are usually wackos. Yes?
As much as I was confused by the furor surrounding 2 Peter, this
passage causes me similar concern, since St John is most definitely
not saying that just because I read my Bible and pray, I have the
annointing and don't need anyone to teach me. As Pilgrim said, a
text without a context is merely a pretext. I believe wholeheartedly
in that maxim. Christopher
Subject: That would be a totally false interpretation of my point.
From: Rod
To: Christopher
Date Posted:
Sat, Feb 26, 2000 at 17:37:42 (PST) Email
Address:na
Message: Christopher, Please re-read the post. There is no
way to get where you arrived from what I wrote.
Subject: See? From: Christopher To: Rod Date Posted: Sat, Feb 26, 2000 at 18:02:37 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
We get five. Then we have to wait a few days... :) Talk to you soon,
Christopher
Subject: You must understand something else. From: Rod To: Christopher Date Posted: Sat, Feb 26,
2000 at 20:27:12 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: Passion and intensity don't mean that I'm angry.
I do object strenuously when one doesn't read what I say and directs
others' thoughts and mistakes to me. I've met a few deluded individuals
who take the "no man" too far. But, if you read my posts,
you cannot conclude that about me. And, the reason it disturbs me
is that I think you know/knew that. If you want to discuss and not
debate, I'm ready. But we must be fair to one another and not take
what one another says to extremes to prove our own points. That
isn't honest or ethical.
Subject: Re: Forgot one thing, Rod... From: laz To: Christopher Date Posted: Sat, Feb 26, 2000 at 15:39:21 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
If 2 Peter was written to the Church, should we not also assume
that I John was, as well? --- Christopher - I believe the
entire canon of scripture was written for the Elect...since they
are the only ones who will ever derive any benefit from it...since
they alone understand it and will ever heed it with a saving faith
granted freely to them by God. The rest are condemned by God's word.
laz
Subject: Re: Forgot one thing, Rod... From: Christopher To: laz Date Posted: Sat, Feb 26, 2000 at 15:51:21 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
So there is a distinction between the Elect and the Church?
Subject: Re: Forgot one thing, Rod... From: laz To: Christopher Date Posted: Sat, Feb 26, 2000 at 16:02:26 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
So there is a distinction between the Elect and the Church?
--- Depends on the context. Not all who go to church are of
the Elect (visible church contains wheat and tares)...and not all
outside the visible Church are reprobate for God has always maintained
a remnant not always visible but eventually coming out in the fullness
of time (like me 7 yrs ago). In otherwords, there are some of the
Elect wandering in darkness...obviously. So, if I understand the
intent of your question, the Bible was written for the benefit of
the Elect...but clearly given to the visible Church where the Elect
will eventually find themselves in accordance with God's timing.
In Him, laz
Subject: Wesley & Whitefield musings From: Rod To: All Date Posted: Fri, Feb 25, 2000 at 19:10:49 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: (I'm somewhat reluctant to post this because I've
posted so much lately and I don't want to dominate the board. But
these thoughts persist.) As I read (possilby re-read) Wesley's sermon,
which Christopher provided by link the other day, I had several
impressions, ideas, and feelings. Naturally, the foremost one was
that he was dead wrong in his conclusions! However, having been
one and having dealt with Arminians quite a bit since God changed
my mind, I was also strongly impressed with this thought: This is
the most clear expression of the Arminian position I've encountered!
It's outstanding in that regard, while simultaneously being 'brilliantly
flawed!' The obvious flaw is, of course, that he has lifted so many
things out of context, including citing 2 Peter 3:9, which, if looked
at honestly in context, is really a convincing argument for his
opponents, as is John 3, when carefully examined. But there is a
more serious error, harder to detect because one is concentrating
on so many aspects of the presentation at once. Our attention is
deflected from the underlying fallacy behind most Arminian's approach
to the problem presented them by sovereign grace. That fallacy is
that they ascribe the concept and its foundations to ordinary, uninspired
men, rather than where it properly belongs: to the Lord God, as
expressed through His Son, His Apostles, and the other Bible authors
in the inspired Word. Instead of taking a hard look at what God
says about His plan and work, they want to sweep aside the things
which bother them, many getting extremely angry when it's demonstrated
that 'predestination' is a word actually used in the Bible, more
than once, and that it is, as Whitefield used the term, PREDESTINATION TO LIFE, not death. And that life is the life of the Son of God,
Who is God. It is life eternal. And, though the offer of salvation
goes out to all the world generally, it isn't made effectual to
all men specifically, only to the 'predestinated to life.' Why use
that particular term, 'predestinated to life?' Very simple. God
says it. And He says it resoundingly. Twice. 'For whom he foreknew,
he also did predestinate.' Pretty simple. Even I got it. Foreknowledge,
in a special, loving, merciful way, brought on His predestination.
It should be obvious that it is a particular kind of 'foreknowledge,'
because it says 'whom.' Now He knew beforehand that He would create
whomever He created, but some were chosen, for no reason we can
see, for a special distribution of God's love called 'predestination.'
That this cannot be all men ever living is made obvious by the completion
of the sentence and the context of he verse. It is directed at a
specially selected group, easily identifiable after a certain point
in time, because of what they are 'predestinated' to: 'he also did
predestinate [them] to be conformed to the image of his Son.' Anyone
ultimately conformed to the image of His Son, and anyone being conformed
to that image in personal sanctification ('growing in grace,' etc.),
is pretty readily identified, if his life is studied. The holy Son
of God was strikingly singular when He walked here. Those indwelt
by His Spirit must reflect that unique way of life, that spectacular
devotion and allegiance to God which He displayed (though most obviously
to a lesser degree): 'Let the redeemed of the LORD say so, whom
he hath redeemed from the hand of the enemy' (Ps. 107:2). As the
moon reflects the glory of the sun, so we should show forth the
Son of God, even as we pale in comparison. That this wonderful thing
is the purpose and express planning, as well as the accomplishment,
of the Lord God is made doubly plain from the other mention of the
word 'predestination,' found in Eph. 1. 'According as he hath chosen
us in him before the foundation of the
world, {purposing that] we should be holy
and without blame before him, in love having
predestinated us unto the adoption of sons
by Jesus Christ to himself, according to the good pleasure of his
will' (verses 4-5). The 'adoption of sons,' meaning adult sons,
sons who inherit, 'joint-heirs with Chrsit' (Rom. 8:17) because
the grace of our wonderful God has 'predestinated us' to be 'conformed
to his image' so that, as the final part of Rom. 8:29 announces,
'he might be the first born among many brethren.' That is simply
incredible! We who deserve eternity in hell are presented to God
as 'in Christ,' actually 'brethren' by imputation of His righteousness.
We are, 'in Him,' children, sons of God, exalted beyond any and
all expectation by His grace. The announcement to the Father and
all creation by the Lord Jesus: 'Behold, I and the children whom
God hath given me' (Heb. 2:13). What right-thinking child of God
can hate and reject that truth and that sovereign grace?
Subject: Can we have an effect on God? From: Anne To: All Date Posted: Fri, Feb 25, 2000 at 07:26:15 (PST) Email Address:anneivy@home.com
Message: I posted this
on another forum but received little response, so I thought I'd
see what y'all think. For the last week I have been mulling and
pondering up a veritable storm over whether or not we can actually
cause the Lord our God to feel sad, or angry, or regretful, or increase
or decrease His happiness in any way, shape, or form. Now, the Old
Testament, in particular, says that we can. Of course, it also says
that He possesses hands, feet, eyes, etc., so there you go. The
more I mull and ponder, the more it seems to me that if we can have
any effect on Him, then He cannot be either omniscient nor omnipotent.
This is actually part of a larger question, but I would rather hear
your views without your knowing what I'm trying to work out. It
has been interesting, verging on unnerving, as to where following
either 'yes' or 'no' to its logical conclusion takes me. Thanks!
Anne
Subject: YES! From: Gene To: Anne Date Posted: Fri, Feb 25, 2000 at 11:26:23 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Anne, Look at Exodus 32:9-14. Moses was able to 'reason' with God.
In fact, God changed his mind BECAUSE of what Moses said to Him.
If Moses could not have an effect on God then why did God ask Moses
to '...leave him alone'?
Subject: Re: Can we have an effect on God? From: Rod To: Anne Date Posted: Fri, Feb 25, 2000 at 09:07:22 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: Anne, You really like to play in the deep end of
the pool, don't you? :>) Not being a theologian and not being
particularly 'deep,' my contribution won't be particularly valuable.
Here are some thoughts anyway. It seems to me that what you've posed
is best worked out as you've already done it in this statement:
'The more I mull and ponder, the more it seems to me that if we
can have any effect on Him, then He cannot be either omniscient
nor omnipotent.' This I regard as true and the starting point. The
other day, someone trying to ridicule the idea of sovereign grace,
foreordination of God position, asked me this: 'Does God determine
the direction of the bird in flight or does He determine every flap
of his wings?' (That would an approximation of the question.) My
reply was, 'Yes.' In the large and ultimate sense, God has determined
all things which come to pass, but He hasn't done so in the sense
that He directly and morally causes people to sin against Him. Very
important to keep that in mind about the moral responsibliity. So,
nothing surprises Him; nothing is learned by Him. Then, why is it
said that He is moved and feels emotions by things we do? I think
He legitimately feels these emotions of anger, sorow, etc.. He feels
them and He has determined in His foreordination that He will feel
them specifically at certain, specific actions of men, to reveal
to men His character, outlook, and nature. What must He have felt
as His Son was being crucified, and that on 'trumped up' charges?
(What would a human parent's reaction be to such a scenario?) We
actually aren't told exactly what God's emotions were, except that
we're told, 'Yet it pleased the LORD to bruise him!' (Is. 53:10).
What to any human parent would be a horror of gigantic proportions,
God foredained for His ultimate pleasure: 'Him, being delivered
by the determinate counsel and foreknowledge of God, ye have taken,
and by wicked hands have crucified and slain....Therefore, let all
the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made this same
Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ' (Acts 2:23;
36). Whatever emotions of outrage, sorrow, anguish, and sadness
God felt at that event were part of, and immersed in, His grand
design to satisfy His own anger against believers' sins and to resurrect
to glorification the Son in Whom He emphatically declared He was,
'well pleased.' He did it so that men might please God: 'Without
faith it is impossible to please God...' (Heb. 11:6). Faith pleases
God, and makes Him pleased with men who possess it, for the pure
and simple reason that it honors the only Man in Whom He has pleasure,
the God-Man, Christ Jesus. God's whole purpose in dealing with man
is to glorify Himself through His Son. He has intended that man's
faith cause Him pleasure and He has brought it about for His pleasure.
A search of the concordance for words such as ' please,' 'pleasing,'
'well pleased,' and 'pleasure' in relation to our God can be very
interesting and rewarding, revealing such passages as Eph. 1:5 and
Rev. 4:11.
Subject: amen Rod From: kevin To: Rod Date Posted: Fri, Feb 25, 2000 at 15:16:18 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Rod, I would disagree with you on one point: 1) If you love God
and seek to know Him better and to know more about Him by studying
His word then you are a theologian. I can post some of your replies
to me for proof as well. Also, I find God's reply to Job a wonderful
treatment on exactly how in control God is. He controls the path
of the lightening bolt. Now to me that is something to be in awe
of. In Him, kevin sdg
Subject: Amen, Kevin, and thank you. From: Rod To: kevin Date Posted: Fri, Feb 25, 2000 at 15:30:13 (PST) Email Address:na
Message:
Subject: ShowUS ShowMe From: laz To: All Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 24, 2000 at 19:34:52 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Dear SM - since you seem to be having trouble conveying your views
on 'sin nature' to some of us...perhaps someone who believes as
you do can do a better job. Can you direct us to another theologian
who shares your views? Can you direct us to this persons works and
thoughts, in particular, his/her explanation of the effects (or
non-effects) of the Fall? laz
Subject: Re: ShowUS ShowMe From: ShowMe To: laz Date Posted: Fri, Feb 25, 2000 at 18:02:50 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Dear SM - since you seem to be having trouble conveying your views
on 'sin nature' to some of us...perhaps someone who believes as
you do can do a better job. Can you direct us to another theologian
who shares your views? Can you direct us to this persons works and
thoughts, in particular, his/her explanation of the effects (or
non-effects) of the Fall? laz --- Laz, I didn’t think that
I was having any trouble at all conveying my views on an inherited
sin nature, I thought that they were pretty plain. As far as I can
tell, the doctrine of an inherited sin nature is an unnecessary
man made doctrine that does away with all moral responsibility and
in doing that does away with sin itself. Sin without free will is
not sin, it is necessity. Either that, or only Christians, those
with a new nature, the 'two nature people,' are the only ones that
can actually sin. As for other theologians that may share this view,
I’m sure that there are some. As King Solomon said, there’s nothing
new under the sun :o) but I don’t know of any offhand. I’ve studied
God’s word for some 30 years and for most of that time I just accepted
doctrines as true because they were so widely held. I just overlooked
or tried to explain away the contradictions between them. In this
particular case I noticed that Calvinism, which so abhors any notion
of free will, had the doctrine of 'free agency' which is a convoluted
way of having 'free will' while saying there is no free will. It’s
simply not necessary and it does no harm to do away with the doctrine
of some inherited sin nature that people can blame their sin on.
Saying 'Adam made me do it' is not that much different than saying
'the devil made me do it' and 'the devil made me do it' is closer
to Scripture. Sincerely, ShowMe P.S. I really don’t think that it
is fruitful to discuss this on this forum. I have several questions
that I was hoping could be answered here. I was wrong, people are
way to defensive and dogma rules :o)
Subject: Re: ShowUS ShowMe From: laz To: ShowMe Date Posted: Fri, Feb 25, 2000 at 21:53:27 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
ShowMe - OK, now you've made your point clear...to me, anyway (you
have been clear all along, I guess I wanted to give you the benefit
of the doubt not wanting to believe that you would so easily dismiss
such a clear and necessary doctrine of the Faith)...you just don't
see the doctrine in question in the scriptures....'responsibility'
allegedly being negated causing you heartburn. OK, then can you
pls exegete Act2:23 for me? I'm sure you have stumbled upon this
sticky verse in the last 30 yrs. Act 2:23
Him, being delivered by the determinate
counsel and foreknowledge of God,
ye have taken, and by wicked hands have crucified and slain: And
what 'responsibility' do these folks have who have been fitted for
destruction by the potter who sovereignly created them for a specific
purpose? Rom 9:21 Hath not the potter power
over the clay, of the same lump to make one vessel unto honour,
and another unto dishonour? 22 What if God, willing to shew his wrath, and to
make his power known, endured with much longsuffering the vessels of wrath fitted to destruction:And this last one.... Jude
1:4 For there are certain men crept in
unawares, who were before of old
ordained to this condemnation,
ungodly men, turning the grace of our God into lasciviousness, and
denying the only Lord God, and our Lord Jesus Christ. In Him, laz P.S. Your objections (summarized below) have
been duly noted for all eternity: Therefore
hath he mercy on whom he will have mercy, and whom he will he hardeneth.
19 Thou wilt say then unto me, Why doth he yet find fault? For who
hath resisted his will? (Rom 9:18-19)
Subject: Re: ShowUS ShowMe From: ShowMe To: laz Date Posted: Sat, Feb 26, 2000 at 08:20:45 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Laz, I’m certainly familiar with the verses of Scripture that you
quoted but they have absolutely nothing to do with an inherited
sin nature. The doctrine of an inherited sin nature is completely
unnecessary to uphold the truths of the verses you mentioned. I
really don’t see how you make the connection. Laz, this is pointless,
I was looking for answers, nothing is set in stone for me on this
subject but I must tell you that I doubt if anyone here has ever
questioned this doctrine, traced it to its roots and found out just
how much damage it does to Christianity and God’s word. Millions
worship Mary because of this doctrine. Millions more do not comprehend
what it does to the nature of our Substitute and countless numbers
take no responsibility for their actions, believing that they cannot
help but sin because they have 'two nature', split personalities,
and they never know which one will take control. All of this, and
more, from, as far as I can see, a totally useless doctrine. Thank
you for your participation, but I really don’t think that there
is much use in continuing this discussion. I will look elsewhere
for answers on this subject. Sincerely, ShowMe
Subject: Re: ShowUS ShowMe From: laz To: ShowMe Date Posted: Sat, Feb 26, 2000 at 14:21:19 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Laz, I’m certainly familiar with the verses of Scripture that you
quoted but they have absolutely nothing to do with an inherited
sin nature. The doctrine of an inherited sin nature is completely
unnecessary to uphold the truths of the verses you mentioned. I
really don’t see how you make the connection. Laz, this is pointless,
I was looking for answers, nothing is set in stone for me on this
subject but I must tell you that I doubt if anyone here has ever
questioned this doctrine, traced it to its roots and found out just
how much damage it does to Christianity and God’s word. Millions
worship Mary because of this doctrine. Millions more do not comprehend
what it does to the nature of our Substitute and countless numbers
take no responsibility for their actions, believing that they cannot
help but sin because they have 'two nature', split personalities,
and they never know which one will take control. All of this, and
more, from, as far as I can see, a totally useless doctrine. Thank
you for your participation, but I really don’t think that there
is much use in continuing this discussion. I will look elsewhere
for answers on this subject. Sincerely, ShowMe --- SHow
ME - now I'm really lost...for I thought that those verses show
God determining the final estate of men from eternity past, YET,
holding them fully responsible for their willful sin. Acts 2:23
shows this clearly where we see men being held RESPONSIBLE who seem
to be ordained to have acted as determined/foreknown by God. This
is EXACTLY your distaste with inherited sin nature for it holds
men RESPONSIBLE for sins they can't help themselves from commiting.
NO? You say that an inherited sin nature is bogus but believe in
the imputation of sin upon all men. You say that men are all guilty
but do not have a corrupt nature as a direct result of Adam's fall?
Do you then believe (it must logically be so) that we have remained
essentially as Adam was IN THE GARDEN in terms of our prestine spirtual
nature? Is this what you're saying? Again, that we don't have a
'sinful nature/disposition'? Yes or no, please? I really want to
understand where you are coming from. Then you say: and countless numbers take no responsibility for their
actions, believing that they cannot help but sin because they have 'two nature', split personalities,
and they never know which one will take control. Like who???? Do you also deny that the spirit and the
flesh are at war within our members as Paul teaches? Gal5:16 This I say then, Walk in the Spirit, and ye shall not
fulfil the lust of the flesh. 17 For the flesh lusteth against the
Spirit, and the Spirit against the flesh: and these are contrary
the one to the other: so that ye cannot do the things that ye would.
Rom 7:22 For I delight in the law of God after the inward man: 23
But I see another law in my members, warring against the law of
my mind, and bringing me into captivity to the law of sin which
is in my members. 24 O wretched man that I am! who shall deliver
me from the body of this death? 25 I thank God through Jesus Christ
our Lord. So then with the mind I myself serve the law of God; but
with the flesh the law of sin. laz p.s.
It is I who see absolutely no connection with Mariology (and impugning
Jesus Christ's human nature) and this inherited sin nature doctrine
of ours. Many people take perfectly good doctrines and pervert them....that
doesn't make the doctrine bad.
Subject: ShowMe From: Christopher To: ShowMe Date Posted: Sat, Feb 26, 2000 at 13:47:38 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
ShowMe, As Pilgrim told me during a discussion on original sin,
and I'm sure he must have mentioned it to you but I didn't read
the last thread, Calvinists do not believe that the source of our
problem as humans is inherited. It is imputed. At some point, Adam's
sin is imputed to every man. If this were not the case, then Christ's
righteousness could not be imputed. As he told me, without the imputation
of Adam's sin, there can be no imputation
of Christ's righteousness. The distinction
is that important. While it may seem a fine distinction to you,
it's one way of getting dead babies out of Roman Catholic limbo
or, worse, hell--which is one of the problems the reformers had
to deal with. So, if you are going to believe in sola fide as defined
by the Reformers, then the problem of sin must, in fact, be defined
just as Pilgrim has probably given it to you and has given it to
me in a past discussion. It is not exactly Augustinian, but Augustine
is where it comes from. Disagree with Augustine and you remove yourself
from 1,600 years of western theology--both Roman Catholic and Protestant.
But, if you agree with him on justification and not the imputation
of sin, you either have a wrong diagnosis of the disease or the
wrong cure. If you don't accept one, you can't accept either of
them. I may think some folks here can get a little too worked up
at times, but I wouldn't question Pilgrim's knowledge of Reformed
doctrine. I've come to the conclusion that if you call yourself
Reformed in any sense, you should probably agree with him. His explanations
of the mess man finds himself in, and the way out, are at least
consistent with one another. It's a package deal. If, however, you
reject the imputation of Adam's sin to every man, but maintain the
imputation of the righteousness of Christ to the believer as Pilgrim
would/has explained it, I would very much like to know how you make
those two views fit together, as they are totally incompatible.
Christopher PS to Pilgrim--Please do correct me if I misstated your
position in any way, but I hope I got this gist of our past conversation
right. After the Whitefield/Wesley thread, I sure hope so!
Subject: Re: ShowUS ShowMe From: Pilgrim To: ShowMe Date Posted: Fri, Feb 25, 2000 at 20:52:00 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
ShowMe,
Surely you are now resorting to
'humor' when you state that ' I have several
questions that I was hoping could be answered here.'? Questions? All you have done since your entrance on
this forum is state that one of the cardinal doctrines on which
this web site is founded upon and one which ALL the churches of
ALL the major denominations which came out of the Reformation have
echoed, regardless of their other differences is 'unnecessary and
harmful and unbiblical'. You haven't asked a question at all. This
doctrine has been affirmed as being the teaching of the Word of
God from the beginning although it wasn't officially put forth in
a succinct manner until the Council of Orange in the sixth century.
But you come along and in one fell swoop and with no biblical evidence
whatsoever think to topple the giants of the church and their theology.
I don't know what you have gained over your 30 years of 'studying
the Bible', but one thing I DO know you haven't learned.... humility.
I have often been amazed at people such as yourself, who can't find
a handful, or in your case, even ONE single individual who holds
to what you propose. Further, I would give almost anything to be
able to see you stand face to face and toe to toe with some of the
great and godly men which the church has been blessed with, e.g.,
John Owen, Jonathan Edwards, John Calvin, William Hendriksen or
John H. Gerstner and tell them that their views are 'unnecessary
and unbiblical', ROFL... If it were possible, they would show you
to be more of an arrogant man than you are. You been SHOWN both
the truth and how your unique heresy is wanting both from Scripture
and reason. But it is very clear that no one is going to show you
anything. Me thinks that you have become a legend in your own mind!
Narcissism is not an attribute to be coveted. I suggest you reconsider
both your view(s) and your spiritual state.
In His Electing Grace, Pilgrim 2Tim
3:7 Ever learning, and never able to come to the knowledge of the
truth.
Subject: Argumentum ad Populum From: ShowMe To: Pilgrim Date Posted: Sat, Feb 26, 2000 at 08:23:44 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Pilgrim, You seem to rely upon, Argumentum ad Populum, Ad Fidentia,
Ad Hominem, well poisoning, ridicule, Ad Ignorantiam, Argumentum
ad Verecundiam, instead of sticking to the written Word of God.
I suppose this latest diatribe of yours was designed to prove to
me that you truly do have a sin nature that makes you behave in
such an ill-mannered way? I’ve also noticed that you have a tendency
towards man worship in your idolization of those that have formulated
the doctrines that you hold, but this doctrine of a sin nature,
like many others, comes from the Roman Catholic Church. The reformation
is not over, Protestants still have many of the errors of the Roman
Church, and this doctrine of an inherited sin nature seems to me
to be one of them. Sincerely, ShowMe
Subject: Re: Argumentum ad Populum From: Tom To: ShowMe Date Posted: Sat, Feb 26, 2000 at 12:12:22 (PST) Email Address:ahardy@rapidnet.net
Message:
ShowMe The only problem with what you say, is that you are the only
one that believes it! You must be the only faithful one to the scriptures
in all of Christendom. Personally, the fact that man has a sin nature
should not even be discussed, it is obvious to any serious Bible
student. I wouldn't mind it if you had a problem with just how much
our sin natures effect our choices. Unless you can proove that man
doesn't have a sin nature, via both the word of God and other soarses,
then please don't waist anymore of our time. Again I ask, don't
you think it odd that you are the only one who doesn't believe in
the 'Sin Nature' of man? Are you more knowledgable than every great
man of woman that has gone before you? Tom Tom
Subject: Re: Argumentum ad Populum From: ShowMe To: Tom Date Posted: Sat, Feb 26, 2000 at 12:46:19 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
ShowMe The only problem with what you say, is that you are the only
one that believes it! You must be the only faithful one to the scriptures
in all of Christendom. Personally, the fact that man has a sin nature
should not even be discussed, it is obvious to any serious Bible
student. I wouldn't mind it if you had a problem with just how much
our sin natures effect our choices. Unless you can proove that man
doesn't have a sin nature, via both the word of God and other soarses,
then please don't waist anymore of our time. Again I ask, don't
you think it odd that you are the only one who doesn't believe in
the 'Sin Nature' of man? Are you more knowledgable than every great
man of woman that has gone before you? Tom Tom --- ShowMe,
You wrote: 'The only problem with what
you say, is that you are the only one that believes it!' I’m very sure that I’m not the only one that entertains
the idea that the doctrine of an inherited sin nature is not Scriptural.
You wrote: 'You must be the only faithful
one to the scriptures in all of Christendom.'
And: 'Unless you can proove that man doesn't
have a sin nature, via both the word of God and other soarses, then
please don't waist anymore of our time.'
You obviously do not know, and did not look up the meaning of Argumentum
ad Populum! I did not come to this forum to prove anything, nor
to attack anyone’s cherished doctrines. I have legitimate questions
on this and other subjects and I was looking for answers. You keep
asking me to prove something that does not exist, something that
is not in God’s word. You want me to use God’s word to prove something
that, as far as I can tell, is simply not there. As for wasting
anymore of your time, I have tried to end this dialogue several
times, but people just keep bringing it up. Why do you keep asking
me questions? Sincerely, ShowMe
Subject: Re: Argumentum ad Populum From: lazarus To: ShowMe Date Posted: Sat, Feb 26, 2000 at 14:59:26 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
ShowMe - Hear me out one last time and I WILL leave you alone. hehe
I believe the doctrines we hold dear only exist because they have
been biblically and prayerfully derived over centuries, tested,
defended, tested, defended,..... You have been shown a myriad of
scriptures, in context, consistent with our entire body of doctrines
stemming centuries across denominational lines from gifted teachers,
so forgive me if I must insist that YOU prove us wrong, using scripture
of course, and not your vain imagination. While it may be true that
the EXACT wording, 'man has inherited a sin nature as a result of
the fall' does not exist in scripture, neither is the Trinity declared
directly in one fell swoop. But through the Holy Spirit teaching
the Church through the whole counsel of God faithfully applied,
we have arrived at both of these essential and blessed doctrines.
They work, they fit...they have withstood the test of time and the
onslaught of heretics. So, it seems to me that you DO have something
to disprove and have yet to do so. Unless you don't mind being outside
the household of faith. I believe God doesn't waste words and wrote:
Gen 5:3 And Adam lived an hundred and thirty
years, and begat a son in his own
likeness, after his image; hmmm, interesting. Adam was created in the image of God...but
Seth....that's another story. What happened between Adam's creation
and Seth's birth? Furthermore, after Adam was created, God said
it was good. Do you think God felt that SAME WAY when we were born?
He regretted creating humanity by the sixth chapter of Genesis!
Can you at least humor us with a plausible defense of your position?
laz
Subject: Re: Argumentum ad Populum From: Gene To: lazarus Date Posted: Sun, Feb 27, 2000 at 04:27:05 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Laz, Your wrote: Furthermore, after Adam was created, God said it
was good. Do you think God felt that SAME WAY when we were born?
He regretted creating humanity by the sixth chapter of Genesis!
Actually, He said it was 'very good!' And, yes, He still says it
today. After the flood in Gen 9 He still declares that we are made
in His image, SAME language found in Gen 1:26. It is not 'somewhat
in my image,' or 'almost in my image.' I know the 'inherited sin'
people will try and dispute this but it is right there in the text!
Subject: Re: Argumentum ad Populum From: laz To: Gene Date Posted: Sun, Feb 27, 2000 at 13:50:16 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Laz, Your wrote: Furthermore, after Adam was created, God said it
was good. Do you think God felt that SAME WAY when we were born?
He regretted creating humanity by the sixth chapter of Genesis!
Actually, He said it was 'very good!' And, yes, He still says it
today. After the flood in Gen 9 He still declares that we are made
in His image, SAME language found in Gen 1:26. It is not 'somewhat
in my image,' or 'almost in my image.' I know the 'inherited sin'
people will try and dispute this but it is right there in the text!
--- ************ Gene - No one is disputing that all men
are created in the image of God (UNLIKE animals), possessing His communicable attributes
(1Cor11:7). In fact, what we find being articulated in Gen 9 is
God reminding Noah that human life is sacred on account of whose
image it is patterned after, even if God did just eliminate 99%
of it in the flood. Gen 9:5 And surely
your blood of your lives will I require; at the hand of every beast
will I require it, and at the hand of man; at the hand of every
man's brother will I require the life of man. 6 Whoso sheddeth man's blood, by man shall his blood
be shed: for in the image of God made he man. So, I still maintain that Adam's originally created 'image'
certainly lost it's luster after he fell. He 'died' in spirit on
THAT day just as God said. Notice this: Col 3:10 And
have put on the new man, which is renewed in knowledge after the image of him that created him:
Something happened somewhere for us to
need renewing...to have to put on this 'new man'! Seth was created
after his father's image and likeness... while still patterned after
God...but definately tainted, dulled, etc, by a new fallen human
nature whose every intent of the thoughts
of his heart was only evil continually
(Gen 6:5), even as mine was before God poured out His grace thru
the washing of regeneration - for we have been predestined
to be conformed to the image of his Son (Rom 8:29)...and
not patterned after the now fallen image of the first Adam whereby
all are born DEAD and in need of being REBORN from above. Keep trying,
Gene. Hopefully some day you'll 'get it'. laz
Subject: Re: ShowUS ShowMe From: Prestor John To: ShowMe Date Posted: Fri, Feb 25, 2000 at 20:45:42 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Ahhh so your reply is this: that there is none that hold to this
particular heresy besides yourself. If there really were theologians
of this ilk you could point them out. Plus you still haven't provided
scriptural support for your system!!!! You say we are way too defensive
and that dogma rules. In reality we are scriptural (and we have
provided scripture for our beliefs ) and that is what rules our
lives as opposed to yourself. 1 Corinthians 11:19 For there must
be also heresies among you, that those who are approved may be made
manifest among you. Prestor John Sola Scriptura, Sola Gratia, Sola
Fide, Solus Christus Servabo Fidem!!
Subject: Are we who oppose Arminianism able From: Rod To: All Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 24, 2000 at 17:56:04 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: to deal fairly with 1 Tim. 2:1-6, particularly verses
4 and 6? There are some special 'problem verses' for both the Arminian
and for those who espouse predestination. This is one which is a
'problem' for the supporters of predestination/election, one of
the most effective passages in the Arminian 'arsenal.' How do we
deal with this section? And have we dealt fairly with it traditionally.
The Arminians say, 'No,' in the site Anne posted below. What say
ye?
Subject: Re: Are we who oppose Arminianism able From: Anne To: Rod Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 24,
2000 at 18:20:02 (PST) Email Address:anneivy@home.com
Message: 1 I exhort therefore, that, first of all, supplications,
prayers, intercessions, and giving of thanks, be made for all men;
2 For kings, and for all that are in authority; that we may lead
a quiet and peaceable life in all godliness and honesty. 3 For this
is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Saviour; 4 Who will
have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the
truth. 5 For there is one God, and one mediator between God and
men, the man Christ Jesus 6 Who gave himself a ransom for all, to
be testified in due time. I must confess that this one is a bit
of a poser, Rod. Due to the first and second verses, it certainly
sounds as if the 'all'
Paul used could not mean the elect exclusively.
Subject: Re: Are we who oppose Arminianism able From: Prestor John To: Anne Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 24,
2000 at 19:12:37 (PST) Email Address:prestor_john@hotmail.com
Message:
1 I exhort therefore, that, first of all, supplications, prayers,
intercessions, and giving of thanks, be made for all men; 2 For
kings, and for all that are in authority; that we may lead a quiet
and peaceable life in all godliness and honesty. 3 For this is good
and acceptable in the sight of God our Saviour; 4 Who will have
all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth.
5 For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the
man Christ Jesus 6 Who gave himself a ransom for all, to be testified
in due time. I must confess that this one is a bit of a poser, Rod.
Due to the first and second verses, it certainly sounds as if the
'all' Paul used
could not mean the elect exclusively. --- On the contrary
it is an easy answer as long as one is able to examine the entire
issue. The thought here being is that God wants all men to be saved
the all being the every person who has ever lived. But that is without
taking into consideration how God saved people before. Before salvation
was from the Jews the Gentiles were excluded (John 4:22). No longer,
the wall of seperation has been taken away (Eph. 2:14). So in this
verse Paul is saying that all men (meaning all types of men; both
Jew and Gentile) need to be prayed for and that God desires them
to be saved. This obviously refers to the elect. See the attached
link. Prestor John Servabo Fidem An Exegetical Study of 1Timothy
2:4 www.gospelcom.net/thehighway/1Tim2.4.html
Subject: Re: Are we who oppose Arminianism able From: Gene To: Prestor John Date Posted: Fri, Feb 25,
2000 at 03:01:34 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: John, But that is without taking into consideration
how God saved people before. Before salvation was from the Jews
the Gentiles were excluded (John 4:22). What about this verse?:
Amos 9:7 Are you not like the Ethiopians to me, O people of Israel?
says the LORD. Did I not bring Israel up from the land of Egypt,
and the Philistines from Caphtor and the Arameans from Kir? This
verse CLEARLY shows that Israel was not the only nation that had
an exodus. So if you are talking in terms of 'saved' people in the
OT (as per OT terminology) then we see other nations being delivered.
We don't read about it because the OT is about God working through
His chosen people, the Jews. You wrote: This obviously refers to
the elect Why? Cause you say it does?
Subject: Re: Are we who oppose Arminianism able From: Prestor John To: Gene Date Posted: Fri, Feb 25,
2000 at 20:26:26 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: You know Gene Kevin has answered the question concerning
the Old Testament and the different people groups and I have nothing
to add to that. Way to go Kevin! As for your last comment: You wrote:
This obviously refers to the elect Why? Cause you say it does? No, not because I said, because it is the
most logical exegesis of the text. And I've not only said this but
so has any number of people before this. For that matter see the
link that I attached to the original message.
Subject: Tell me ALL about it . . . . From:
Anne To: Prestor John Date Posted:
Thurs, Feb 24, 2000 at 19:37:20 (PST) Email Address:anneivy@home.com
Message:
All these alls! Is the same Greek word used for all (oh,
that word!) of them? 1) first of all 2) made for all men 3) all men that are in authority 4) all
godliness and honesty 5) all men to be saved 6) a ransom for all
Subject: All From: Howard To: Anne Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 24, 2000 at 20:18:35 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Anne, So then when Ceaser taxed all the world, did that also include
North America? We must not forget that the context determines the
final meaning of the word. If someone told you that your car is
running, would you then also think it had legs? In Him Howard
Subject: What the heck would you do if I said 'Yes'? From: Anne To: Howard Date Posted: Fri, Feb 25,
2000 at 04:37:30 (PST) Email Address:anneivy@home.com
Message: I am well aware that in most places all means every type of people, from every nation, not every
human inclusive. However, due to the 'kings, and all in authority'
phrase,as well as the 'first of all', plus the 'all godliness and
holiness', all (meaning all) of which sounds to me as if Paul meant all in its most inclusive, commonly-understood sense, it
does strike me as a trifle peculiar that in the next sentence he
suddenly switched to the exclusive sense of the word. Possibly he
just wasn't thinking much about that, being anxious to get on to
the main point of his letter. Common vernacular is, after all, that
to which we default.
Subject: lengthy but i hope helpful From: kevin To: everyone Date Posted: Fri, Feb 25, 2000 at 05:10:54 (PST) Email Address:amoshart@earthlink.net
Message:
To all, I have to say that Prestor John has a strong point on the
issue of Paul speaking of 'all' in the sense of the Gentiles being
added into God's plan of salvation. First let me address the Amos
verse. Did God make a covenant with any other nation besides Israel?
No. What was God's view of the Ethiopians? As those outside of the
covenant. The Amos verse actually tells us that God is rebuking
Israel for pride. They took for granted their favor with God. That
is why this shepherd was made a prophet. Remember that Amos was
not of the religious schools of his days. He was reminding the religious
leaders of his time that they had turned from God and that they
had a special relationship with God that the other nations did not
have. However, God had shown favor on other nations as well but
not in the covenantal sense He did with Israel. Remember it was
God who gave Babylon the power to overtake Israel. It was God who
empowered the Assyrians to overtake Israel too. The Assyrians were
raised up over the children of Israel to correct the Israelites
of their sin. The Assyrians were prideful and did not praise God
for their victory but themselves. God had already pronounced judgement
over them and worked it out by using them to overthrow Israel then
devastating the Assyrians later. So basically Amos is telling Israel
to not take for granted their covenant with God. Their deliverance
was not the only one, but it was the only one where God watched
over the nation as a loving father. Now Tim. 2:1-2. Paul is displaying
the soveriegnty of God. Remember, God ordained all authority on
the earth. That is reason enough to pray for all men. Secondly,
since we do not know who the elect are this is a way that we can
best understand evangelism. Present it to all. Remember the parable
of the sower. Verse 3 tells us that this is good and acceptable.
By praying for and supporting those put in authority over us we
also praise God. With this veiw in mind the rest of verse makes
sense. Since God commands us to pray, supplicate, intercede, and
give thanks for all men. To commit ourselves to the services of
those who are in authority over us. By doing this we are a light
to the world. Since God desires all men (matter of men would be
an acceptable translation) to be saved, then let us not blemish
the name of God by resisting the earthly authorities He has put
over us but rather pray for them and live peaceably amoung those
of the world. Sorry it is so long, In Him, kevin sdg
Subject: Why not affirm... From: E.V. To: kevin Date Posted: Fri, Feb 25, 2000 at 09:46:38 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
that God desires all men to be saved? This concept when taken with
election, is no more of a contradiction than God's sovereignty and
man's responsibility. Yet most people here don't seem to have a
problem with that. Why is there an urge to twist scripture to fit
a certain doctrine? Same thing with John 3:16. It seems to me that
one can affirm that God does desire all men to be saved and that
only the elect are, and leave the rest up to mystery. Sort of like
God's will that we be sinless, but at the same time decreeing man's
sin. Or that God does not delight in the death of the wicked, but
at the same time creating people for the express purpose of displaying
His wrath. In Christ, E.V.
Subject: Re: John 3:16 From: Pilgrim To: E.V. Date Posted: Fri, Feb 25, 2000 at 13:43:29 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
E.V.
Please forgive me for using a
message I posted in this forum several months ago, but my time is
limited at present and thus I am not able to answer you extempore.
The matter of John 3:16 was thrashed out here at that time and a
couple of months later and here are my replies. With all due respect
to Dr. Carson, who I admire in most things, I feel, that if he holds
that John 3:16 teaches ANY form of universality concerning the love
of God, he is in error.
* * * * *
Well, I do think it would matter
indeed if it referred to 'all mankind' in the sense of every single
individual that was, is and ever will be. The other problem is that
as you have rightly stated, other Scriptures define who these believers
are, i.e., all those who were given to the Son and to whom it is
given the ability to have faith. Thus, there would be a contradiction
here, and we know that God doesn't 'stutter' or speak with a 'forked
tongue'! :-) As I have laboured to show, this text, so misunderstood
today due to the rampant Semi-Pelagian influence which has swept
the churches, speaks of God's 'PURPOSE' to rescue 'the elect in
all the world, i.e., believers' from perishing. The MEANS for accomplishing
His purpose was in the sending of His Son to atone for them. And
the motivation to do this was His incomprehensible love. This is
how the text is properly rendered grammatically and exegetically.
The 'world' can indeed be viewed as encompassing the entire human
race 'generically', that is as a conglomerate made up of sinners.
But this also does not in any way connote 'all mankind indiscriminately
and inclusively', but rather it is a perspective of God as He views
men as fallen creatures GENERALLY. As one considers the totality
of the passage and then keeping true to the immediate and far context,
it is without doubt speaking of certain individuals, (believers:
without discrimination) who populate the world. The 2 preceding
verses set the tone and the parameters for the proper interpretation
of verse 16. It is a reference to the historical occurrence of God's
sending venomous snakes into the midst of the Israelites, of whom
many were bitten and died. Moses was instructed to lift up a bronze
figure of a serpent on a pole with the injunction that whoever should
gaze upon this inanimate object, they would not perish from the
poisonous bites. Now this is reminiscent of several other events
which were designed to cameo the power of God to deliver people
from horrible diseases, e.g, leprosy (Naaman), death etc. The prerequisite
to obtaining the deliverance was simple obedience by the individual
who was afflicted. We know, e.g, that dunking oneself in the filth
Jordan River seven times is totally inefficacious to the curing
of one of leprosy. The act in itself was not the issue at all, but
what was the issue was the trusting of that person in the sovereign
power and mercy of God, who was able to do as He had promised. The
lifting of the serpent in the wilderness is used to illustrate something
very special indeed in the case of the Lord Christ. For in itself,
the death of an individual has no efficacy to deliver one from the
judgment of God and hell. There have been untold thousands who have
given their lives for the sake of others, yet not one of their deaths
could atone for the sins of another. In fact, even the sacrificial
lambs, goats and bulls had no efficacy to save, but rather they
pointed to God's sovereign mercy to justify sinners. In the case
of Christ, to whom the Moses account points, it serves to emphasize
all three of these elements: 1) God's willingness and ability to
deliver sinners from the judgment to come, 2) the effective MEANS
of apprehending the salvation offered, and 3) the efficacy of the
sacrifice itself, since it was none other than God incarnate who
makes the atonement for those who 'look unto Him for salvation'
in faith. Thus, verse 16 begins, at least in the English translation
with the preposition 'For. . .' which is meant to indicate that
what is about to follow is to be understood from what has preceded
it. The world 'so' in the English today is taken to mean something
far different than the actual Greek world 'outws'. A more accurate
translation of this word would be 'in this manner. . . God loved
the world'. It thus sets forth HOW God demonstrated His love for
sinners, i.e., in the sending of His Son to make atonement for them.....
Now for whom did the Son atone? We know incontrovertibly, that Christ
atoned ONLY for those whom the Father gave to Him, those to whom
it was 'given to know the mysteries of the kingdom (the gospel),
to those whom the Son willed to reveal Himself and His Father (Matt
11:25-27), for whom the Son prayed intercessorily (Jh 17:9), etc.
The next word of note is the Greek word wste which can be properly
rendered as 'for this reason/purpose'. The KJV simply translates
it as 'that', which if understood as it was written by inspiration
gives 'purpose' again in this text. And finally, there is yet another
important word to consider, and that is, hina. Again, the English
translation simply gives us the world 'that whosever believeth.
. .' This little word again connotes strongly the element of purpose
and is properly translated by the phrase, 'in order that'. When
we take the near context of John 3:16, and then exegete the text
grammatically as it was written by inspiration, we cannot avoid
the clear emphasis of God's words here, and that is, PURPOSE......
INTENT.... and what God 'purposes to do; what He intends to do,
IS ALWAYS ACCOMPLISHED! So by the simple plugging in the emphasis
of this text and then considering what has been the view of some
here, it is all too apparent that the 'world' of which God is said
to have loved cannot mean, by any stretch of the imagination, ALL
men inclusively without exception. Well, I hope this helps you to
understand at least why I asserted what I did concerning this text
below in the other threads. Right or wrong, this is my own exegetical
work which I have done on my own many years ago, without the aid
of 'tradition',!! Nevertheless, there are more than enough scholars
in the conservative 'tradition' that would validate my conclusions.
:-) Another exegetical study which albeit approaches John 3:16 from
a different perspective, results in the same conclusion as that
of my own can be seen by clicking on it here: John 3:16 by Rev. David Engelsma
In His Precious Blood, Pilgrim
Subject: Re: Why not affirm... From: Pilgrim To: E.V. Date Posted: Fri, Feb 25, 2000 at 13:06:41 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
E.V. You ask, 'Why not affirm that God
desires all men to be saved?' The answer
is simple: Because the Word of God says He doesn't. Why twist the
Scriptures to make them fit into a man-centered philosophy that
would have God be less than man? Why render the Scriptures so that
what some mean deem to be 'admirable attributes' are thrust upon
God? The problem is that most men can't and/or won't accept the
truth that no one is worthy of salvation and that has desire, thus
He has decreed to save a certain and fixed number of undeserving
sinners unto His own glory. What God 'desires' is exactly what He
does; nothing more and nothing less. The biblical teaching on this
truth has been offered to you myriad times on this forum, but they
were ignored by you and so I won't bother to put them up again.
For an excellent exegesis of 1Tim 2:4 go here: I Timothy 2:4. In His Precious
Blood, Pilgrim
Subject: God's desires are more complex than you can understand
From: E.V.
To: Pilgrim
Date Posted:
Fri, Feb 25, 2000 at 14:11:19 (PST) Email
Address:Not Provided
Message: Hi Pilgrim,
>>>You ask, 'Why not affirm that God desires all men to
be saved?' >>>The answer is simple: Because the Word of
God says He doesn't. Why twist the Scriptures to make them fit into
a man-centered philosophy that would have God be less than man?
Oh, I thought the reason this discussion came up, is because the
Bible DOES say that He desires all men to be saved, and it is because
some people can't accept the plain reading of the God breathed text
that this conversation is happening. >>>Why render the
Scriptures so that what some mean deem to be 'admirable attributes'
are thrust upon God? Who is twisting the scriptures here? I said
affirm both, because the Bible teaches both. You say no, the Bible
really can't mean what it says. >>>What God 'desires' is
exactly what He does; nothing more and nothing less. Are you saying
that God desires that men sin? God desires that people ridicule
His son? God desires that billions of people blaspheme His Holy
name? If so, your philosophical system clearly contradicts scripture
on these points. >>>The biblical teaching on this truth
has been offered to you myriad times on this forum, but they were
ignored by you and so I won't bother to put them up again. Again
your powers of prophecy amaze me--somehow you know what I ignore,
or refuse to heed. Next thing you know, you are going to accuse
me of being an Arminian. :) BTW, I have read the link before, and
it is well done. However, if you notice, it does base it's conclusions
on logical and philisophical deductions, and not scripture. God
bless you, E.V. P.S. I wasn't looking to pick a fight with that
post.
Subject: Re: God's desires are more complex than you can understand
From: Pilgrim
To: E.V.
Date Posted:
Fri, Feb 25, 2000 at 15:14:43 (PST) Email
Address:Not Provided
Message: E.V.
I would never accuse you of being
Arminian! It's too much of an insult. . . to Arminians! My quoted
message is EXEGETICAL in nature and thus a valid one to which I
would challenge you to refute. I just love it when someone throws
out that over-worked refrain, 'the plain reading of the text'! Please.....!!
My reply to this childish nonsense which is most used by those who
have their 'man-centered philosophy' pricked is 'A text out of context
is nothing less than PRETEXT!' Does a 'plain reading' of Ps 91:4
'He shall cover thee with his feathers,
and under his wings shalt thou trust:'
mean that God is a chicken, that we should only have a reason to
trust is if we are snuggled under his plumage? To turn this around,
do YOU take the 'plain reading' of such texts as:
Ps 5:5 'The foolish shall not stand in thy sight: thou
hatest all workers of iniquity.' and Ps 11:5, 6 'The LORD trieth the righteous: but the wicked
and him that loveth violence his soul hateth. Upon the wicked
he shall rain snares, fire and brimstone, and an horrible tempest:
this shall be the portion of their cup.'
and Mal 1:2-4 'I have loved you, saith
the LORD. Yet ye say, Wherein hast thou loved us? Was not Esau
Jacob's brother? saith the LORD: yet I loved Jacob, And I hated
Esau, and laid his mountains and his heritage waste for the
dragons of the wilderness. Whereas Edom saith, We are impoverished,
but we will return and build the desolate places; thus saith
the LORD of hosts, They shall build, but I will throw down;
and they shall call them, The border of wickedness, and, The
people against whom the LORD hath indignation for ever.'
You ask, Does
God desire that men sin? In a real sense,
the answer is YES! It is God's desire/will/determination/foreordination
that men sin. Are men yet accountable for their sins as it transgresses
the 'Preceptive Will'? Indeed, YES! That God has a 'secret will'
which concerns His eternal and immutable counsel is everywhere taught
throughout His Word. And it is also true that what God has determined
for man to render obedience we call his 'preceptive will' for it
sets forth those things which men are responsible to do to glorify
their Creator. Was it God's will that Christ should be crucified?
Acts 2:23 'Him, being delivered by the determinate counsel
and foreknowledge of God, ye have taken, and by wicked hands
have crucified and slain:'. . . Acts
3:18 'But those things, which God before
had shewed by the mouth of all his prophets, that Christ should
suffer, he hath so fulfilled.' . .
. Ac 4:27, 28 'For of a truth against
thy holy child Jesus, whom thou hast anointed, both Herod, and
Pontius Pilate, with the Gentiles, and the people of Israel,
were gathered together, 28 For to do whatsoever thy hand and
thy counsel determined before to be done.'
Isa 46:9, 10 'Remember the former things
of old: for I am God, and there is none else; I am God, and
there is none like me, 10 Declaring the end from the beginning,
and from ancient times the things that are not yet done, saying,
My counsel shall stand, and I will do all my pleasure:'
My 'philosophical
system' as you have referred to my view is based soundly upon the
written Word of God. But not only do you err fully in calling it
'philosophical' you also err further in referring to it as 'my'
philosophical system, for it is not 'mine' as if I were the author
of it, but it is rather the 'faith once delivered unto the saints'
which the church throughout history has recorded in its various
and myriad Confessions and Creeds. Therefore it is YOU who is embracing
a 'philosophical system' which is self-serving, i.e., self-exalting
as a fallen man. And by rejecting the 'plain reading' of the Scriptures
which the analogy of faith has since the beginning been found to
conclude that which I hold to be true, you have effectively put
yourself 'outside the camp' and alienated yourself from the Church
of the Lord Jesus Christ.
In His Precious Blood, Pilgrim
Subject: A fair question From: Christopher
To: Pilgrim Date
Posted: Sat, Feb 26, 2000
at 14:01:58 (PST) Email
Address:Not Provided
Message: Pilgrim, I know you're pressed for time
and there are many waiting in line to get upset with you. :) However,
you seem to be the one person here who is willing to make the appeal
to Jude. And even to confessions and creeds and councils. What are
the criteria for determining and what is the authority of a council?
You like the Council of Orange, but that was a relatively small,
western problem (comparatively speaking). So, if I can appeal to
a council, which councils? And if a council says something I like
and something I don't like (ie--affirming the title of Theotokos
for Mary at Ephesus), what is the criteria for sorting out the one
faith from other faiths? Normally, I wouldn't ask this, because
I'm not sure we'd get anywhere and I get far more out of this board
by taking advantage of your interest in and knowledge of early Reformed
writings. But, given John's post at the top of the board, it seemed
relevant. Thanks, Christopher
Subject: I expected better From: E.V. To: Pilgrim Date Posted: Sat, Feb 26, 2000 at 13:11:47 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Hi Pilgrim, >>I would never accuse you of being Arminian!
It's too much of an insult. . . to Arminians! Ahh, what kind Spirit
filled words. May God show you more grace than you show others.
>>>I just love it when someone throws out that over-worked
refrain, 'the plain reading of the text'! Please.!! My reply to
this childish nonsense which is most used by those who have their
'man-centered philosophy' pricked is 'A text out of context is nothing
less than PRETEXT!' Okay, lets go to the passage and see if we can
substitute elect for world: John 3:16-21 'For God so loved the world
that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him
shall not perish but have eternal life. [17] For God did not send
his Son into the world to condemn the world, but to
save the world through him. [18] Whoever believes in him
is not condemned, but whoever does not believe stands condemned
already because he has not believed in the name of God's one and
only Son. [19] This is the verdict: Light has come into the world,
but men loved darkness instead of light because their deeds were
evil. [20] Everyone who does evil hates the light, and will not
come into the light for fear that his deeds will be exposed. [21]
But whoever lives by the truth comes into the light, so that it
may be seen plainly that what he has done has been done through
God.' It does seem that elect can be subsitituted in some of the
cases, but clearly not all of them. So, ***GOD*** chose to use the
word world when He could have just as easily used elect, but for
some reason He didn’t. So I say that yes, God does love the world,
after all it is His handiwork. Why would He not love what He has
made? Now, it is also clear that God hates the unrighteous. For
you have provided many scriptures to point that out. So, I could
choose to do what you have done, and set one set of scriptures over
and above others, and in this case distort the Word of God into
something that I can understand. Or, I can say, yes, in a sense
God does love all of His creation, including the reprobate. But,
He also hates, in a sense, all workers of iniquity. You might say
this is contradictory, but no more so than your “3 wills” of God.
>>>Does a 'plain reading' of Ps 91:4 'He shall cover thee
with his feathers, and under his wings shalt thou trust:' mean that
God is a chicken, that we should only have a reason to trust is
if we are snuggled under his plumage? Is this what you have to resort
too? Are you trying to tell me that you treat all of scripture the
same way? You interpret obvious metaphor and anthropomorphism exactly
the same as didactic and narrative? Of course not, and neither do
I. >>>You ask, Does God desire that men sin? In a real
sense, the answer is YES! It is God's desire/will/determination/foreordination
that men sin. Are men yet accountable for their sins as it transgresses
the 'Preceptive Will'? Indeed, YES! That God has a 'secret will'
which concerns His eternal and immutable counsel is everywhere taught
throughout His Word. And it is also true that what God has determined
for man to render obedience we call his 'preceptive will' for it
sets forth those things which men are responsible to do to glorify
their Creator. Was it God's will that Christ should be crucified?
Of course it was God’s will that Christ be crucified. >>>My
'philosophical system' as you have referred to my view is based
soundly upon the written Word of God. But not only do you err fully
in calling it 'philosophical' you also err further in referring
to it as 'my' philosophical system, for it is not 'mine' as if I
were the author of it, but it is rather the 'faith once delivered
unto the saints' which the church throughout history has recorded
in its various and myriad Confessions and Creeds. Again, silly rhetoric.
Of course, when I refer to it as your system, I mean that which
you embrace. >>>Therefore it is YOU who is embracing a
'philosophical system' which is self-serving, i.e., self-exalting
as a fallen man. Please tell me how it is self exalting to hold
that God loves the non-elect? Can you discuss anything without resorting
to the tired old “self-exalting” or “man-centered” labels. They
don’t even apply in this case. >>>And by rejecting the
'plain reading' of the Scriptures which the analogy of faith has
since the beginning been found to conclude that which I hold to
be true, you have effectively put yourself 'outside the camp' and
alienated yourself from the Church of the Lord Jesus Christ. WOW!
The “analogy of faith” has been around since the beginning? Are
you sure about this? Maybe you should read up on that. Again you
insist on condemning me to hell, and simply because I hold to the
scriptural notion that God loves the non-elect and that He doesn’t
take pleasure in the death of the wicked. I am sorry Pilgrim, I
believed that Christ will be the judge of my soul. I didn’t realize
that I should have substituted the word Pilgrim for Jesus Christ
in my Bible. How dare you put yourself in that position! You don’t
know me, and you don’t know what following Christ has cost me. In
Christ no matter what you say, E.V.
Subject: There is little appreciation for the whole counsel of
God. From:
Rod To:
Pilgrim Date Posted: Fri, Feb 25, 2000 at 15:51:51 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: Pilgrim, E.V. has consistently demonstrated this
mindset, as you're well-aware. And you are correct that the root
of the problem is the failure to comprehend this fact: You ask,
Does God desire that men sin? In a real sense, the answer is YES!
It is God's desire/will/determination/foreordination that men sin.
Are men yet accountable for their sins as it transgresses the 'Preceptive
Will'? Indeed, YES! That God has a 'secret will' which concerns
His eternal and immutable counsel is everywhere taught throughout
His Word. And it is also true that what God has determined for man
to render obedience we call his 'preceptive will' for it sets forth
those things which men are responsible to do to glorify their Creator.
Was it God's will that Christ should be crucified? Serious error,
continually compounded, requires strong 'medicine.' That you have
correctly administered.
Subject: E.V., this is an ill-advised response. From: Rod To: E.V. Date Posted: Fri, Feb 25,
2000 at 15:13:54 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: I'm certain that Pilgrim would be the first to say
that he doesn't completely understand God! Your statement in the
title to your post is out-of-line and condescending to him. He is
one of the most well-read people (both in the Bible and in related
works) I've encountered. Additionally, he has been given tremendous
insight by the Lord. His heart is sensitive to God and defending
His truths. You may have been stung by his remarks in his post,
but that statement was not tolerable for its terrible implications.
Your statement, 'Who is twisting the scriptures here? I said [I]
affirm both, because the Bible teaches both. You say no, the Bible
really can't mean what it says,' is an indication of deep confusion
on your part. To hold the position you do, while you think it's
expansive and wise, is actually to declare that God contradicts
Himself. That is one of the things which it's impossible for Him
to do! God didn't give us the Bible so that we'd declare it an unfathomable
mystery. He gave both it, and the indwelling Spirit, to believers
so that it might be understood, even the 'hard' sayings and passages.
There is no contradiction. To say, "There is contradiction,"
remains a serious error.
Subject: I apologize if offense was taken, but From: E.V. To: Rod Date Posted: Sat, Feb 26,
2000 at 13:17:20 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Hi Rod, >>I'm certain that Pilgrim would be
the first to say that he doesn't completely understand God! >>Your
statement in the title to your post is out-of-line and condescending
to him. He is one of the most well-read people (both in the Bible
and in related works) I've encountered. Additionally, he has been
given tremendous insight by the Lord. His heart is sensitive to
God and defending His truths. You may have been stung by his remarks
in his post, but that statement was not tolerable for its terrible
implications. Actually Rod, the statement wasn’t meant to be derogatory
at all. I couldn’t come up with a title, and it just came to me.
I apologize to you if it came across that way. And if Pilgrim indicates
that he was insulted by it, I will apologize to him as well. In
regard to Pilgrim being well read, that is fine. But when he sentences
me to hell for believing that God loves the world, and doesn’t delight
in the destruction of the wicked, I think it shows his lack of true
understanding of the scriptures. I hope you will admonish him for
passing judgement upon my soul. >>>Your statement, 'Who
is twisting the scriptures here? I said [I] affirm both, because
the Bible teaches both. You say no, the Bible really can't mean
what it says,' is an indication of deep confusion on your part.
To hold the position you do, while you think it's expansive and
wise, is actually to declare that God contradicts Himself. That
is one of the things which it's impossible for Him to do! No, I
don’t think it is expansive and wise, I think it is a more humble
approach than what you are taking. Can God in a sense love and hate
something at the same time? I say yes, because it is scriptural,
even though I don’t understand it fully. You say no, because that
would be contradictory, so you will change the clearest meaning
of scripture in order to preserve inerrancy and a doctrine that
you find to be scriptural. I understand your reasons for taking
that approach, but I don’t think that your approach is necessary.
>>God didn't give us the Bible so that we'd declare it an
unfathomable mystery. He gave both it, and the indwelling Spirit,
to believers so that it might be understood, even the 'hard' sayings
and passages. There is no contradiction. To say, 'There is contradiction,'
remains a serious error. No, but there will always be things that
are a mystery until we are glorified. I don’t think that there are
any contradictions in the Bible, and my statement that we can affirm
both, isn’t necessarily contradictory. I will again point out the
difficult doctrine of the “3 wills” of God. God’s moral will is
that we do not sin. God’s determinitive will is that we do sin.
You hold to this, and yet most (not I) will say this is a contradiction.
To put it another way, I contend that God, in a sense, loves the
world, and he also, in a sense, hates the non-elect. My contention
is that He does this in such a way, which I cannot understand, that
they are not contradictory. If they were contradictory, then it
wouldn’t be true. Do you see my point? In Christ, E.V. P.S. Didn’t
you separate for a while because many on this board thought it might
be possible for Christ to have sinned? I wouldn’t think that for
a minute, but I am branded a reprobate, while others who impune
the name of Christ, are considered wise and learned. My only point
is that there is room for opposing viewpoints in some areas.
Subject: If you read the title of that post starkly, it seems
very condescending. From: Rod To: E.V. Date Posted: Sat, Feb 26, 2000 at 15:57:16 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: And I didn't see the intent relieved in the body
of your message. I just reread it to be certain. Your words: 'No,
I don’t think it is expansive and wise, I think it is a more humble
approach than what you are taking. Can God in a sense love and hate
something at the same time? I say yes, because it is scriptural,
even though I don’t understand it fully.' Now, to be perfectly honest,
I don't see you as being particularly 'humble.' If your suggestion
is that 'my position' (which I ascribe to the God of the Bible,
not to myself, and it is, therefore, not mine, but His) is out of pride or arrogance, I can't see the reasoning.
If I had done the plan of salvation, I couldn't have/wouldn't have
come up with grace, but works. I wouldn't have designed some as
'vessels of mercy,' because, apart from my Lord and Savior, I had
none. Also, I don't read that God truly 'loves' the non-elect. Of
course, His love, which we can't fully comprehend is a love of the
will, a decision
to work for an individual's, an elect nation's, and a different
'nation's' good and benefit. I do read that God 'hates' some men,
including, but not restricted to, Esau. His will has determined
not to predestinate such to glorification in His Son, the result
of His true love. God was generous to Esau (proving His provision
for all men, some more than others) in many senses, including materially,
even after his sin, but 'Isaac have I loved, but Esau have I hated,'
and significantly that hatred was '...the children being not yet
born, neither having done any good or evil, that
the purpose of God, according to election
might stand...' (Rom. 9:11). And God said that before He expressed
His love and hatred. Love is in predestination/election and hatred
is expressed in His passing by those non-elect. And, it has to be
emphasized greatly that each and both are for the glory of the holy
and just God. He gets glory from executing judgment on whom He hardens
and He gets glory for demonstrating grace toward those who deserve
the same just punishment, but are marvelously awarded grace and
inherit glory with the Savior, God's Son. Did God 'love' all the
world of men, all people who have and will live? Decidedly not.
His love is toward the 'elect,' specifically stated and illustrated.
'...IN LOVE having
predestinated us to unto the adoption of sons by Jesus Christ to
himself, according to the good pleasure of his will' (Eph. 1:4-5).
'We love him, because he first loved us (1 John 4:19). No, though
He shows kindness and justice to all men, I do deny that the Bible
teaches that He actually 'loves' them. He does it because it is
'right' and He is 'righteous.' That righteous He inevitably extends
to all men; He must because it's His nature. In another great section
on the nature of God's dealing with the elect, Paul says, 'But God,
who is rich in mercy, FOR HIS GREAT LOVE with which he loved us, even when we were dead in sins,
hath made us alive together with Christ (by grace ye are saved)'
(Eph. 2:4-5). The objects of God's love are the objects of grace.
Grace in salvation isn't extended to all men. What we designate
'common grace' is extended to all men, but even that is because
God has the predestinated in mind by doing it, working 'all things...
together for good to them that love God' (Rom. 8:28). And, remember, He caused that love for
Himself by loving us who are saved first. That is not a plan I could
have formulated. But men, imposing their own sense of 'fairness,'
and misconstruing God's love, force it on all men who ever live--that
is a plan of man's formulation and, candidly, it was once my view
too.
Subject: Re: If you read the title of that post starkly, it seems
very condescending. From: E.V. To: Rod Date Posted: Sun, Feb 27, 2000 at 05:21:42 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Hi Rod, No I didn't mean that your position was arrogant. I do think
that you are neglecting to see, or are misunderstanding my point
in regards to God's love of the non-elect. I do find some Calvinists
(not you necessarily, for I don't know you) who insist on fitting
all scripture within their doctrine of election. While election
is biblical, it is only one part of God's revelation. I think your
view of God's love is incomplete. God's love is not just decisional,
that is just one part of it. Just like your love is not only decisional,
but emotional, and affectional, and self-sacrificial. Do you love
your wife or children by a mere act of the will, or is it something
deeper? God's love was complete w/in the Godhead, and yet that wasn't
only an 'act of God's will.' God loves the elect in a different
way than He loves the non-elect. There is 'electing love' and 'common
benevolent love.' That is how I see it. I hope that sheds some more
light on where I am coming from. In Christ, E.V.
Subject: I have understood and do now understand your view. From: Rod To: E.V. Date Posted:
Sun, Feb 27, 2000 at 09:07:07 (PST) Email
Address:na
Message: There is a sense in which it's true that God 'loves
the non-elect so much less' than the predestinated/elect that it's
'hatred.' But the fact is that His statement is tht He 'hated Esau.'
The inescapable implication is that He hates those like Esau. And,
as far as I can recall, I can't remember His ever stating that He
'loves' those like Esau. Provision for the creatures He's made to
co-exist with the 'vessels of mercy' is, as I just previously said,
a demonstration of His righteousness. Remember that God deals in
a 'long-suffering way' with humanity. He does that not for the sake
of the lost so that nonelect people might be saved, but so that
His own, whom He foreknew might 'come to repentance.' This is firmly
established in Rom. 9:22-24 and 2 Peter 3:1-9. The neglected fact
is that the purpose of God toward the lost is to demonstrate by
His dealings with them, providing them goodness in life and material
things, along with the genuine offer of salvation, that He is just
and right and they are totally deserving of the future which awaits
rebels against God. He is 'long-suffering.' He 'endured' their blasphemies
and rebellion, according to Rom. 9:22. He is 'angry with the wicked
every day' (Ps.7:11), the source of that 'long-suffering.' His righteous
anger demands release. It will be released when time ends: 'The
LORD hath made all things for himself; yea even the wicked, for
the day of evil' Prov. 16:4). Justice demonstrated. Righteousness
displayed. And all the while His love is set forth in mercy and
resultant grace. No, while He experiences emotions, His emotions
toward men are born from His prior decisions toward them. He feels
emotional love for the predestinated/elect because He has decided
to in 'choosing' them before ever creating man (Eph. 1:4; 2 Tim.
1:9). We humans sometimes feel our emotional 'love' unreasonably,
often apart from the will. God never does.
Subject: Okay, Rod From: E.V. To: Rod Date Posted: Sun, Feb 27, 2000 at 15:34:50 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Hi Rod, Thank you for your comments on this topic. I believe that
I have expressed my position as best I can, given the limited amount
of time and the medium. You have presented your position well, and
for the most part, I agree. We both agree that God hates the non-elect,
though I don't think that God's hate is similiar to our own. We
also agree that God showers blessings upon the non-elect for His
own reasons, and not because of anything worthwhile in themselves.
Praise God, because if God's love depended upon something within
humans, we would all be lost. But His love is rooted and founded
upon His love for His Son, and that is the only reason that we may
find undeserved mercy and grace. We also agree that God's saving
love is only shown to the elect who are chosen for His own purposes.
God bless, E.V.
Subject: Re: I apologize if offense was taken, but From: laz To: E.V. Date Posted: Sat, Feb 26,
2000 at 15:18:22 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: E.V. - the 'world' at large is loved and cared for
by God's 'common grace'. So in a way, God loves and hates. I'm sure
this is not news for you. ;-) laz p.s. While I'm not wise or learned,
I am one of those who happen to believe that Jesus Christ had the
ability to sin in his human nature...but, OBEYED perfectly the will
of His Father and feel no violence being done to the person and
work of Christ Jesus. Call me crazy....
Subject: Hey laz From: E.V. To: laz Date Posted: Sun, Feb 27, 2000 at 05:06:21 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
That is my point. I think that there are different 'types' of love.
There is 'electing' love and for lack of a better term 'general'
love which as you explained is evidenced by God's common grace extended
to all. So from what I see, John 3:16 is talking about God's love
to the world which is electing to some, and general to others. There
is not a need to say that world doesn't imply all of creation. This
can also be applied to God's desire to see all men saved. I think
that we can agree that God wishes that men are righteous and live
holy lives--call it His moral will, or whatever term you like. Therefore,
I think that I can affirm that, in a sense, God does desire that
all men have faith in Christ. But I do not claim that God elects
all men, or shows the same amount of grace to all. In regard, to
the comment about Christ sinning, I was only bringing that up because
Rod made a point that Christians know the truth because God reveals
it to all that are His children, and there is quite a disagreement
here over Christ's ability to sin, one side is wrong, but both are
still Christians. There is room for disagreement on some issues.
Unfortunately, some people want to make acceptance of their distinctive
doctrines part of salvation, which s really presenting a false gospel.
In Christ, E.V.
Subject: and the scripture is... From: Gene To: E.V. Date Posted: Mon, Feb 28, 2000 at 02:57:01 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
E.V., And the scripture for these 2 types of love is.... I hope
you are not saying this to rationalize John 3:16 with your theology.
Subject: Re: and the scripture is... From: E.V. To: Gene Date Posted: Mon, Feb 28, 2000 at 13:16:19 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Hi Gene, First let me say that when I speak of types, I am referring
to different aspects of God's love, and how it is presented in scripture.
God's general love towards his creation is evidenced by His governing
providence of all of creation. Matthew 6:26-29 Look at the birds
of the air; they do not sow or reap or store away in barns, and
yet your heavenly Father feeds them. Are you not much more valuable
than they? [27] Who of you by worrying can add a single hour to
his life? [28] 'And why do you worry about clothes? See how the
lilies of the field grow. They do not labor or spin. [29] Yet I
tell you that not even Solomon in all his splendor was dressed like
one of these. Genesis 9:6 'Whoever sheds the blood of man, by man
shall his blood be shed; for in the image of God has God made man.
Acts 17:26-30 From one man he made every nation of men, that they
should inhabit the whole earth; and he determined the times set
for them and the exact places where they should live. [27] God did
this so that men would seek him and perhaps reach out for him and
find him, though he is not far from each one of us. [28] 'For in
him we live and move and have our being.' As some of your own poets
have said, 'We are his offspring.' [29] 'Therefore since we are
God's offspring, we should not think that the divine being is like
gold or silver or stone--an image made by man's design and skill.
[30] In the past God overlooked such ignorance, but now he commands
all people everywhere to repent. John 3:16 'For God so loved the
world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in
him shall not perish but have eternal life. Electing love (one passage
should do, as the others have been exhaustively covered on this
board): Deut. 10:14-15 To the Lord your God belong the heavens,
even the highest heavens, the earth and everything in it. [15] Yet
the Lord set his affection on your forefathers and loved them, and
he chose you, their descendants, above all the nations, as it is
today. In regard to your question about my interpretation of John
3:16, my aim is to look at each literary unit and understand it
as the author intended it to be understood by the readers of that
day. I am not convinced by arguments that 'world' in 3:16 means
elect, therefore, I must seek to incorporate God's love for the
world and His hatred for the non-elect. Like I have said before,
I think I can affirm both, without contradiction or exegetical gymnastics.
Make sense? In Christ, E.V.
Subject: Terms: Benevolence vs Love From: Prestor John To: E.V. Date Posted: Sun, Feb 27, 2000 at 15:35:52 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
E.V. what you refer to as 'general love' is called 'benevolence',
which is different than 'love'. Benevolence is the disposition to
do good, to do charitable acts. (See Matt. 5:45) this is by no means
'love'. Love (to use the english definition) is a positive emotion
of regard and affection. Benevolence is neutral, love is positive,
benevolence is directed to no one specific, love is specific in
its application. God is charitable toward the non-elect, He allows
them to exist, to share in the benefits of existing with the elect.
This doesn't mean that He loves them. Prestor John Catapultam habeo.
Nisi pecuniam omnem mihi dabis, ad caput tuum saxum immane mittam
Subject: Re: Terms: Benevolence vs Love From: E.V. To: Prestor John Date Posted: Mon, Feb 28, 2000 at 08:34:13 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Hi Prestor John, From my understanding, God's love is central to
His character, so his benevolence flows out of His love. If you
want to say that God only loves the elect, but is benevolent to
all, I don't have a problem with that. I don't think that we can
say that benevolence for the non-elect flows out of His hatred towards
them however. With that being said, I think it is possible to read
John 3:16 as saying that out of His benevolence toward His creation
He sent His Son. I think this is truer to the actual meaning of
the text than to limit the word 'world' to mean the 'elect.' In
Christ, E.V. fecitque ex uno omne genus hominum inhabitare super
universam faciem terrae definiens statuta tempora et terminos habitationis
eorum quaerere Deum si forte adtractent eum aut inveniant quamvis
non longe sit ab unoquoque nostrum in ipso enim vivimus et movemur
et sumus sicut et quidam vestrum poetarum dixerunt ipsius enim et
genus sumus
Subject: Can't affirm what the Bible declares untrue. From: Rod To: E.V. Date Posted: Fri, Feb 25,
2000 at 10:23:21 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: E.V. John 3:16 is easily, from the immediately connected
context, shown not to apply to all men without exception. It is,
in that specific, different from the text in Timothy.
Subject: Might I suggest. From: E.V. To: Rod Date Posted: Fri, Feb 25, 2000 at 12:18:41 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Hi Rod, I just read a book by D.A. Carson called 'The Difficult
Doctrine of the Love of God.' In this book, he states that John
3:16 cannot be legetimately interpreted as referring to the elect
only. It is universal in application. This does not necessarily
refute the Calvinist position--which is obvious since Carson is
a very reputable and admired Reformed scholar. Carson presents a
good look at the various ways in which God loves his creation, and
warns against pitting one 'version or type' of love over and above
another, which many Reformed people do in regard to God's love of
the non-elect. Love is an inexorable part of God's character, and
influences all He does. He states that many people assume that wrath
is also an essential part of His character, but it is not. Anyway,
get the book, it is only 100 pages or so, and it is very helpful.
God bless, E.V.
Subject: Thanks, E.V., but... From: Rod To: E.V. Date Posted: Fri, Feb 25, 2000 at 12:36:50 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: Actually the fact is that, being a former Arminian,
I have long since settled any questions concerning this passage
with my Lord and my God, submitting my doubts and questions to Him
to clarify and put to rest. He has done so. In the latest thread
here on that passage some time ago, this site was mentioned. I found
it very insightful: http://www@geocities.com/Heartland/Lake/8890/grace/john316.html,
the URL which displays when I access it. If you're inclined to read
more.
Subject: Have you arrived? From: Gene To: Rod Date Posted: Fri, Feb 25, 2000 at 13:34:57 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Now there is a 'good' answer! 'I have already made up my mind and
I don't want to cloud it anymore!' No reason to 'revisit' John 3:16.
I hope when I grow up I can come to a full knowledge of ANY verse
in the Bible. Gee, Rod, how does it feel to 'arrive'?
Subject: Re: Have you arrived? From: Pilgrim To: Gene Date Posted: Fri, Feb 25, 2000 at 13:53:20 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Now there is a 'good' answer! 'I have already made up my mind and
I don't want to cloud it anymore!' No reason to 'revisit' John 3:16.
I hope when I grow up I can come to a full knowledge of ANY verse
in the Bible. Gee, Rod, how does it feel to 'arrive'? ---
Gene,
Well, I for one understood exactly
what Rod meant by his reply. It's not that he's 'arrived' in the
sense that he has exhausted all the possible renderings of John
3:16, but rather that there are just so many possibilities to be
had. And the majority of them are man exalting and contradictory
to the analogy of faith, thus they can be summarily excluded from
serious consideration. Also, over a period of years, one does get
the opportunity to hear and read many of these offerings, which
by and large can all be lumped together as being again, 'man-centered'
and contradictory to the plain teachings of God's Word. Thus, it
is basically a waste of time to rehash old news. One surely is sometimes
given 'deeper' insight which BUILDS UPON THE ALREADY ESTABLISHED
TRUTH of a text, and that is to be always sought after.
In His Precious Blood, Pilgrim
Subject: Re: Have you arrived? From: Gene To: Pilgrim Date Posted: Fri, Feb 25, 2000 at 19:16:04 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
It is funny, D.A. Carson is one of the 'Reformed' people that disagrees
with Rod (among others)so I wonder if there is a remote chance that
John 3:16 MAY have another meaning than that which Rod holds. Then
again, Carson doesn't quite grasp sovereign grace yet!!! It is clear
Rod, that you have your mind made up and do not want to read anyone
who disagrees with you, even those more knowledgable than you in
your own fellowship.
Subject: Re: Have you arrived? From: laz To: Gene Date Posted: Fri, Feb 25, 2000 at 22:10:53 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Hey Gene - I'm sure 'interpretations' of John 3:16 abound...if you
include aberrant groups within christendom...so what's your point?
Only ONE meaning can be correct. I happen to believe the verse in
context (just read the entire book of John to see Jesus Christ being
one-tracked relative to the Father's love of THE 'sheep') is either
promoting universal/unlimited atonement (Arminians) or merely making
the statement regarding the proximate cause of salvation (true belief
by grace thru faith) relative to 'the world' in either an organic
sense, or referring without 'distinction' to the eternal objects
of God's redemptive love, the Elect. Let's be consistent, shall
we, and allow scripture to dictate what we are to believe. There
is simply no getting around the FACT that we don't choose, God ELECTS....for many are
called, few are chosen. Besides, it isn't an issue of who's in whose
'camp', but which view is most faithful to the whole counsel of
God. No? laz Ps 65:4 Blessed is the man
whom thou choosest, and causest to approach unto thee, that he may
dwell in thy courts: we shall be satisfied with the goodness of
thy house, even of thy holy temple.
Subject: Precisely, brother, thank you. n/t From: Rod To: Pilgrim Date Posted: Fri, Feb 25, 2000 at 14:07:50 (PST) Email Address:na
Message:
Subject: Universal Redemption From: Christopher To: All Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 24, 2000 at 10:20:32 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
The recent conversation on this board prompted me to do a little
surfing and reading. I came across the attached link, but was confused
about something. Since the term has been used here, I was sure that
there might be someone who was a little more familiar with the situation
and might be able to clarify. First, I was wondering whether Universal
Redemption refers only to the idea that all will be saved, or whether
there's more to it than that. In Wesley's Free Grace article, he
says clearly that not all will be saved. However, he uses a different
line of reasoning for that than does Whitefield. Whitefield mentions
Universal Redemption repeatedly, but does not exactly accuse Wesley
of it. And that is my second question. Was there another group which
held to Universal Redemption, and Whitefield and Wesley were 'competing'
for the correct response, or was Whitefield charging Wesley with
holding to Universal Redemption? Any clarification would be appreciated.
Thanks, Christopher Whitefield to Wesley www.gty.org/~phil/wesley.htm
Subject: May God raise up more stalwarts like Whitefield! From: Rod To: Christopher
Date Posted:
Thurs, Feb 24, 2000 at 12:41:53 (PST) Email
Address:na
Message: Christopher, I won't presume to speak for Whitlefield,
a very great man of God, but I will offer some thoughts with the
intention of showing my own understanding of 'universal redemption'
which the Arminian view does seem to inevitably demand. Stating
the issue as simply as possible, it's this: The Lord Jesus died
on the cross for all men who ever live upon the earth, according
to the Wesley/Arminian view. That would apply His lifeblood, the
thing which is required in Biblical sacrifice, from the OT on, to
every person ever born. His blood is 'shed for all' and upon all
men. The Arminians might deny that extensive an application, but
it is inevitable from their own assertions, because, if the sacrificial
system is examined, it is always substitutionary, and specifically
applied, so that the blood is for its object's purification in the
eyes of God. It seems that they have a faulty view of sacrifice,
and specifically the Lord Christ's vicarious sacrifice in His blood. That idea is so abhorent to us
as sovereign grace believers because it means that God squanders
His Son's blood, shedding it indiscriminately. It also means that
the plan of God fails because He has determined to save whomever
receives the application and purpose of that blood. All men aren't
saved, so, therefore, God has failed in His sovereign purpose, ceasing
to be God, but something less than One Who can accomplish His will.
Our belief is that the precious blood of the Lord Jesus Christ was/is
so effective in cleansing sin, that it actually and forever cleanses
(in God's sight) whomsover is touched by it. That would be those
of God's determination: 'For whom he did foreknow, be also did predestinate
to be conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the first
born among many brethren' (Rom. 8:29). The sole way to that conformation
of glorification (cp. verse 30) is through the sacrifice of Christ
and its subsequent workings in the believer (Gal. 2:20). Rom. 8:14-17
outlines the process of the plan of God for His predesinated and
elect. These are incredibly blessed and undeserving recipients of
that redeeming blood, and not anyone else who remains lost in his
sins, dead to God (Eph. 2:1-3). 2 Cor. 5:21, in stating that the
Lord Jesus was 'made to be sin for us' and that our sins were imputed to Him, undeniably means
that the 'becoming sin for us' signifies the placing of the person's
sins on the Lord Jesus as He died. If those sins (all of them, not
one left over) were paid for, and if this
means that all men were in God's purpose in His substitutionary
payment, then all men MUST be saved, for that was God's intent in the Arminian view.
We who believe in sovereign grace say that is impossible and not
according to God's simply stated Word.
Subject: It gets better! From: Anne To: Rod Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 24, 2000 at 17:33:29 (PST) Email Address:anneivy@home.com
Message: Check out this
action: http://www.expression.org/~tnungesser/Christia.html No-one
goes to Hell. Permanently, anyway. Everyone eventually heads to
Heaven! No exceptions. Don't worry . . . . . be happy! www.expression.org/~tnungesser/Christia.html
Subject: Re: May God raise up more stalwarts like Whitefield!
From: Christopher
To: Rod
Date Posted:
Thurs, Feb 24, 2000 at 13:05:58 (PST) Email
Address:Not Provided
Message: Rod, Thanks
for taking the time to respond. It seems that both sides object
to where they feel the opposing doctrines lead. So you would object
to the line of reasoning below (from Wesley's Free Grace) and the
Scriptures on which its based? If so, how do you (and Whitefield,
I presume, based on the similarity of your post and his letter to
Wesley) understand these Scriptures? Thanks again, Christopher PS--forgive
me if you have already addressed these specific Scriptures elsewhere.
I must admit that I lose track of the discussion here quite often.
The Whiteford/Wesley documents give me an opportunity to study the
matter more easily. '22. If you ask, 'Why then are not all men saved?'
the whole law and the testimony answer, First, Not because of any
decree of God; not because it is his pleasure they should die; for,
As I live, saith the Lord God,' I have no pleasure in the death
of him that dieth.' (Ezek. 18:3, 32.) Whatever be the cause of their
perishing, it cannot be his will, if the oracles of God are true;
for they declare, 'He is not willing that any should perish, but
that all should come to repentance;' (2 Pet. 3:9;) 'He willeth that
all men should be saved.' And they, Secondly, declare what is the
cause why all men are not saved, namely, that they will not be saved:
So our Lord expressly, 'Ye will not come unto me that ye may have
life.' (John 5:40.) 'The power of the Lord is present to heal' them,
but they will not be healed. 'They reject the counsel,' the merciful
counsel, 'of God against themselves,' as did their stiff-necked
forefathers. And therefore are they without excuse; because God
would save them, but they will not be saved: This is the condemnation,
'How often would I have gathered you together, and ye would not!'
(Matt. 23:37.) '
Subject: Re: May God raise up more stalwarts like Whitefield!
From: Pilgrim
To: Christopher
Date Posted:
Fri, Feb 25, 2000 at 07:18:13 (PST) Email
Address:Not Provided
Message: Christopher,
The problem with Wesley's theology
as is the theology of all who reject the biblical teaching of God's
sovereign free grace is their view of the Fall and it's consequences.
Inevitably, everyone of these aberrant views accredits fallen men
with an ability; a 'goodness' and power to desire and come to Christ
'if they so will'. However, if man is as 'dead' as the Scriptures
say they are, then it is IMPOSSIBLE that any man can either desire
or flee to Christ for salvation. In 2Pet 3:9, the true meaning is
so clear it really doesn't warrant an exegetical tome, for if one
would only take the passage in its CONTEXT, it is plain that the key to a proper understanding of
it is found in the word 'us' used myriad times by Peter, even from
the very first verse of the first chapter and throughout the Epistle
to refer to those who 'have obtained like precious faith' or projecting
into the future, those who God ordained TO received the 'like precious
faith'! It is referring to the elect; 'All that the Father giveth
me . . . all which he hath given me' (Joh 6:37, 39). Eph 1:4 'According as he hath chosen us in him before
the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without
blame before him in love: 5 Having predestinated us unto the adoption
of children by Jesus Christ to himself, according to the good pleasure
of his will, . . .' The 'us' and 'any'
in 2Pet 3:9 are inseparably bound together and cannot be understood
properly without seeing the relationship between them which Peter
establishes from the very beginning of the Epistle. Again, the 'us'
refers to those who have 'obtained like faith', i.e., believers
(present and future) and the 'any' is qualified by the 'us' thus
rendering the true meaning of it as 'any of the 'us'' (the elect).
As to Ezek 18:3, 32 these verses simply convey the truth that God
is not a 'blood-thirsty' God but One who indeed is moved even to
grief over the death of His creation in general. The Lord Christ
also wept in like manner at the grave of Lazarus (Joh 11:35). One
may doubtless 'take no pleasure' in the execution of a murderer,
but nonetheless take satisfaction in seeing justice done according
to the law which prescribes death for those who take the life of
another. Matt 23:37 is a marvelous text and one which I would gladly
exegete for you, but only at your request, for my time at this moment
is unfortunately short and thus I am unable to give it at this time.
I would only say in passing, that the text is in no way speaking
about Christ's/God's inability to save those who are opposed to
Him and His Christ, thus effectively denying His desire to save
'all men without exception'. Nor, in particular is it teaching that
other men may effectually prevent others from being saved (a most
odious thought indeed!). John Owen's unrivaled and yet unanswered
treatise The Death of Death in the Death
of Christ sets forth an incontrovertible
defense of the biblical doctrine of 'Definite Atonement'. In that
work he offers a challenge to all who would propose that Christ's
death was either purposed for 'all' or sufficient for 'all'. You
can read that very brief challenge here: For Whom Did Christ Die?. A
marvelous work by Dr. J.I. Packer in regards to Owen's treatise
Introductory Essay to John Owen's Death of Death should be read by ALL! :-)
In His Precious Blood, Pilgrim
Subject: Matt 23 From: Christopher To: Pilgrim Date Posted: Fri, Feb 25, 2000 at 08:23:36 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Pilgrim, As usual, thank you for taking the time to write such a
detailed reply. I am assuming that you and Rod are saying the same
thing when it comes to 2 Pet 3:9. What you have just said is regarding
the 'us' is what I was trying to express to Rod, but apparently
I did that poorly. Where I am sincerely confused at this point is
where the 'inability' part comes in so, yes, I would like to hear
your thoughts on the passage in Matthew. I don't yet understand
how Mr Wesley saying that a man's refusal to repent (which is what
I am taking his article to mean) makes the other side charge that
his theology makes God unable to save that man. Thanks again, Christopher
PS--and thanks, too, for the links
Subject: I think I've dealt with 2 Peter 3:9 almost weekly...
From: Rod
To: Christopher
Date Posted:
Thurs, Feb 24, 2000 at 13:43:43 (PST) Email
Address:na
Message: ..since I came to the discussion boards on the net.
It won't be so frequently now, as this is the only board I'm on.
I can and have dealt with the 'proofs' offered by Wesley in his
sermon in the past, though not all at once, I don't think. I'll
try to answer simply, though I'm not avoiding the issue--I'm completely
willing to explore it. I just think this approach is more productive
at this point, in view of the fact that you are a careful student.
First of all, please note, that in these cases, and in particularly,
as Whilefield pointed out, in Romans 8, Wesley feels greatly at
liberty to take texts out of their intended context, as do all Arminians.
The best illustration of that is 2 Peter 3:9; it seems universal
that they remove it from Scripture and use it as a club. But it's
a 'club' of foam rubber such as children play with, an annoyance,
but not a weapon. 'Hits' with it are ridiculous, and do no damage!
Please do this, Christopher, read 2 Peter 3:1-9 in the NASB, the
KJV, the YLT, but not the NIV, which is a 'commentary,' and no real
translation at this point. When through, ask yourself this, if there
is judgment 'reserved,' as the NASB says, 'for the day of judgment
and destruction of ungodly men,' how can Wesley or anyone else say
that 'God is not willing that anyone of his creatures shall perish?'
It's 'for...unglodly MEN!' Also, please note specifically that the 'beloved' are
addressed and it is toward them that God directs His 'not willing'
that they perish. And please compare Rom. 9:22 as to what God is
'willing' to do. Would He actually contradict His own Word? Does
2 Peter 3:1-9 really say what Wesley contorts it to say? No, it
doesn't. The rest of the 'proofs' similarly vanish under examination.
Please let me know what you think when you subject this to real
examination by reading the texts in context.
Subject: Re: I think I've dealt with 2 Peter 3:9 almost weekly...
From: Christopher
To: Rod
Date Posted:
Thurs, Feb 24, 2000 at 14:16:15 (PST) Email
Address:Not Provided
Message: Rod, Thanks.
I'll check out Rom 9 and 2 Pet 3 again tonight but, in the meantime,
the 'non-Wesleyan' view of the other Scriptures cited would be appreciated.
Wesley says what he thinks they mean, but Whitefield did not. So
what I'm trying to understand here is what is done with those other
Scriptures if they don't support Wesley's position. But let me see
if I understand your position. What you are saying is that anywhere
in the Bible where there is language that might seem to indicate
that salvation is offered to all, we are to understand that God
only desires the predestinated elect to be saved? This would mean
that the offer of salvation is not to all, but only to the elect.
However, since none of us knows who the elect are, the Gospel must
be preached as if it were meant for all. Hence, the instruction
of Christ to preach to all nations. The preachers are preaching
because those who are elect will hear and believe. Those who are
not elect will not believe. Your help with these two things would
be appreciated. Thanks again, Christopher PS--what's a YLT?
Subject: the nature of God's offer From: Rod To: Christopher Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 24, 2000 at 15:34:37 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: Christopher, Here are a few things to chew on, though
you really should see that Peter and Paul are in agreement in 1
Peter and Romans first. Most people can't see a couple of things:
1) If two people are believers indwelt by God's Spirit and consequently
led and taught by Him, they cannot both be right if they disagree
about Scripture. And both may be wrong, or, at least, partially wrong. Or one may be right or
partilly right. 2) God doesn't contradict Himself. Painful as it
may be, we have to accept and strive to understand the whole of
Scripture, even when it's seemingly not in support of our beliefs.
For, if it isn't in support of our beliefs, we must shift those
beliefs to conformity to God's Word--I did that myself on the issue
of sovereign grace and it was painful for me. The offer is genuinely
made to all men. It is, therefore, a legitimate offer, referenced
as the 'general call,' which goes out universally. (It's essential
at this point that you review Romans 1:18-32 to remind youself of
this basic truth: at one time all men knew about God and they willfully
disobeyed and consistently rejected Him and His teaching, as did
Cain and others, excepting Noah, to whom God extended grace. After
the flood, the same pattern established itself in Noah's line, with
only those given God's grace differing.) But the offer to all men
falls on deaf ears (spiritually dead ears), until and unless the
one dead in sin is made alive by the Spirit of God (see Eph. 2:
4-5). Those 'elect' ones are 'born again,' 'quickened,' made spiritually
alive, 'regenerated' by God by the indwelling of His Spirit (John
3:3-7). Those are then and only then enabled to receive the Word
of faith, provided by grace, which the faithful witness of the Lord
God delivers (Rom. 1:16-17; 10:17; 1 Cor. 1:18-2:16). So you see,
without God's direct intervention and provision of grace, instead
of all being saved, all would be lost. Paul identifies this fact
in Eph. 2:1-3, where he explains that men are 'by nature the children
of wrath,' helpless to help themselves, being dead, and under God's
sentence of death because of Adam's rebellion. After carefully building
his case there, he masterfully continues his explanation of grace
by the wonderful pronouncements of verses 8-10, the 'NT in miniature.
______________________________ Christopher, I urge you to run down
all these Scriptures, noticing that they are not just a verse here
and there taken from context, but are a coherent theme of the Lord
God in all His Word. If you do that, and carefully read and study
the other passages given, and we're are in agreement that this is
God's Word and plan, then let's move on to the other Scriptures.
This will avoid the relatively ineffective 'shotgun approach' of
looking at a lot of verses at once, when they require careful analysis.
(Thanks.) YLT = Youngs Literal Translation
Subject: Re: the nature of God's offer From: Christopher To: Rod Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 24, 2000 at 18:02:38 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Rod, Thanks for making such a considerate response. Comments on
your post in *'s. It makes the post incredibly long and for that
I'm sorry, but it seemed the only way to do it. Christopher, Here
are a few things to chew on, though you really should see that Peter
and Paul are in agreement in 1 Peter and Romans first. *I have no
doubt that Peter, Paul and the rest of the writers of Scripture
are all in agreement. Most people can't see a couple of things:
1) If two people are believers indwelt by God's Spirit and consequently
led and taught by Him, they cannot both be right if they disagree
about Scripture. And both may be wrong, or, at least, partially wrong. Or one may be right or
partilly right. *With you up to a point. I would put it this way:
if two people agree on an interpretation of Scripture, they have
only determined that they agree with one another. This is because
two other people, carrying on a separate conversation, my come to
a completely different and/or opposite conclusion and be in complete
agreement with one another. So, because two people agree on something
does not make it true, although they may indeed be correct. All
four may be equally sincere and equally wrong. 2) God doesn't contradict
Himself. Painful as it may be, we have to accept and strive to understand
the whole of Scripture, even when it's seemingly not in support
of our beliefs. For, if it isn't in support of our beliefs, we must
shift those beliefs to conformity to God's Word--I did that myself
on the issue of sovereign grace and it was painful for me. *I wholeheartedly
agree with you. If Paul seems to someone to contradict Peter, it
is because the theology seeking support is wrong, not Paul or Peter.
This problem is particularly evident when it comes to the Apostles
Paul and James. It is why I have thrown most of Luther, except for
his objections to various Roman innovations, out the window. He
wrote that James totally contradicted Paul and that he preached
an all together different gospel. This is something that I cannot
accept, given what has just been previously said about God not contradicting
Himself. The offer is genuinely made to all men. It is, therefore,
a legitimate offer, referenced as the 'general call,' which goes
out universally. (It's essential at this point that you review Romans
1:18-32 to remind youself of this basic truth: at one time all men
knew about God and they willfully disobeyed and consistently rejected
Him and His teaching, as did Cain and others, excepting Noah, to
whom God extended grace. After the flood, the same pattern established
itself in Noah's line, with only those given God's grace differing.)
But the offer to all men falls on deaf ears (spiritually dead ears),
until and unless the one dead in sin is made alive by the Spirit
of God (see Eph. 2: 4-5). Those 'elect' ones are 'born again,' 'quickened,'
made spiritually alive, 'regenerated' by God by the indwelling of
His Spirit (John 3:3-7). Those are then and only then enabled to
receive the Word of faith, provided by grace, which the faithful
witness of the Lord God delivers (Rom. 1:16-17; 10:17; 1 Cor. 1:18-2:16).
*I am still a little unclear on whether I accurately stated the
position in my previous post. If the offer to turn (repent) and
live is genuine for all, then how does it apply only to some? Genuine
seems to imply capacity to receive, whether given by God or natural.
And since both sides say that it is a gift of God, I don't see where
natural (ie--semi-Pelagian) fits in as a valid accusation. So you
see, without God's direct intervention and provision of grace, instead
of all being saved, all would be lost. *Undoubtedly. Otherwise,
why would mankind be in need of salvation? Paul identifies this
fact in Eph. 2:1-3, where he explains that men are 'by nature the
children of wrath,' helpless to help themselves, being dead, and
under God's sentence of death because of Adam's rebellion. After
carefully building his case there, he masterfully continues his
explanation of grace by the wonderful pronouncements of verses 8-10,
the 'NT in miniature. *There is no question that salvation is by
grace, through faith and unto good works. Unless I am misunderstanding
the exchange between Mr Wesley and Mr Whitefield, and all the discusions
up to and including the recent ones on this board, the issue is
whether the doctrines of grace and election as stated by 'Calvinists'
mean that some are created specifically for destruction and, therefore,
have absolutely no choice in the matter. Those who would follow
Mr Wesley say that man does indeed have a choice. He is commanded
to choose. The response to that is that it makes God need to know
something or turns him into a small-g god and man into a big-g god.
The Calvinists say that man cannot have a choice in the matter without
destroying the soverignty of God. But, either way, it seems like
both sides have to gloss over some Scripture or other. Mr Wesley
and the Arminians don't seem to have dealt well with Rom 9 (although
I have only read the one piece by Wesley) and the Calvinists don't
seem to have explained the 'Arminian' passages very well. That is
why I would like to know what you think they mean. Thanks again,
Christopher ______________________________ Christopher, I urge you
to run down all these Scriptures, noticing that they are not just
a verse here and there taken from context, but are a coherent theme
of the Lord God in all His Word. If you do that, and carefully read
and study the other passages given, and we're are in agreement that
this is God's Word and plan, then let's move on to the other Scriptures.
This will avoid the relatively ineffective 'shotgun approach' of
looking at a lot of verses at once, when they require careful analysis.
(Thanks.) *I'm not going anywhere, so I don't need to rush through
anything. Given the nature of message boards, slow and deliberate
is probably the only way anyone can understand what anyone else
is saying. I would only ask that you allow me to clarify something
before you blast me. If I hold to what I say, and don't feel the
need to change anything, then you may blast away! YLT = Youngs Literal
Translation *Thank you. I haven't ever heard of that translation.
Subject: the nature of God's offer is bound up in mercy and grace
From: Rod
To: Christopher
Date Posted:
Thurs, Feb 24, 2000 at 19:39:47 (PST) Email
Address:na
Message: Christopher, Your words--'I would only ask that you
allow me to clarify something before you blast me. If I hold to
what I say, and don't feel the need to change anything, then you
may blast away!' I am very strong in my convictions and try to put
them forth as persuasively and forcefully as possible, believing
they are the truth as far as God's Word is concerned. However, I
deny that I 'bash' you. Actually, I've gone out of my way to patiently
answer your questions, on subjects which have been dealt with very
often by me and others here in recent months. Sometimes the subject
is tiresome, if the same issues are dealt with too often and too
closely together. Also, you must realize something else, I (and
probably others here who deal with those of opposite views publically,
both on the boards and in ministry) have frequently been called
a non-Christian by venomous Arminians, even as I confessing the
Lord Jesus Christ as my Lord and my God, along with Thomas. This
happened last week on another board by its owner, a pastor and a
man whom I had called 'brother' for a year or so in print. I would
like to say that doesn't really bother me, but I was so taken aback
and surprised by this turn of events by one who had affirmed his
conviction of my salvation early on when another Arminian had attacked
it, that I was deeply affected. God has given me peace about it
since, however. You have been a gentleman and I'm appreciative of
that. 'Type A's' like myself come on very strong, but my intention
isn't to deal with personalities, except when they prove, as some
here do, that they aren't inclined to (or can't, because of being
unregenerate) hear God's Word and discuss the issues with an idea
of resolution. I make no bones about denouncing that. I have Arminian
friends, charismatic friends, people I call 'brother' and 'sister.'
We have deep differences in the Lord, but I think that they are
actually 'in Christ' even as they are in deep error about Him. All
true believers are my brothers and sisters. ________________________________
Now, from reading your last post, I have to say I'm honestly not
sure whether you indicate you have had time to read and study 2
Peter 3:1-9 or not. If so, do you agree that it can't possibly mean
that God is referring to all men without exception when it says
He isn't willing that 'any' should perish, even as He declares just
previously that He has reserved the fire of judgment specifically
for 'ungodly men?' (BTW, the word 'willing' here is in the strongest
possible sense.) If you do agree that that is the proper and only
possible interpretation, then we can move on. If not, please list
your specific objections to the interpretation. ________________________________
Again, we're approaching the 'shotgun situation,' trying to hit
every mark at once, but this statement of yours demands address:
'Unless I am misunderstanding the exchange between Mr Wesley and
Mr Whitefield, and all the discusions up to and including the recent
ones on this board, the issue is whether the doctrines of grace
and election as stated by 'Calvinists' mean that some are created
specifically for destruction and, therefore, have absolutely no
choice in the matter.' I'm afraid you've most definitely missed
the point(s). Do not pass 'go,' do not collect $200.00 until you
get it fixed in your mind what God says man is predestinated TO. There can be no progress
whatsoever until that is clearly perceived. I have laid it out before.
Here it is again. Romans 8:29: 'For whom he did foreknow, he did
predestinate TO BE CONFORMED TO THE IMAGE
OF HIS SON, [in order that] he might be
the first born among many brethren.' Where is predestination to
death in that? It is, as Whitefield said, and I explained earlier,
PREDESTINATION TO LIFE,
life eternal. The only other place I can recall predestination being
specifically referenced is Eph. 1, which says the same thing in
more elaboration: 'According as he hath chosen us in him [Christ
Jesus] before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy
and without blame before him, in love having predestinated us UNTO THE ADOPTION OF SONS
by Jesus Christ to himself, according to the good pleasure of his
will' (verses 4-5). I can see nothing but life in predestination
in that. Nothing but goodness and grace. When you speak thus of
'hav[ing] absolutely no choice in the matter,' you make a grave
and fundamental error, one crucial to the understanding of the issue.
The truth is that men make choices continually. Every person who
ever lived has made a choice in the matter. Adam had a choice, freely
made, whether to obey God or join his wife in his deliberate disobedience.
He chose to sin. the choice was made under the most auspicious of
conditions. He had only one command. Very simple situation. He chose
death, having been warned previously by God that it meant death.
Whose fault was it? Hint: It wasn't God's! :>) Adam's offspring
have ever since been making choices of their wills. Their will is
one will: They don't want God; they choose to reject His genuine
offer of salvation to all who will come; they get what they want
and don't come because they don't will to. Their will and choice
isn't violated. They aren't caused to be lost by God. Their lost
condition is because they are 'enemies of God' (Rom. 8:7), refusing
to accept his offer. Grace must be understood clearly. And I think
Wesley and others misunderstand what it is. It is meeting a need
of man despite his inability to meet it for himself. In doing that
God doesn't violate that person's will. Instead, He replaces the
old will with a new one which can receive and desires to receive
salvation in Christ. Once again, the person gets exactly what he
wants. Everyone on earth gets exactly his heart's desire, whether
it is to come to Christ in grace or to reject Him. The real issue
in this is this simple fact: Wesley and those like him think that
God is unfair! Here's the issue of sovereignty. Is it unfair for
God to do whatsoever He wills with His creatures? Paul says, 'YES,'
resoundingly in Rom. 9:14-24. He may have mercy on whom He will
and He may, by bringing out exactly what is in their hearts, as
though wringing a wet garment, harden Pharaoh who refuses, out of his already hard heart
to accept God's authority over himself and to do His will. 'Fairness'
is giving justice to men. All men deserve hellfire. That is God's
justice. Mercy, being born of love, produces grace for those of
God's choice to rescue. But, it has to be remembered that His justice
has to be served. So He came, in the Person of Christ, in the flesh
to receive the penalty for the predestinated. He paid an awesomely
awful price on behalf of those who are saved. What's fair to Him about that? But He,
marvelous God that He is, did it willingly and purposefully. We
should stop finding fault with the One Whose ways are beyond us
and start praising Him!
Subject: Re: the nature of God's offer is bound up in mercy and
grace From:
Tom To:
Rod Date Posted:
Fri, Feb 25, 2000 at 00:54:22 (PST) Email
Address:ahardy@rapidnet.net
Message:
Hi Rod I am sorry to hear about that Arminian who had previously
called you a brother. That shouldn't surprise you though, many take
that possition. Not long ago I was in an e-mail discussion with
another Calvinist who insisted that any Calvinist who believes that
it is possible for an Arminian to be a brother or sister in the
Lord. Hasn't yet come to faith in Christ. He then went on to call
me and others 'tolerant Calvinists' who haven't as yet grasped the
full understanding of the gospel. He also said that there are many
hot beds of 'tolerant Calvinists' such as Westminster Seminary,
and if I am in conversation with any I should not listen to them.
Of course I did not take his advice in the matter, otherwise I probably
would not be on this site. Right Pilgrim? ;-) Tom
Subject: Re: the nature of God's offer is bound up in mercy and
grace From:
Pilgrim To:
Tom Date Posted:
Fri, Feb 25, 2000 at 07:33:12 (PST) Email
Address:Not Provided
Message: Tom, RIGHT!
hehehe Having had the 'pleasure' of studying in three seminaries
of 'opposing' theological persuasions; Arminian, Calvinist and Hyper-Calvinist,
I can speak from personal knowledge and experience about what you
spoke of concerning the person who said you are a 'tolerant Calvinist'.
Such people often use the word 'reprobate' in an unwarranted universal
way, and perhaps even more disheartening is that they are not moved
in heart when they do use that word. Their coldness may in fact
ironically be that which makes they themselves 'reprobate' and frightfully
in both the biblical and theological sense. On the other hand, there
are many who err on the opposite side and are want to see ANY who
profess to 'love Jesus' as brothers/sisters in Christ. This too
the Scripture teaches is not the case as you are well aware of.
In His Precious Blood, Pilgrim
Subject: Re: the nature of God's offer is bound up in mercy and
grace From:
Rod To:
Tom Date Posted:
Fri, Feb 25, 2000 at 01:36:47 (PST) Email
Address:na
Message: Hi, yourself, Tom, :>) It is possible for people
on both sides to be wrong, as you well know. When either side holds
such a position as to automatically say one bearing such a label
is unsaved, he immediately shows little understanding of God's workings.
Personally, I pray that I will be of the mind of Geogre Whitefield
in this matter: 'I desire therefore that they who hold election
would not triumph, or make a party on one hand (for I detest any
such thing)....' He knew that Christianity was diverse and that
it was possible to be Arminian and to be saved. he wished unity
in Christ, not 'party' divisions. It's curious that Arminains and
'sovereign gracers' alike are confused when I, after having presented
the gospel, issue a simple invitation to 'come to Christ.' The Arminians
think no one has a choice, according to the 'Calvinist view.' And
the sovereign gracers think that I'm advocating 'free will' in the
same way as the Arminians! How little we understand! Now what I
don't understand is how those who continually shout, 'John 3:16!'
can deny that one believing in Jesus Christ as the Bible portrays
Him, a sinless Substitute for my sins, whose shed blood is upon
me, can deny that I'm a 'whosoever will.' It seems the utmost in
hypocrisy to me. :>) 'That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth
the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised
him from the dead, thou shalt be saved' (Rom.10:9). Amen! Praise
God!
Subject: Re: the nature of God's offer is bound up in mercy and
grace From:
Christopher To:
Rod Date Posted:
Thurs, Feb 24, 2000 at 21:22:58 (PST) Email
Address:Not Provided
Message: Rod, Thanks
again for responding. No, I don't think you bash me. That comment
was made with tongue firmly planted in cheek. And thank you for
the compliment. I would hope that all those claiming to belong to
Christ could at least be courteous to one another, if not show outright
love! What happened to basic manners, fer cryin' out loud?! As far
as 2 Peter 3:9 is concerned, I had an opportunity to reread it this
evening and search out some Orthodox commentary. My very (and I
mean very) limited understanding is that the situation is like many
other things--it is not either/or. Yes, the fire is reserved for
ungodly men (although our understanding of fire is probably different,
but that is another thread) and God is longsuffering, not willing that any should perish.
Exactly like the text says. I don't see any confusion or contradiction
here. The focus seems to be on God's patience with us, and His kindness
in giving us time in this life for repentance. Anyway, we seem to
be getting off course. While I can certainly understand your reticence
in touching on the Scriptures Wesley mentions, given your experience
on other boards and some of the--at the very least--unkind things
people can say to one another, I would really like to hear your
thoughts on the Scriptures posted other that 2 Pet 3:9. Think of
it as your opportunity to just say what you think without the worry
of Arminian opposition or any unkind words. I sincerely want to
know what you think these passages mean. Apart from any controversy.
I just try to ask questions when I post here. My interest is educational.
I can't ask George Whitefield questions, but I can post questions
on this board and get some further insight. And, since no one else
here has offered any thoughts, you seem to be my only hope. Besides,
you wouldn't want me to think you were refusing to deal with Scripture
now, would you? :) Thanks again, Christopher
Subject: Rom 9:22-24 From: Christopher To: Christopher Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 24, 2000 at 22:08:43 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Rod, Below is the commentary on Romans 9:22-24 from St John Chrysostom
(Chrysostom doesn't mean Golden Mouthed for nothin'!), considered
one of the Three Great Heirarchs, along with St Gregory the Theologian
and St Basil the Great. It seems to pertain directly to the question
of 2 Peter 3:9, grace and free will. Plus, it seems to solve the
entire problem of grace v free will quite nicely. Please don't feel
you have to comment on it. I just though you might be interested
in reading it. Christopher Ver. 22, 23, 24. 'What if God, willing
to show His wrath, and to make His power known, endured with much
long-suffering the vessels of wrath fitted to destruction: and that
He might make known the riches of His glory on the vessels of mercy,
which He had afore prepared unto glory, even us, whom He hath chosen,
not of the Jews only, but also of the Gentiles.' What he means is
somewhat as follows. Pharaoh was a vessel of wrath, that is, a man
who by his own hard-heartedness had kindled the wrath of God. For
after enjoying much long-suffering, he became no better, but remained
unimproved. Wherefore he calleth him not only 'a vessel of wrath,'
but also one 'fitted for destruction.' That is, fully fitted indeed,
but by his own proper self. For neither had God left out aught of
the things likely to recover him, nor did he leave out aught of
those that would ruin him, and put him beyond any forgiveness. Yet
still, though God knew this, 'He endured him with much long-suffering,'
being willing to bring him to repentance. For had He not willed
this, then He would not have been thus long-suffering. But as he
would not use the long-suffering in order to repentance, but fully
fitted himself for wrath, He used him for the correction of others,
through the punishment inflicted upon him making them better, and
in this way setting forth His power. For that it is not God's wish
that His power be so made known, but in another way, by His benefits,
namely, and kindnesses, he had shown above in all possible ways.
For if Paul does not wish to appear powerful in this way ('not that
we should appear approved,' he says, 'but that ye should do that
which is honest,') (2 Cor. xiii. 7), much less doth God. But after
that be had shown long-suffering, that He might lead to repentance,
but he did not repent, He suffered him a long time, that He might
display at once His goodness and His power, even if that man were
not minded to gain anything from this great long-suffering. As then
by punishing this man, who continued incorrigible, He showed His
power, so by having pitied those who had done many sins but repented,
He manifested His love toward man. But it does not say, love towards
man, but glory, to show that this is especially God's glory, and
for this He was above all things earnest. But in saying, 'which
He had afore prepared unto glory,' he does not mean that all is
God's doing. Since if this were so, there were nothing to hinder
all men from being saved. But he is setting forth again His foreknowledge,
and doing away with the difference between the Jews and the Gentiles.
And on this topic again he grounds a defence of his statement, which
is no small one. For it was not in the case of the Jews only that
some men perished, and some were saved, but with the Gentiles also
this was the case. Wherefore he does not say, all the Gentiles,
but, 'of the Gentiles,' nor, all the Jews, but, 'of the Jews.' As
then Pharaoh became a vessel of wrath by his own lawlessness, so
did these become vessels of mercy by their own readiness to obey.
For though the more part is of God, still they also have contributed
themselves some little. Whence he does not say either, vessels of
well-doing, or vessels of boldness (parrhsias), but 'vessels of
mercy,' to show that the whole is of God. For the phrase, 'it is
not of him that willeth, nor of him that runneth,' even if it comes
in the course of the objection, still, were it said by Paul, would
create no difficulty, Because when he says, 'it is not of him that
willeth, nor of him that runneth,' he does not deprive us of free-will,
but shows that all is not one's own, for that it requires grace
from above. For it is binding on us to will, and also to run: but
to confide not in our own labors, but in the love of God toward
man. And this he has expressed elsewhere. 'Yet not I, but the grace
which was with me.' (1 Cor. xv. 10.), And he well says, 'Which He
had afore prepared unto glory.' For since they reproached them with
this, that they were saved by grace, and thought to make them ashamed,
he far more than sets aside this insinuation. For if the thing brought
glory even to God, much more to them through whom God was glorified.
But observe his forbearance, and unspeakable wisdom. For when he
had it in his power to adduce, as an instance of those punished,
not Pharaoh, but such of the Jews as had sinned, and so make his
discourse much clearer, and show that where there were the same
fathers, and the same sins, some perished, and some had mercy shown
them, and persuade them not to be doubtful-minded, even if some
of the Gentiles were saved, while the Jews were perishing; that
he might not make his discourse irksome, the showing forth of the
punishment he draws from the foreigner, so that he may not be forced
to call them 'vessels of wrath.' But those that obtained mercy he
draws from the people of the Jews. And besides, he also has spoken
in a sufficient way in God's behalf, because though He knew very
well that the nation was fitting itself as a vessel of destruction,
still He contributed all on His part, His patience, His long-suffering,
and that not merely long-suffering, but 'much long-suffering;' yet
still he was not minded to state it barely against the Jews. Whence
then are some vessels of wrath, and some of mercy? Of their own
free choice. God, however, being very good, shows the same kindness
to both. For it was not those in a state of salvation only to whom
He showed mercy, but also Pharaoh, as far as His part went. For
of the same long-suffering, both they and he had the advantage.
And if he was not saved, it was quite owing to his own will: since,
as for what concerneth God, he had as much done for him as they
who were saved.
Subject: there are so many grounds on which to object to this.
From: Rod
To: Christopher
Date Posted:
Fri, Feb 25, 2000 at 00:14:29 (PST) Email
Address:na
Message: But I will confine myself to two. First, I know it's
common practice to cut and paste in on this board. And there are
times when the 'experts' can say it better than we. Most of the
time, however, it would be well for us to speak for ourselves, even
if it is paraphrase their thoughts. That way we are forced to incorporate
thoughts and integrate them with our expression. I urge you to consider
doing that. Second, I will quote and reply to the last paragraph:
'For it was not those in a state of salvation only to whom He showed
mercy, but also Pharaoh, as far as His part went. For of the same
long-suffering, both they and he had the advantage. And if he was
not saved, it was quite owing to his own will: since, as for what
concerneth God, he had as much done for him as they who were saved.'
That last statement: 'since, as for what concerneth God, he had
as much done for him as they who were saved,' is uttelly indefinsible
in the face of the text of verses 14-24. In fact, to conclude that
Paul spoke only of Pharaoh, is not justified. In verses 22 and 23,
he speaks of vessels, plural. In verse 23 he makes it plain that
God showed 'mercy,' not to the vessels of wrath, but exclusively
to the other vessels, the ones He created expressly as the Sovereign
Potter for that purpose, designing them with that purpose in mind,
'even us, whom he hath called' (effectually with the special calling
of Rom. 8:28-30). It is furthermore totally obvious that, if God
'had done as much for' the lost, the vessels of wrath, as He had
for the saved (that is, regenerating them) they would have been
saved as are we Christians. He plainly didn't do that for them.
Salvation is the gift of God, 'by grace' and 'through faith,' which,
as Eph. 2 declares, is a complete package, one step inevitably and
surely leading to the other, in the sovereign provision of God,
just as Rom. 8:30 lays it out. Christopher, to give as much authority
to the pronouncements of extra-Biblical sources as to the Scripture,
is not acceptable for a Christian. You know that, assuredly, for
we together have discussed this before here months ago. And you
know that one of the basics of the beliefs of the majority here
is sola scriptura: the Bible is the final authority. To disbelieve
that fundamental fact is the source of all kinds of errors, the
reason the RCC goes so far astray. It will lead (and has led) you
and others astray also.
Subject: Re: there are so many grounds on which to object to this.
From: Christopher
To: Rod
Date Posted:
Fri, Feb 25, 2000 at 08:29:38 (PST) Email
Address:Not Provided
Message: Rod, Then we
should probably leave the thing rest, since I did not start the
thread to revive a discucssion on Sola Scriptura and Tradition,
but to better understand the nature of the dispute between Mr Whitefield
and Mr Wesley. Thanks again for all your time in responding. Hope
to talk to you soon. Christopher
Subject: No discussion of the God of the Bible can legitimately...
From: Rod
To: Christopher
Date Posted:
Fri, Feb 25, 2000 at 09:24:01 (PST) Email
Address:na
Message: ...omit that issue. What you don't percieve is that
it isn't an unimportant 'side issue,' but at the heart or your difficulty
with 'our' position. There is no basis for agreement outside the
Bible and God's precepts expressed within it. Pronouncemts of other
men are secondary to and to be painstakingly judged in light of
their agreement with the inspired Word. All the comments of men,
including 'exalted' leaders and lowly students such as myself, are
to be subjected to severe scrutiny in the searchlight glare of the
revealed Word, the principle God approves so obviously in Acts 17:11.
Subject: Re: No discussion of the God of the Bible can legitimately...
From: Christopher
To: Rod
Date Posted:
Fri, Feb 25, 2000 at 09:41:33 (PST) Email
Address:Not Provided
Message: Rod, Please
do not misunderstand. I most definitely do not think it's an unimportant
side issue. It's just that it's another thread. Again, I only started
this thread to better understand the nature of the dispute between
Whitefield and Wesley and I was sure that those on this board would
be familiar with the situation. Christopher
Subject: 2 Peter 3 is crucial to the entire situation. From: Rod To: Christopher Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 24,
2000 at 22:01:56 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: Christopher, I wasn't holding off answering you on
any Scripture out of fear or any motive other than trying to narrow
the focus of the discussiion to specifics and to keep it from growing
uncontrollably. Plus, you must remember that it's easy to ask a
question (most times), but a real labor to try to answer faithfully
and in detail--maybe not for others, but for me, at least. ________________________________
I have to admit I'm very troubled by your statements: 'As far as
2 Peter 3:9 is concerned, I had an opportunity to reread it this
evening and search out some Orthodox commentary. My very (and I
mean very) limited understanding is that the situation is like many
other things--it is not either/or.' and 'I don't see any confusion
or contradiction here. The focus seems to be on God's patience with
us, and His kindness in giving us time in this life for repentance.'
I, and I'm certain the vast majority of the people on this board,
must disagree with that. And not only just disagree, but vehemently.
I asked this of you above: 'If you do agree that that is the proper
and only possible interpretation, then we can move on. If not, please
list your specific objections to the interpretation.' I'm sorry,
I see no specific objections to the interpretation and no reason
for your conclusion except that you disagree. There really isn't
any basis for continuance if there is to be no discussion. I stand
ready to look at the other Scriptures, having made some outline
notes on them, but we must resolve this issue first. If that is
impossilbe, well.... Maybe someone else will take up the issue.
Subject: Re: 2 Peter 3 is crucial to the entire situation. From: Christopher
To: Rod
Date Posted:
Thurs, Feb 24, 2000 at 22:11:05 (PST) Email
Address:Not Provided
Message: Rod, To what
do you disagree vehemently? As far as I can tell, I simply agreed
with what the text says. ?
Subject: The disagreement is that the text does say that. n/t
From: Rod
To: Christopher
Date Posted:
Thurs, Feb 24, 2000 at 23:01:57 (PST) Email
Address:na
Message:
Subject: Re: The disagreement is that the text does say that.
n/t From:
laz To:
Rod Date Posted:
Fri, Feb 25, 2000 at 08:26:51 (PST) Email
Address:Not Provided
Message: It's clear that
2 Pet was written TO the Church and the saints residing therein....not
the world at large...so God's longsuffering in 3:9 is towards His
people (us-ward)...the Elect. laz 2Pe 1:1 Simon Peter, a servant
and an apostle of Jesus Christ, to them
that have obtained like precious faith with us
through the righteousness of God and our Saviour Jesus Christ: 2
Grace and peace be multiplied unto you through the knowledge of
God, and of Jesus our Lord, 3 According as his divine power hath given unto us all things
that pertain unto life and godliness, through the knowledge of him
that hath called us to glory and virtue: 4 Whereby are given unto us exceeding great
and precious promises: that by these ye might be partakers of the
divine nature, having escaped the corruption that is in the world
through lust. 5 And beside this, giving
all diligence, add to your faith virtue;
and to virtue knowledge; 6 And to knowledge temperance; and to temperance
patience; and to patience godliness; 7 And to godliness brotherly
kindness; and to brotherly kindness charity. 8 For if these things
be in you, and abound, they make you that ye shall neither be barren
nor unfruitful in the knowledge of our Lord Jesus Christ.
Subject: laz, was this directed to Christopher? YES, ROD! (n/t)
From: Rod
To: laz
Date Posted:
Fri, Feb 25, 2000 at 10:16:53 (PST) Email
Address:na
Message:
Subject: you betcha (n/t) From: laz To: Rod Date Posted: Fri, Feb 25, 2000 at 21:54:31 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Subject: Clarification? From: Christopher To: laz Date Posted: Fri, Feb 25, 2000 at 23:32:20 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
laz, Please explain why you directed the post to me. I agreed with
Pilgrim above that Peter is writing to the Church and don't understand
what you objected to about what I said. Thanks, Christopher
Subject: Re: Clarification? From: laz To: Christopher Date Posted: Sat, Feb 26, 2000 at 06:27:13 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Christopher - I got the impression that while you believe Peter
was writing the Church(how can this be denied), you don't necessarily
believe that God's salvific desires is limited to His Elect based
on chapter 3 verse 9. At least you are on the fence? In Him, laz
Subject: Re: Clarification? From: Christopher To: laz Date Posted: Sat, Feb 26, 2000 at 10:57:01 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
laz, Thanks for getting back. The entire NT was written to the Church,
no? When I'm through reading the links Pilgrim gave me and comparing
them to Athanasius' On the Incarnation of the Word, I'll get back
to you. Thanks again, Christopher
Subject: Openess of God theology From: Starr Stevens To: All Date Posted: Wed, Feb 23, 2000 at 20:53:31 (PST) Email Address:Starr33333@aol.com
Message:
I am into a dialogue with a friend who is into the 'openess of God'
theology while I am a classic Calvinist. Any suggestions as to good
material for me to read to defend my position against his? He has
me reading Pinnock's 'Wideness in God's Mercy' much of which I find
to be repulsive, but need help to formulate my thoughts for a response.
Subject: Re: Openess of God theology From: Rod To: Starr Stevens Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 24, 2000 at 12:10:31 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: Hi, SS, Let me urge you not to be dismayed or discouraged
by this doctrine, as I understand it from the presentations below.
All you can do, and all your are responsible for, is to show your
friend God's truth. You're not responsible to argue him to conviction
of it, though I sense your tender heart and desire to help him,
which is natural and admirable. My advice: don't worrry about other
books on this issue. Saturate your own mind and heart with the Word
of God, leaning on the principle of Ps. 119:11: 'Thy word have I
hidden in mine heart, that I might not
sin against thee.' Specifically, carefully
read and digest such passages as Romans 8, particularly verse 29
in relation to the verse preceding it and the one succeeding it.
Then go to Eph. 1:3-14 and 2:8-10, winding up at Rev. 4:11 and 5:8-10.
Next, get a good, exhaustive concondordance and begin searching
related words and passages, remembering to check out the words,
'eternal' and 'everlasting.' Good hunting!
Subject: Re: Openess of God theology From: mebaser To: Starr Stevens Date Posted: Wed, Feb 23, 2000 at 23:54:47 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
I am into a dialogue with a friend who is into the 'openess of God'
theology while I am a classic Calvinist. Any suggestions as to good
material for me to read to defend my position against his? He has
me reading Pinnock's 'Wideness in God's Mercy' much of which I find
to be repulsive, but need help to formulate my thoughts for a response.
--- Greetings Mr. Stevens, Some of us, including myself,
could use a brief overview of what this school of thought believes.
Thanks, mebaser
Subject: Re: Openess of God theology From: laz To: mebaser Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 24, 2000 at 07:02:30 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Brother Mebaser - don't you remember the recent 'beatings' we took
in maintaining the immutability of God and how He does not live
IN time (but created and thus transcends time) along with us....cleaning
up our messess and such...the argument being that there could be
no love btwn God and man if all things have been ordained from eternity
past...that there must be this real-time and constant interplay
btwn God and man whereby God doesn't know what our next moves are
going to be in order for a 'real' relationship to exist. Also, how
can God know the future if the future has yet to happen and thus
is unknowable? Prophecies are but God's intentions which He eventually
finds ways to work out as planned. We believe as we do on account
of Platonic/Aristolean logic and related hellenistic views of God.
And so the argument goes as best I can tell. laz
Subject: Re: Openess of God theology From: mebaser To: laz Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 24, 2000 at 18:38:06 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Brother Mebaser - don't you remember the recent 'beatings' we took
in maintaining the immutability of God and how He does not live
IN time (but created and thus transcends time) along with us....cleaning
up our messess and such...the argument being that there could be
no love btwn God and man if all things have been ordained from eternity
past...that there must be this real-time and constant interplay
btwn God and man whereby God doesn't know what our next moves are
going to be in order for a 'real' relationship to exist. Also, how
can God know the future if the future has yet to happen and thus
is unknowable? Prophecies are but God's intentions which He eventually
finds ways to work out as planned. We believe as we do on account
of Platonic/Aristolean logic and related hellenistic views of God.
And so the argument goes as best I can tell. laz --- EEEEKKKKKK!!!!
mebaser
Subject: short definition From: kevin To: laz Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 24, 2000 at 10:53:11 (PST) Email Address:amoshart@earthlink.net
Message:
If I can sum up what laz posted in one sentence. The openess of
God teaches that God is just as suprised about what will happen
tommorrow as you and I are. In Him, kevin sdg PS The January issue
of Tabletalk has a wonderful little article opposing the openess
of God view. I don't think I can legally post it here. Does anyone
know?
Subject: Re: short definition From: Pilgrim To: kevin Date Posted: Fri, Feb 25, 2000 at 13:55:46 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
If I can sum up what laz posted in one sentence. The openess of
God teaches that God is just as suprised about what will happen
tommorrow as you and I are. In Him, kevin sdg PS The January issue
of Tabletalk has a wonderful little article opposing the openess
of God view. I don't think I can legally post it here. Does anyone
know? --- kevin, Yes that was a nice albeit simply stated
article concerning the 'Openness of God' heresy. You certainly may
post it here! In His Precious Blood, Pilgrim
Subject: short summary: It's blasphemy! n/t From: Rod To: kevin Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 24, 2000 at 11:57:19 (PST) Email Address:na
Message:
Subject: Re: Openess of God theology From: John To: laz Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 24, 2000 at 09:39:27 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
My friends: May I suggest you look at the website for the Baptist
General Conference, since this theology is being hotly debated within
their denomination right now. The website is at: www.bgc.bethel.edu/ Professor
Greg Boyd of Bethel Seminary is the idea's leading proponent within
the BGC. A board of his seminary peers have pronounced him to be
within orthodox evangelicalism. He is opposed mainly by John Piper.
If you go to that website and click on the link for the 'Foreknowldge
Discussion' it will have a wealth of information from both sides
you can read. Happy hunting. John
Subject: Re: Openess of God theology From: laz To: John Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 24, 2000 at 10:02:02 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Wow...lots of stuff on that site. Thanks, laz
Subject: Questions for Kevin From: Rod To: All Date Posted: Wed, Feb 23, 2000 at 06:35:41 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: Kevin, In examining the thread on James 5, some questions
come to mind concerning your belief on this matter of healing. 1)
Is healing of all physical disease made possible by the Atonement
(the propitiation, actually), the Sacrifice of the Lord Jesus Christ
for His people? 2) Is healing actually and only possible through
intercessory prayer of 'the elders?' Or can healing of Chritians
take place for other reasons? A) If for other reasons, what would
those reasons be? 3) Is God obligated to heal those for whom 'fervent
prayer' by 'righteous men' is offered? A) If so, is He obligated
because of a prior decision He has made to heal always and completely
through this method? B) If so, is God obligated by
the action of the prayer to heal the person
in question? 4) Is it safe and advisable to build a doctrine on
one passage of Scripture? I think the answers to these questions
may help us to explore the situation of healing in some greater
depth, with a better focus.
Subject: answers for rod From: kevin To: Rod Date Posted: Wed, Feb 23, 2000 at 15:16:29 (PST) Email Address:amoshart@earthlink.net
Message:
*Rod, I will try to answer your questions by posting them along
with my post. But I do want to state that I am in agreement with
the monitor and with the issue of sin being involved. I hope the
answers to your questions help make this less muddled. In examining
the thread on James 5, some questions come to mind concerning your
belief on this matter of healing. 1) Is healing of all physical
disease made possible by the Atonement (the propitiation, actually),
the Sacrifice of the Lord Jesus Christ for His people? *Yes. I base
this from Isaiah 53:5. I do believe this to be dealing with both
physical and spiritual healing. I also hold that an aspect of this
is also suported in the lifting up of the serpent on the staff by
Moses. This is a shadow of the suffering symbol that has become
Jesus on the cross. 2) Is healing actually and only possible through
intercessory prayer of 'the elders?' Or can healing of Chritians
take place for other reasons? *Yes it is actually possible but only
as a means of God's grace being displayed through the work of prayer.
It is the same as evangelism being God's means of bringing His children
to Him. But no this is obviously not the only method in which Christians
may be healed. I believe that even Communion can work such a grace.
Basically I leave this up to God's sovereignty in the issue. Now
I do with this question get a hint of an allusion to something else.
Forgive me if I am wrong. I do believe that God had ordained medicine
for healing as well, doctor's. Also the gift of faith which is displayed
in the healing of the woman with the bleeding who touched Jesus'
hem. This is what I believe is meant by your faith has made you
well. A) If for other reasons, what would those reasons be? *I hope
this is answered above. 3) Is God obligated to heal those for whom
'fervent prayer' by 'righteous men' is offered? *Yes and no. I would
never want to state God is obligated to do anything except that
He is obligated to doing what is in His best interest. Whether or
not healing takes place, be it from prayer or medicine is always
in God's sovereign hand. A) If so, is He obligated because of a
prior decision He has made to heal always and completely through
this method? *In the sense of yes I offer Deut. 28. I can expound
on this if need be. But to save space I will leave that to the reader
for now. B) If so, is God obligated by
the action of the prayer to heal the person
in question? *Once again I think this is best answered by Deut.
28 4) Is it safe and advisable to build a doctrine on one passage
of Scripture? No. But I hope that I have given some other examples
of scripture that seem to be in agreement with James 5. I think
the answers to these questions may help us to explore the situation
of healing in some greater depth, with a better focus. *I appreciate
your laying out some questions. I can at times have difficulty expressing
exactly what I am saying. This has helped. I would like to add that
I am in agreement with a relationship between sin and sickness that
goes beyond the general fall of man. I believe that some examples
have been cited already, ie. David's sin with Bathsheba. In Him,
kevin sdg
Subject: Thanks for answering. From: Rod To: kevin Date Posted: Wed, Feb 23, 2000 at 16:31:25 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: I appreciate your time and effort. :>) There's
a great deal here which can't be dealt with in a forum like this,
where space and attention spans are limited, but I'd like to target
some specific points for examination and hopeful resolution of differences.
I would like to have had more explanation of what your reference
to Dt. 28 means. Well-being and prosperity is 'obedience based,'
that is, predicated on works, works of man, which the law of Moses
requires, according to the introductory remarks of that chapter,
specifically verses 1-2. Without elaboration on your part, it seems
necessary to conclude at this point that you believe that God is
dealing with Christians in exactly the same way He dealt with Israel.
If so, I would point out to you that Israel failed, inevitably;
it was in God's plan that she fail and that no man can keep the
law. For that reason, after demonstrating the helplessness of man,
God sent His Son to keep the law for us, bringing about the rest
(spiritual rest) of the salvation of the Lord Jesus. Compare Matt.
11:28-30, Acts 15:7-11 and Rom. 8:2-3. That, seemingly, by extention
of your presentation above, means that we Christians are eligible
for the exact promises of the OT for Israel, including Dt. 28. Such
a conclusion seems to me to carry with it an enormous difficulty.
Beginning in verse 15, a specific set of things which bring curses
are outlined for that nation. Verses 36 and 37 seem particularly
irreconcilable to your position, since the Church isn't a national
entity, as portrayed here, having no earthly, sinful king and since
real Christians can never worship idols, having turned away from
false gods by the action of turning to the living God: 'For they themselves show of us what
manner of entering in we had unto you, and how ye turned to God
from idols, to serve the living and true God' (1 Thes. 1:9). Acceptance
of these conditional belssings and application of them literally
to te Church would mean accepting all the provisions of that chapter,
including the punishments (see verses 27, 35) of the directive.
Review of the rest of the chapter indicates that these are specific
prophecies applying to the nation of Israel for their impending
disobedience, specifically and unmistakeably. I spent the better
part of the first three decades of my life unsaved, though I was
'churched' as a child and adolescent. Very rarely in my formative
years I would take out the one and only Bible in our house and take
a 'casual' (I'm positive the Providence of God was guiding me) look
at it, with no particular object in mind, other than curiosity.
I noticed a very baffling thing. In this chapter, the headings at
the top of the pages read 'Blessings for
the church', but declared, 'Curses for
Israel.' How can that be? Food for thought. __________________________________
Kevin, there's more I want to comment about, but this is so long,
I'll continue in this sequence immediately below.
Subject: Response continued From: Rod To: Rod Date Posted: Wed, Feb 23, 2000 at 17:44:58 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: Kevin, Here is one of the questions and your response
from your ''answers for' post: '1) Is healing of all physical disease
made possible by the Atonement (the propitiation, actually), the
Sacrifice of the Lord Jesus Christ for His people? *Yes. I base
this from Isaiah 53:5. I do believe this to be dealing with both
physical and spiritual healing. I also hold that an aspect of this
is also suported in the lifting up of the serpent on the staff by
Moses. This is a shadow of the suffering symbol that has become
Jesus on the cross.' I believe your answer contains some important
truths. Is. 53:5: 'But he was wonded for
our transgressions, bruised for our iniquities;
the chastisement for our peace was upon him, and with his stripes we are healed.' Now,
as always, as careful students of the Bible, we have to ask ourselves,
'What is the context of this verse/chapter and how does it apply?'
The context of the entire chapter is that of the vicarious substitution
of the Lord Jesus on the cross for the iniquities and transgressions
of the chosen of God. There is nothing in the context of the chapter,
which I can determine, dealing with physical healing, but spiritual
restoration: 'Yet it pleased the LORD to bruise him; he hath put
him to grief, When thou shalt make his soul an offering for sin, he shall prolong
his seed, he shall prolong his days, and the pleasure of the LORD
shall prosper in his hand. He shall see of the travail of his soul,
and shall be satisfied [the propitiation]; by his knowledge shall
my righteous servant justify many; for he shall bear their iniquities' (verses 10-11). The direction and purpose seem very
clear. Now it is true that the gospel of Matthew applies this verse
five to physical healing: 'That it might be fulfilled which was
spoken by Isaiah, the prophet, saying, He himself took our infirmities,
and bore our sicknesses' (8:17). However, we have to notice that
the exact wording of what Isaiah pronounced is changed in this pronouncement,
a prerogative of inspired writers to suit God's purpose. Compare
Ps. 40:6 with the citation of it in Heb. 10:5, where the author
makes it clear what the meaning of the Psalm was. Also note that
the verse in Matthew declares the prophecy 'fulfilled.' Granted
there are partial fulfillments, but is that so in this case? On
the basis of Scripture, it seems not. The Lord Jesus performed His
miracles of healing out of compassion, out of fulfillment of prophecy
about Himself, and to authenticate His ministry, as well as to incite
the Jewish leaders to seek His crucifixion. Look at the very next
chapter in Matthew's gospel, an indirect commentary on this prophecy
and its fulfillment. 'And, behold, they brought to him a man sick
of the palsy, lying on a bed; and Jesus, seeing their faith, said
unto the sick of the palsy, Son be of good cheer...' Now what did
He identify as the source of man's 'good cheer,' a joyous heart?
Was it healing of his disease? No, it was instead because, 'thy
sins be forgiven thee.' This man and the crowd probably didn't grasp
that fact, but the next verses reveal that is exactly the reason
the Lord Jesus performed these miracles, to underscore that fundamental
truth while demonstrating His compassion. 'And, behold, certain
of the scribes said within themselves, This man blasphemeth. And,
Jesus, knowing their thoughts, said, Why think ye evil in your hearts?
For which is easier, to say, Thy sins be forgiven thee; or to say,
Arise, and walk? But that ye may know that
the Son of man hath power on earth to forgive sins (then saith he to the sick of the palsy), Arise, take
up thy bed and go unto thine house. And he arose, and departed to
his house. But when the multitudes saw it, they
glorified God, who had given such power
unto men' (9:2-8). (A comparison of Mark 2:4-12 is in order here.)
Then again, it has to be noted what the rest of the NT says about
this verse. It is specifically noted in 1 Peter 2:24: 'Who his own
self bore our sins in his own body on the tree, that
we, being dead to sins, should live unto righteousness; by whose stripes ye were healed.' There is no view of
physical healing here. The healing is here shown as past tense,
'were.' Our spiritual infirmity and sin-sickness was dealt with
at the cross for believers, the elect. Physical healing is possible
with God for His own, but is in no sense required of Him, even by
the 'fervent prayer of a righteous man.' Paul, who declares, 'For
I am crucified with Christ,' and goes on in the same verse to say
that, 'Christ liveth in me,' was not able to heal himself by his
prayerful petition (see1 Cor. 12) and he was in the presence of
other brothers whom he didn't heal (I think his healing gift had
faded away after his ministry was established and authenticated),
including Timothy, whom he called his 'son.' It is to be assumed
that he prayed for these men; he prayed about everything else! These
facts would be particularly puzzling if all that were required for
healing was the fervent prayer of a righteous man. Surely an Apostle
is reckoned righteous by God. More food for thought.
Subject: Re: Response continued From: Pilgrim To: Rod Date Posted: Wed, Feb 23, 2000 at 20:00:57 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Rod,
Excellent response brother!. But
if I interject but a couple things here that seems to be overlooked
by those who are want to view physical healing in the atonement
of the Lord Christ. 1)Although all sickness and disease are a direct
result of Adam's sin and the requisite Fall, not all diseases, etc.
are a direct result of sin committed by the afflicted individual
(cf. Jh 9:1ff). It is sometimes, and by my own perception, more
often than not that God consigns believers to suffer physical maladies
throughout their life, for no other reason than to have them rest
more and more on His goodness and grace (cf. 2Cor. 12:9) and thus
for His own glory. From this I have concluded that to be afflicted
with a particular ailment or disease is far more a blessing than
not. This of course does not preclude one from praying unto the
Lord for healing. For it be His will to lift one out of the affliction
unto His own glory, it will surely be done. 2) This second point
is for me perhaps the most salient in rejecting 'universal healing
in the atonement.' Again, referring back to the sin of Adam and
the Fall, one of the consequences of punishment brought upon all
men through Adam's transgression was physical death. If it were
true that ALL diseases and afflictions were open to reversal through
the fervent prayers of righteous men, then of all the 'diseases'
which we are afflicted with, death being the most serious, it cannot
be disregarded as one from which man can be delivered. Why should
death be an exception to this 'rule'? Indeed, how many would not
rather pray for the recovery of one terminally ill or even one who
had already died, rather than pray for a healing from the flu or
a broken leg? I will unashamedly say that I cannot accept any of
the myriad reports of alleged 'healers' bringing one back from the
dead. I do firmly believe that such reports are fabricated to serve
the deceitful and greedy purposes of those who perpetrate such frauds.
In His Precious Blood, Pilgrim PS... I'll be quiet
now, so carry on! :-)
Subject: Thank you, Pilgrim, and these are excellent points. From: Rod To: Pilgrim Date Posted:
Wed, Feb 23, 2000 at 20:59:27 (PST) Email
Address:na
Message: I actually had your second point in mind at one point,
but forgot to make a note of it and thus forgot to mention it. As
you say, it is extremely important to recognize that death must
be entered into, unless the Lord returns first, so that we may enter
His presence, these dying bodies being subject to sin and unfit
for His company. If the Lord Jesus had meant to accomplish our physical
healing, He could have and would have done just that. His work was
for our eternal and spiritual benefit. To be physically alive and
able to be free from death would necessitate our remaining here
on earth, an earth where sin, even if we weren't personally touched
by its physical effects, works its terrible consequences on men.
To live always in such a world and state would actually make us
in a worse condition than Adam was in the Garden and keep us from
our ultimate glorification with the Lord. For the believer, death
is the gateway to a glorious future, the place when sickness and
sorrow no longer prevail or even exist. _________________________
It's interesting that you should mention this in your first evidence:
'It is sometimes, and by my own perception, more often than not
that God consigns believers to suffer physical maladies throughout
their life, for no other reason than to have them rest more and
more on His goodness and grace (cf. 2Cor. 12:9) and thus for His
own glory. From this I have concluded that to be afflicted with
a particular ailment or disease is far more a blessing than not.
This of course does not preclude one from praying unto the Lord
for healing. For it be His will to lift one out of the affliction
unto His own glory, it will surely be done.' This is my own conviction.
Just this morning I read Ps. 107 and noticed this: 'Oh that men
would praise the LORD for his goodness, and for his wonderful works
to the children of men' (verses 8, 15, 21, 31) and the Psalmist
concludes this after such verses as 19: 'Then [when they are in
danger of death and sorely afraid] they cry unto the LORD in their
trouble, and he saveth them out of their distresses.' As you say,
we are such perverse creatures that praising the Lord God is not
our priority, but He sends affliction so that He may cause us to
praise and glorify Him, leaning on His strength to His glory. His
strength is certainly 'made perfect in [our] weakness,' the reason
Paul says just previously, 'of such an one will I glory; yet of
myself I will not glory, but in mine infirmities' (I Cor. 12:5,
9). I praise God for your wonderful spirit and for the marvelous
grace with which He has gifted you.
Subject: Re: Thank you, Pilgrim, and these are excellent points.
From: kevin
To: Rod
and Pilgrim Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 24, 2000 at 04:05:24 (PST) Email Address:amoshart@earthlink.net
Message:
Rod and Pilgrim, Thank you for your honest and helpful replies.
I believe I mentioned in my initial posting, if not I will now,
that I am seeking advice on the issue of James 5:15. I have not
fully hashed out my views on the issue as of yet and your replies
give me more perspective on the issue. I would like to reply to
one instance in the postings. I seeemed to have misunderstood Rod's
question on healing and the Atonement as well as the fervent prayer
of a righteous man. I hope I can clarify because I do not believe
that we are in disagreement on the issues. Basically, and forgive
me if this only muddles the whole thing, had there been no atonement
then there would be no healing available in Jesus' name. Follow
my logic please: no death of Jesus Christ, no acts of the apostles,
no healing of the lame man, no missionary work of Paul, etc. Only
in that since does the Atonement make healing possible. I hope this
is coming out correctly. If not then let's say that I do agree with
you. Secondly, God is not bound by the prayers of the righteous
man. Since God wants what is best for us, Himself, and since all
things work to the benefit of those who love Him who are called
according to His purpose, then the fervent prayers of a righteous
man can be the means of the grace of healing. I emphasise can. I
agree that due to our old man still hanging around with us that
God uses sickness to make us rely on Him more strongly. I believe
that Spurgeon stated that that was the sad case of the believer.
I hope this helps. In Him, kevin sdg
Subject: The Atonement From: Rod To: kevin Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 24, 2000 at 08:46:14 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: Kevin, I for one am more confused. In relation to
the Atonement you wrote this: '...had there been no atonement then
there would be no healing available in Jesus' name. Follow my logic
please: no death of Jesus Christ, no acts of the apostles, no healing
of the lame man, no missionary work of Paul, etc. Only in that since
does the Atonement make healing possible.' Actually, Kevin, this
is true, but seems to overlook the larger sense of the Atonement,
that its purpose was to effect the overall, and ultimate, state
of man, so that true 'healing' of the whole person, his well-being
insured by association with the Savior in His glory could be enabled
and guaranteed. In this connection, it's interesting to consider
the words of Rev. 22:2. Concerning the eventual destination's description,
it says, 'In the midst of the street of it, and on either side of
the river, was there the tree of life, which bore twelve kinds of
fruits, and yielded her fruit every month; and the leaves of the
tree were for the healing of the nations.' Everything the Lord God
does is directed toward that end, including the sovereign choice
of physically healing now whom He will for His own purposes.
Subject: Re: The Atonement From: kevin To: Rod Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 24, 2000 at 10:37:02 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Rod, I think I am not communicating my point properly. I agree with
your post completely. All things point towards the end mentioned
in Revelations. I am afraid that I must just state that I do agree
with you. I do not believe there is any obligation from God for
our healing. I do believe that the spiritual is far more important,
but does not by necessity cancel out, than the physical healing.
Physical healing is utterly useless without spiritual healing. I
believe this is Jesus' point when He forgave the lame man then He
healed him. This is not the case for all. Some of us must suffer
no physical healing even though we receive spiritual healing (salvation).
Does this make more sense? Healing is a work made possible by what
God has done for us in Jesus Christ on the cross. The primary work
is salvation of His children. A secondary and much lesser work is
healing. I apologize for muddling up the issue with my last post.
And if I have done so again then please bear in mind that I am in
100% agreement with your previous posting. In Him, kevin sdg
Subject: I hope we are in essential agreement! From: Rod To: kevin Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 24,
2000 at 13:00:26 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: Kevin, I'm sincerely glad we're in agreement! :>)
Let me explain my confusion. I am confused by your agreement with
my posts because you stated this in your opening post on James:
'I do believe that all of the gifts of the Spirit can be experienced
today.' You went on to state that you weren't referring to the gift
of healing in that thread, but it seems inevitably tied to the issue,
the reason I started a separate thread on the issue of healing in
general, according to Biblical pronouncements. It would seem that,
if we're in agreement, and I have stated that the gift of healing
isn't in operation today, you are in agreement with that. Would
that be an accurate statement? I'm not trying to frustrate you.
I'm seeking truth and resolution in this matter. :>)
Subject: Re: I hope we are in essential agreement! From: kevin To: Rod Date Posted: Fri, Feb 25,
2000 at 04:46:27 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Rod, It does seem that we are essentially in agreement.
In answer to your question on the gift of healing I would say yes
I do believe the gift exists today. Have I witnessed it? No. Have
I heard well documented accounts of it? Not to my knowledge. I guess
you could say that in one sense I would not want to say that there
is something God won't do without there being convincing evidence
in the scriptures for me. I haven't scrolled all the way down yet
but I deal with this in my reply to Pilgrim. In Him, kevin sdg
Subject: Enoch NOT from Cain From: laz To: all Date Posted: Tues, Feb 22, 2000 at 18:43:58 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
I stumbled upon this webpage(OK, ignore the dates)....compared with
my Bible and while Enoch, Lamech, Cainan,Enosh...and other names
are repeated and/or sound similar....Seth's seed produced THE Enoch who walked with
God...(Gen 5:24). Glad that's solved... laz p.s. for all who don't
use 'dogpile.com', I typed in 'Enoch descendent' and the first hit
and only relevant hit was that solitary webpage with the geneologies
of Adam... love that dogpile. ;-) Where Enoch Came From www.geocities.com/Athens/Aegean/2444/Adam.htm
Subject: Defying the written Word and logic From: Rod To: All Date Posted: Tues, Feb 22, 2000 at 12:12:49 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: To all: I'm sorry if I'm overworking Romans (I actually
think it's impossible to do!), but the fact is that the Lord God
goes to great lengths in that epistle to prove that man has declined
progressively and tragically from the incident of the first sin,
because he is, inherently, a sinner at his core, the enemy of God.
God has His Apostle spend a lot of time documenting this in 1:18-3:20,
saying in 3:9 that everyone in the whole world of Jews and Gentiles
is 'under sin.' That means that they are sinners and that they are
under the penalty of sin, a death sentence. Spiritual death, resulting
in physical death, is the penalty. Therefore, the Apostle uses the
strongest terms in the verses immediately following to declare the
hopelessness of man to help himself. The words, 'none,' and, 'no,
not one' leave no doubt that this is an all-inclusive situation
and that the entire population of the earth is in view, every person,
every type of person, 'both Jews and Greeks.' Yet there are countless
numbers in 'Christendom' who fly in the face of God's pronouncements
and declare that, though He says, 'there is none that seeketh after
God,' some men, somehow, in their own dead natures, which are bound
to sin, do seek Him. That would be a great mystery! As every 'sovereign
gracer' realizes, this is placing man in the superior postion, relegating
the Creator and Sovereign God to a position of utter dependence
on lost men to honor His Son. That is unthinkable! Though it mightily
angers those who hold this position, this is nothing but pride and
arrogance on the part of man (realized or not). Not understanding
God and His ways, man wants to 'cast the deciding vote,' cooperating
with (actually dictating to) God in salvation by first acquiring
faith which demands God's grace, contrary to the express teaching
of the Word that faith is born of God's grace due to the prior regeneration
of the lost person. If it is the Christian's duty and desire to
honor God, then he must look at the two scenarios presented and
ask himself, 'Which glorifies God, the one which presents Him as
a weakling, at the whim and mercy of man's desires (sinful man!),
or the one which presents Him as a just and merciful Sovereign,
One who rescues the otherwise unredeemable?
Subject: Please show me! Showme! From: Joel H To: All Date Posted: Tues, Feb 22, 2000 at 12:06:04 (PST) Email Address:jh6@muw.edu
Message: Why have you
so carefully ignored Pilgrim's challenge to present a BIBLICAL defense
of your position? You have BOLDLY claimed that the doctrine of total
inability is contradictory to Scripture, yet you seem COWARDLY when
asked to bring the Bible to your defense. If reformed theology is
in open contradiction to Scripture, then it should be relatively
easy to show. Have you no Scripture to prove your point? Sola SCRIPTURA
Joel H
Subject: James 5:13-18 From: kevin To: All Date Posted: Mon, Feb 21, 2000 at 19:58:32 (PST) Email Address:amoshart@earthlink.net
Message:
I will first let you know that I am Calvinistic in my theology and
I do believe that all of the gifts of the Spirit can be experienced
today. However, that is not the issue I wish addressed. In the fifth
chapter of James he tells us of the elders anointing the sick with
oil and praying for them. Are there any Reformed Churches that practice
this? I must say that it has been my experience (therefore it is
fallible and not the rule) that most people who hold to the Reformed
faith do not practice a faith in a Jesus Christ Who is capable of
reversing illnesses, especially those deemed incurable by medicine.
I am not espousing any view of the Faith movement here. Please keep
that in mind. I do however believe that God answers prayer (James
5:16). I also believe that as believers in covenant with others
in a church that I should pray for their healing as well as their
spiritual growth in their knowledge of Jesus Christ. I also find
no difficulty with expecting God to answer a prayer in the sense
of when the answer does arrive I should not be surprised that God
answered it. Now I know there are those who believe this view to
be offbase with Calvinism and that may be, but in light in James
chapter 5 and Jesus' earthly ministry and the ministry of the Apostles
and other disciples recorded in Acts is it not biblical? I am not
seeking to throw a wrench into any cog here on this posting board.
I simply desire sincere responses based in scripture. All replies
will be appreciated. In Him, kevin sdg
Subject: Re: James 5:13-18 From: stan To: kevin Date Posted: Tues, Feb 22, 2000 at 20:40:12 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Spose we might need to include the SIN of verse 15 in the discussion.
Since the text mentions it it must relate.
Subject: amen! n/t From: Rod To: stan Date Posted: Wed, Feb 23, 2000 at 05:30:49 (PST) Email Address:na
Message:
Subject: Re: James 5:13-18 From: laz To: kevin Date Posted: Tues, Feb 22, 2000 at 08:17:42 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Good question. How is this oil applied? What kind of oil is it?
How long do we leave it on? Inquiring minds sincerely want to know.
blessings, laz
Subject: Re: James 5:13-18 From: kevin To: laz Date Posted: Tues, Feb 22, 2000 at 19:04:49 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
The type of oil is cooking oil if the individual is reprobate. Okay
bad joke but hey I started this thread so hopefully I am the only
one offended by it. It there are others I apologise. Seriously that
is a good question on what type of oil. One could assume olive oil
as a symbol of Christ's blood since He is the Olive Vine and we
are the branches grafted on. Maybe hyssop, myrrh. I think a little
delving into the Jewish custom of annointing with oil is called
for. But regardless of the type of oil or time of application would
not James' statement be a type of command? I am not saying that
there is healing in the action. All healing is up to the sovereignty
of God. Maybe (I could be barbecued for this maybe) it is quasi-sacramental.
You know, how baptism is a sign and a seal of our salvation maybe
the laying on of hands and the annointing of oil is a means of grace
toward healing. Now this is just a maybe and I am seriously accepting
opinions here since that is all mine is. In Him, kevin sdg
Subject: Re: James 5:13-18 From: Tom To: kevin Date Posted: Tues, Feb 22, 2000 at 01:16:12 (PST) Email Address:ahardy@rapidnet.net
Message:
Kevin Just an observation. Praying for someone that they might recieve
healing and having the gift of healing are two different things.
All Christian's can pray or someone's healing, but not all have
the gift of healing. Tom
Subject: Re: James 5:13-18 From: kevin To: Tom Date Posted: Tues, Feb 22, 2000 at 05:42:07 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Tom I agree. I hope that my post did not come across that way. That
is not what I believe. Thank you for your reply In Him, kevin sdg
Subject: Re: James 5:13-18 From: john hampshire To: all Date Posted: Tues, Feb 22, 2000 at 22:10:10 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Hmmm, what does that verse say again? Pour oil on the sick and they
will be healed of diseases? No? Let's see, I notice in James 5:1,
taken literally as we MUST do, we find that the rich will have their
riches rot and their clothes moth-eaten. That's bad news. But even
worse, somehow their gold and silver riches will rust, oh no, oxidized
gold. Worse yet, somehow the rust will eat the rich peoples flesh.
An obvious reference to a flesh-eating virus no doubt. OK, enough
with literal interpretations. The primary message of the Bible is
salvation. The healing God is speaking of is spiritual healing,
and the sickness God sees that leads to death is a spiritual sickness
that leads the soul to eternal death. Are any in the church spiritually
sick? Yes, then call the spiritual leaders of the church to pray
that God might save that one. Let the leaders anoint with oil, a
picture of ordaining a king, or priest to carry out their kingly
or priestly duties, and a picture of God the Holy Spirit. What does
the Holy Spirit's healing of a sick soul relate to, none other than
regeneration. The result of the ministering to the sick in the congregation
is that God might 'save the sick' and then on the last day God will
'raise them up' to life, only possible because, in Christ, all their
transgressions 'will be forgiven'. Notice the reference to Elijah
and rain. Drought is used to signify spiritually a lack of truth,
a lack of life giving water. Just as Elijah was used by God to cut
off rain and God's salvation, so too God can use the prayers of
men to work out the salvation of His elect and 'yield its harvest'
at the appropriate time. As the last verse in Chapter 5 says, if
a believer by his spiritual attending to the needs of the sick (witnessing)
and through the witness of the truth brings back a sinner from wandering
the path that leads to death, the sinner may indeed be enlightened
by the truth (assuming God has opened the sinner’s eyes, a result
of regeneration), thus the believer nurtures that life given by
God, a life which Christ has already 'covered a multitude of sins'
thereby redeeming that sinner's soul from the second death, the
lake of fire. James is speaking consistently about salvation, about
the wicked repenting, about fleeing evil, coming humble and contritely
before God who will heal. It has absolutely nothing whatsoever to
do with physical healing of some disease by pouring oil on sick
people. I write this for myself, just to say I did. Thanks. john
Subject: Re: James 5:13-18 From: a monitor To: john hampshire Date Posted: Wed, Feb 23, 2000 at 08:01:23 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Hmmm, what does that verse say again? Pour oil on the sick and they
will be healed of diseases? No? Let's see, I notice in James 5:1,
taken literally as we MUST do, we find that the rich will have their
riches rot and their clothes moth-eaten. That's bad news. But even
worse, somehow their gold and silver riches will rust, oh no, oxidized
gold. Worse yet, somehow the rust will eat the rich peoples flesh.
An obvious reference to a flesh-eating virus no doubt. OK, enough
with literal interpretations. The primary message of the Bible is
salvation. The healing God is speaking of is spiritual healing,
and the sickness God sees that leads to death is a spiritual sickness
that leads the soul to eternal death. Are any in the church spiritually
sick? Yes, then call the spiritual leaders of the church to pray
that God might save that one. Let the leaders anoint with oil, a
picture of ordaining a king, or priest to carry out their kingly
or priestly duties, and a picture of God the Holy Spirit. What does
the Holy Spirit's healing of a sick soul relate to, none other than
regeneration. The result of the ministering to the sick in the congregation
is that God might 'save the sick' and then on the last day God will
'raise them up' to life, only possible because, in Christ, all their
transgressions 'will be forgiven'. Notice the reference to Elijah
and rain. Drought is used to signify spiritually a lack of truth,
a lack of life giving water. Just as Elijah was used by God to cut
off rain and God's salvation, so too God can use the prayers of
men to work out the salvation of His elect and 'yield its harvest'
at the appropriate time. As the last verse in Chapter 5 says, if
a believer by his spiritual attending to the needs of the sick (witnessing)
and through the witness of the truth brings back a sinner from wandering
the path that leads to death, the sinner may indeed be enlightened
by the truth (assuming God has opened the sinner’s eyes, a result
of regeneration), thus the believer nurtures that life given by
God, a life which Christ has already 'covered a multitude of sins'
thereby redeeming that sinner's soul from the second death, the
lake of fire. James is speaking consistently about salvation, about
the wicked repenting, about fleeing evil, coming humble and contritely
before God who will heal. It has absolutely nothing whatsoever to
do with physical healing of some disease by pouring oil on sick
people. I write this for myself, just to say I did. Thanks. john
--- Unfortunately for you, you have not paid attention
to everyone in this forum who has made a credible contribution to
you regarding 'literal interpretation.' How you represent James
5:1 is NOT a literal interpretation, that is a wooden headed letterist
interpretation which does not allow for figurative language in any
respect. Literal interpretation INCLUDES the use of figures and
symbols within a section when they are obvious, as in James 5:1.
It is not so obvious in 13-18, regarding the oil and laying on of
hands. Kevin has a point in that your interpretation is highly due
to your pre-conceived notion that there is no such thing as literal
interpretation in the Bible. a monitor
Subject: a monitor: exactly! Thanks. n/t From: Rod To: a monitor Date Posted: Wed, Feb 23, 2000 at 08:35:36 (PST) Email Address:na
Message:
Subject: Re: James 5:13-18 From: kevin To: john hampshire Date Posted: Wed, Feb 23, 2000 at 05:04:54 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
John, Thank you for your reply. I do find difficulty with your exegesis
of the chapter however. Please take no offense since none is intended
but is it possible that you are interpreting this passage in light
of preconceived prejudices? I am merely asking. I understand the
concept of James possibly speaking in parable form. But is there
any scriptural proof of that? In Him, kevin sdg
Subject: Re: James 5:13-18 From: laz To: kevin Date Posted: Wed, Feb 23, 2000 at 07:30:23 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Kevin/John - verse 15 says 'if he have committed sins' which suggests that the annointing
is NOT primarily about sin/salvation ... but about physical healing
as the plain reading of this text seems to warrant. my 2 cents.
laz
Subject: 'if' From: Rod To: laz Date Posted: Wed, Feb 23, 2000 at 09:09:54 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: laz, The 'if' here is not conditional. It is certain
that he has committed sins. All of us have and do. Also, we know
from other sections of the Holy Word that God forgives our sins,
both in our initial salvation and in our continuing personal sanctification,
as 1 John 1:5-2:2 demonstrates. Compare the use of the word 'if'
in 1 John 2:1. This is a prayer of faith in God, offered both by
the man who came, in faith, to the elders and by the faithful elders
themselves. God always honors that request (implied, but certain)
for the forgiveness of the man's sins, because He is 'faithful and
just...cleans[ing] us from all unrighteousness,' and keeping us
cleansed. God will always honor such a prayer. Also, in this passage
in James, it's important to note that, though God cleanses and forgives,
honoring the request for restoration of right conditions between
the creature and his Lord, that doesn't mean there won't be consequences
in proportion to our sins. David sinned terribly in the matter of
Bathsheba and her husband, but, though he was forgiven (Ps. 51),
the child died and, 'Now, therefore, the sword shall vever depart
from thine house, because thou hast despised me...(2 Sam.12:10,
see though verse 23). David's immediate and proper response was,
'I have sinned against the LORD. And Nathan said unto David, The
LORD hath also hath put away thy sin; thou shalt not die' (verse
13), but notice verse 15: 'And Nathan departed unto his house. And
the LORD struck the child...and it was very sick.' Succeeding verses
explain that David prayed for the child, trusting the mercy and
also the justice of the Lord. But the child died, part of David's
punishment and sorrow. David's sin, by the testimony of the prophet,
had been 'put away,' but the punishment and consequences were still
realized. Scripture remains its own best commentary.
Subject: A thought occured to me From: Tom To: Rod Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 24, 2000 at 01:00:59 (PST) Email Address:ahardy@rapidnet.net
Message:
A thought occured to me about the subject of healing. As I read
in the book of Acts about the apostles healing the sick and lame.
It would seem to me that this was the gift of healing manifested.
For instance, (sorry I don't have the scripture referrence handy)
a lame begger asked the disciples, for some money. Their responce
was something to the effect of, 'silver and gold have I nun, but
such as I have give I thee, in the name of Jesus Christ of Nazareth
rise up and walk'. The signifacance of this, to me is that they
didn't stop and pray for the healing of this man. They proclaimed
it so, in the Name of Jesus Christ. This was obviously the gift
of healing in action. How many today, have you heard about, that
have been used in this gift this way? Tom
Subject: You are correct, brother Tom. From: Rod To: Tom Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 24, 2000 at 08:59:07 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: This has been touched on briefly here somewhere.
I think it was laz who pointed out that there is a difference between
the gift of healing, and being healed without outside intervention,
except possibly additional prayer from someone else. Those who believe
the 'gift of healing' exists and is practiced for today, don't believe
in the actual gift of healing, as was practiced in this case (so
that the gospel could go out with great effect), but concentrate
on the 'event' itself, making that the goal and focus and not the
glory of the Lord Jesus. It can be described as, 'healing on demand.'
Subject: small point on gifts From: kevin To: Rod Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 24, 2000 at 10:46:55 (PST) Email Address:amoshart@earthlink.net
Message:
Rod, You posted the statement below. 'Those who believe the 'gift
of healing' exists and is practiced for today, don't believe in
the actual gift of healing, as was practiced in this case (so that
the gospel could go out with great effect), but concentrate on the
'event' itself, making that the goal and focus and not the glory
of the Lord Jesus. It can be described as, 'healing on demand.''
I agree that is a popular view of the 'gift of healing.' However,
I believe that the gift of healing is still in existence today.
Now I am aware of the influence of B.B. Warfield in the Calvinist
school of thought on this and of some theologians opinions on what
John Owen may have believed. I personally find no proof in scripture
for the cesation of any of the gifts of the Spirit. Since the Holy
Spirit's primary function is to point to Jesus Christ so are the
gifts. It is sad that there are those who capitalise on conterfiet
miracles. No one can put up a sign that states 'healings this Sunday.'
That is not the healings in the ministry of Jesus nor as recorded
in the book of the acts of the apostles. All these healings were
spontaneous and not done until the Holy Spirit gave the individual
the authority to minister that particular gift. Paul himself had
to wait to cast the demon out of the slave girl. To sum up, all
of the gifts of the Spirit are under the subjection of the soveriegnty
of the Holy Spirit and should always point towards Christ. They
are in no means and end unto themselves but, at best, a begining.
In Him, kevin sdg
Subject: a couple of other significant points From: Rod To: kevin Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 24,
2000 at 13:13:32 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: Kevin, I should say, that though I am an ardent,
'sovereign gracer,' those who claim to be 'true Calvinists' don't
fully accept me into their circle, though many acknowledge me as
a brother in Christ, as I do them. :>) Neither do I claim 'Calvinism'
or any other label specifically for myself. Also, I have offered,
though not in great detail, Biblical evidence for the cessation
of the gift of healing in the thread above on healing, which I started
to explore the whole subject. You haven't responded to or acknowledged
that, as my most recent post there shows. I have not read Warfield
and I'm not a theologian, merely a student and lover of the Word
of God, the way to the God of the Word through His Son.
Subject: Re: small point on gifts From: Pilgrim To: kevin Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 24, 2000 at 12:23:41 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Kevin, Sorry, but I hold firmly to Weak Cessationism, but it wasn't
Warfield or Owen (who is one of my favourite Puritan writers), nor
any other writer who influenced my thinking on this. It was the
reading of Scripture, which I do believe teaches the cessation of
ALL the miraculous gifts which God gave to the infant N.T. church.
However, there IS at least one writer today (among several others)
who is worthy of giving a precise, profound and cogent defense of
the historic and Reformed position of the cessation of the gifts.
And that man would be Dr. Richard Gaffin in his first book on the
subject, Perspectives on Pentecost. I believe his biblical exegesis is incontrovertible.
:-) In His Precious Blood, Pilgrim
Subject: thank you From: kevin To: Pilgrim Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 24, 2000 at 12:43:29 (PST) Email Address:amoshart@earthlink.net
Message:
Pilgrim, Thank you for your reply. I too am a fan, if you will,
of the writings of John Owen. Like you I base my view on the existence
of the gifts from the scriptures. The difference is that I find
that scripture does not state that the gifts have ceased. It does
state that they will cease but I do not find the evidence of Corinthians
as to have happened yet (the issue of when the perfect comes). I
have seen and thumbed through Dr. Gaffin's 'Perspectives on Pentecost.'
Admittedly I have not given it a good read, but since there is a
recommendation on it I shall. A strong defense for the continuation
of the gifts is put forth by D. Martyn Lloyd-Jones in the collection
of his sermons titled 'Baptism and Gifts of the Spirit.' It is edited
by his grandson. Lloyd-Jones was a cessationist at one time, this
is evident in his sermon series on the Holy Spirit (also available
and edited by his daughters). However, Ian Murray deals with Lloyd-Jones'
change of opinion in his biography as does Christopher Catherwood
(the grandson) in his biography. I mention these because it is interesting
to note how an individual comes to change their view. In Him, kevin
sdg PS is weak cessationism the view that some of the gifts are
still in existance or the view that the gifts are with-held and
resurge according to the timing and soveriegnty of God? I believe
it is that latter that some think Owen professed to believing.
Subject: Re: thank you From: Pilgrim To: kevin Date Posted: Fri, Feb 25, 2000 at 07:57:37 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
kevin,
I have read all the references
to Dr. Martyn Lloyd-Jones you mentioned. :-) And after considering
his presentations I must find him in error on this point. Ian Murray
does indeed bring up some salient issues which refute the late and
godly Lloyd-Jones' view. Murray's latest offering, Pentecost
Today? is quite good and should be read.
:-) Surely men may change their mind, and I hope that this is to
be seen as a good thing when one goes from an unbiblical view to
a biblical one. However, it seems that especially in our day, there
is far more of a movement from the biblical to the unbiblical (which
I accredit to the prophetical fulfillment of the 'end times'), e.g.,
Clark Pinnock, Craig Lane, John Reisinger, et al. I think that you
will find Gaffin's argument inefficacious if you are already convinced
in mind that the ecstatic gifts are still extant today. However,
if you are truly 'seeking' for an answer to this issue, Gaffin's
book can go a long way to helping reach that answer. Dr. O. Palmer
Robertson's little work, The Final Word is also worthy of your time to read. Lastly, in regards
to the definition of 'Weak Cessationism', it is neither of those
which you have mentioned. 'Weak Cessationism' holds that ALL the
ecstatic gifts were ended at the close of the Apostolic era. But
miracles are that which God alone brings about according to His
eternal purpose and counsel for His own glory and the temporal good
of men. Therefore they are and still occur, albeit rarely. The supernatural
is inherent in God and therefore it never can cease. :-) But the
'gifts' which the first century and infant church experienced were
designed and purposed of God for a specific reason; to accomplish
the establishment of the N.T. universal church, after which, when
those who were appointed for this task, i.e., the 'prophets and
apostles' (Eph 2:20) who laid the foundation, they ceased, having
accomplished that which God ordained.
In His Precious Blood, Pilgrim
Subject: Re: thank you From: kevin To: Pilgrim and Rod Date Posted: Fri, Feb 25, 2000 at 14:57:58 (PST) Email Address:amoshart@earthlink.net
Message:
Rod and Pilgrim, I am going to save myself a little time and post
to both of you together. I sincerely appreciate your time and patience
in the issue, especially since we did get a little off the original
subject of James 5:15. But that is to be expected when dealing with
theological issues. Scripture is not a take a piece here, take a
piece there kind of book. And for the most part neither is what
we believe. Faith fills in our blanks when the Holy Spirit has yet
to enlighted an aspect of God's word for us (I am not talking about
new revelation but just the basic revelation where you are reading
along in scripture and for the first time a particular passage makes
more sense than it ever did before or there is a sense of conviction
from any given verse or verses. ie. when Peter quotes 'be holy as
I am holy' that just really convicted me one day, and I had been
a believer for 7 years, but I digress) Anyway thank you for the
time and patience once again. I do plan on seeking out those sources
you mentioned Pilgrim. I am mostly convinced on the existance of
all the gifts today. I guess you could say that I am using as much
discernment as the Holy Spirit is giving me. Rod, you had mentioned
that I did not address certain issues you mentioned. I apologise
for I was not aware of which ones. It is so easy to get sidetracked
in these posting boards. If you would like to better know my stance
please feel free to repost any of them or email me. I, personally,
have received enough information for now on many issues that I would
like to absorb and pray about. But you will probably see me in other
postings. In Him, kevin sdg PS I am curious as to what you two thought
of my post on the Timothy passage. It was typed while I was at work
and is rather lengthy. But I would like some constructive criticism
on it if you have the time.
Subject: post by kevin titled Re: thank you for Rod and Pilgrim
From: kevin
To: kevin
Date Posted:
Fri, Feb 25, 2000 at 15:21:41 (PST) Email
Address:Not Provided
Message: sorry guys it
didn't show up on the screen as I had hoped
Subject: Re: A thought occured to me From: kevin To: Tom Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 24, 2000 at 03:47:46 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Tom, That is correct. I do not believe James to be dealing with
the gift of healing. There is a difference between the gift of healing
and God healing individuals through other means. In Him, kevin sdg
Subject: Re: 'if' From: laz To: Rod Date Posted: Wed, Feb 23, 2000 at 11:00:58 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Rod - but what is your take on John's post saying that James 5 is
about spiritual healing only? ' I was trying to show that the annointing
was for physical infirmity for it's clear that everyone sin..but
not all commit those sins that are particularly aggregious as to
warrant open repentence or sanctions. The 'sin' mentioned could
be of the severity to disqualify them from the communion table...or
even disfellowship. Of course we all sin all the time...but not
all sins are dealt with alike. I don't need the elders of my church
paying me a visit just because I lose my temper at home over the
dog puking on the carpet. ;-) I think that a person seeking physical
healing with a known sin problem (one of the type and severity mentioned
above..cheating on his wife for instance) is going to have a problem
getting heard by God. No? As Kevin alluded, if this special annointing
is another means of grace...like all means of grace...we must come
with a repentent heart and ready to deal on God's terms. Did I miss
something? laz
Subject: Re: 'if' From: Rod To: laz Date Posted: Wed, Feb 23, 2000 at 11:35:02 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: laz, 'Rod - but what is your take on John's post
saying that James 5 is about spiritual healing only?' See a monitor's
and Stan's posts above. The context of the passage is that this
is a praticularly severe illness, possibly and likely brought on
by sin. The person's coming to the elders in faith and repentance
seems to be in view, which would invite and necessitate a restoration
to proper standing in the local assembly. It is probably adviseable
to consider 1 Cor. 5:1-5 in relation to this section of James: '...to
deliver such an one to Satan for the destruction of the flesh, that
the spirit may be saved in the day of the Lord Jesus' (verse 5).
(It may be that 2 Cor. 2:1-11 bears on this situation.) Your statement:
'Kevin/John - verse 15 says 'if he have committed sins' which suggests
that the annointing is NOT primarily about sin/salvation ...but
about physical healing as the plain reading of this text seems to
warrant,' signified to me that you didn't think sin was involved.
I truly don't want to misread you and misunderstand, but this is
my impression from your posts.
Subject: Re: 'if' From: laz To: Rod Date Posted: Wed, Feb 23, 2000 at 14:26:02 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
hmmm, i think i see your point. I thought sin was a secondary matter....physical
illness being primary. But anyway...i agree with your above post.
laz
Subject: Calvinist's view of sanctification From: E.V. To: All Date Posted: Mon, Feb 21, 2000 at 18:11:15 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Looking for opinions here, what is the 'traditional' Calvinist view
of sanctification, is it synergistic or monergistic? In Christ,
E.V.
Subject: Re: Calvinist's view of sanctification From: Prestor John To: E.V. Date Posted: Mon, Feb 21,
2000 at 22:21:41 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Synergistic: The Belgic Confession of Faith, Article
XXIV Man's Sanctification and Good Works We believe that this true
faith, being wrought in man by the hearing of the Word of God and
the operation of the Holy Spirit, sanctifies [1] him and makes him
a new man, causing him to live a new life, and freeing him from
the bondage of sin. Therefore it is so far from being true that
this justifying faith makes men remiss in a pious and holy life,
that on the contrary without it they would never do anything out
of love to God, but only out of self-love or fear of damnation.
Therefore it is impossible that this holy faith can be unfruitful
in man; for we do not speak of a vain faith, but of such a faith
which is called in Scripture a faith working through love, which
excites man to the practice of those works which God has commanded
in His Word. These works, as they proceed from the good root of
faith, are good and acceptable in the sight of God, forasmuch as
they are all sanctified by His grace. Nevertheless they are of no
account towards our justification, for it is by faith in Christ
that we are justified, even before we do good works; otherwise they
could not be good works, any more than the fruit of a tree can be
good before the tree itself is good. Therefore we do good works,
but not to merit by them (for what can we merit?); nay, we are indebted
to God for the good works we do, and not He to us, since it is He
who worketh in us both to will and to work, for his good pleasure.
Let us therefore attend to what is written: When ye shall have done
all the things that are commanded you, say, We are unprofitable
servants; we have done that which it was our duty to do. In the
meantime we do not deny that God rewards good works, but it is through
His grace that He crowns His gifts. Moreover, though we do good
works, we do not found our salvation upon them; for we can do no
work but what is polluted by our flesh, and also punishable; and
although we could perform such works, still the remembrance of one
sin is sufficient to make God reject them. Thus, then, we would
always be in doubt, tossed to and fro without any certainty, and
our poor consciences would be continually vexed if they relied not
on the merits of the suffering and death of our Savior. The Larger
Catechism, Questions 75 Q75: What is sanctification? A75: Sanctification
is a work of God's grace, whereby they whom God hath, before the
foundation of the world, chosen to be holy, are in time, through
the powerful operation of his Spirit [1] applying the death and
resurrection of Christ unto them,[2] renewed in their whole man
after the image of God;[3] having the seeds of repentance unto life,
and all other saving graces, put into their hearts,[4] and those
graces so stirred up, increased, and strengthened,[5] as that they
more and more die unto sin, and rise unto newness of life.[6] 1.
Eph. 1:4; I Cor. 6:11; II Thess. 2:13 2. Rom. 6:4-6 3. Eph. 4:23-24
4. Acts 11:18; I John 3:9 5. Jude 1:20; Heb. 6:11-12; Eph. 3:16-19;
Col. 1:10-11 6. Rom. 6:4; 6:14; Gal. 5:24 The London Confession
of Baptist Faith, Chapter XIII Of Sanctification I. They who are
united to Christ, effectually called, and regenerated, having a
new heart and a new spirit created in them through the virtue of
Christ's death and resurrection, are also farther sanctified, really
and personally[1] through the same virtue, by His Word and Spirit
dwelling in them;[2] the dominion of the whole body of sin is destroyed,[3]
and the several lusts thereof are more and more weakened and mortified,[4]
and they more and more quickened and strengthened in all saving
graces,[5] to the practice of all true holiness, without which no
man shall see the Lord.[6] 1. Acts 20:32; Rom. 6:5-6 2. John 17:17;
Eph. 3:16-19; I Thess. 5:21-23 3. Rom. 6:14 4. Gal. 5:24 5. Col.
1:11 6. II Cor. 7:1; Heb. 12:14 II. This sanctification is throughout
the whole man,[7] yet imperfect in this life; there abideth still
some remnants of corruption in every part,[8] when ariseth a continual
and irreconcilable war; the flesh lusting against the Spirit, and
the Spirit against the flesh.[9] 7. I Thess. 5:23 8. Rom. 7:18,
23 9. Gal. 5:17; I Peter 2:11 III. In which war, although the remaining
corruption for a time may much prevail,[10] yet, through the continual
supply of strength from the sanctifying Spirit of Christ, the regenerate
part doth overcome;[11] and so the saints grow in grace, perfecting
holiness in the fear of God, pressing after an heavenly life, in
evangelical obedience to all the commands which Christ as Head and
King, in His Word hath prescribed to them.[12] 10. Rom. 7:23 11.
Rom. 6:14 12. Eph. 4:15-16; II Cor. 3:18; 7:1 Q76: What is repentance
unto life? A76: Repentance unto life is a saving grace,[1] wrought
in the heart of a sinner by the Spirit [2] and word of God,[3] whereby,
out of the sight and sense, not only of the danger,[4] but also
of the filthiness and odiousness of his sins,[5] and upon the apprehension
of God's mercy in Christ to such as are penitent,[6] he so grieves
for [7] and hates his sins,[8] as that he turns from them all to
God,[9] purposing and endeavoring constantly to walk with him in
all the ways of new obedience.[10] 1. II Tim. 2:25 2. Zech. 12:10
3. Acts 11:18, 20-21 4. Ezek. 18:28, 30, 32; Luke 15:17-18; Hosea
2:6-7 5. Ezek. 36:31; Isa. 30:22 6. Joel 2:12-13 7. Jer. 31:18-19
8. II Cor. 7:11 9. Acts 26:18; Ezek. 14:6; I Kings 8:47-48 10. Psa.
119:6, 59, 128; Luke 1:6; II Kings 23:25 Hope that was enough sources.
Prestor John
Subject: Re: Calvinist's view of sanctification From: E.V. To: Prestor John Date Posted: Tues, Feb 22,
2000 at 08:05:59 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Hi Prestor John, The following quote does not sound
like synergism to me: The Belgic Confession of Faith, Article XXIV
>>....Therefore it is so far from being true that this justifying
faith makes men remiss in a pious and holy life, that on the contrary
without it they would never do anything out of love to God, but
only out of self-love or fear of damnation. Therefore it is impossible
that this holy faith can be unfruitful in man; for we do not speak
of a vain faith, but of such a faith which is called in Scripture
a faith working through love, which excites man to the practice
of those works which God has commanded in His Word. How is this
not monergism? If sanctification is synergistic, then it cannot
be important in justification, and therefore not really necessary
for salvation. But scripture clearly denies this. We know that without
holiness, no one will see the Lord. If my level of sanctification
depends upon my cooperating with the grace of God, and I fail to
cooperate, I fail in sanctification. So then God either glorifies
me without being sanctified, or He doesn't glorifiy me at all, and
thus my salvation was dependant upon my works. If someone says that
progress in sanctification results in rewards in heaven, but doesn't
affect justification, then Non-Lordship salvation must be accepted,
which I find unaccepable. So it seems that monergistic sanctification
is our only hope. Any thoughts? In Christ, E.V.
Subject: Re: Calvinist's view of sanctification From: Prestor John To: E.V. Date Posted: Wed, Feb 23,
2000 at 22:08:09 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Hi Prestor John, The following quote does not sound
like synergism to me: The Belgic Confession of Faith, Article XXIV
>>....Therefore it is so far from being true that this justifying
faith makes men remiss in a pious and holy life, that on the contrary
without it they would never do anything out of love to God, but
only out of self-love or fear of damnation. Therefore it is impossible
that this holy faith can be unfruitful in man; for we do not speak
of a vain faith, but of such a faith which is called in Scripture
a faith working through love, which excites man to the practice
of those works which God has commanded in His Word. How is this
not monergism? If sanctification is synergistic, then it cannot
be important in justification, and therefore not really necessary
for salvation. But scripture clearly denies this. We know that without
holiness, no one will see the Lord. If my level of sanctification
depends upon my cooperating with the grace of God, and I fail to
cooperate, I fail in sanctification. So then God either glorifies
me without being sanctified, or He doesn't glorifiy me at all, and
thus my salvation was dependant upon my works. If someone says that
progress in sanctification results in rewards in heaven, but doesn't
affect justification, then Non-Lordship salvation must be accepted,
which I find unaccepable. So it seems that monergistic sanctification
is our only hope. Any thoughts? In Christ, E.V. --- Okay
lets look at what it is saying: We believe that this true faith,
being wrought in man by the hearing of the Word of God and the operation
of the Holy Spirit, sanctifies [1] him and makes him a new man,
causing him to live a new life, and freeing him from the bondage
of sin Now you forgot this part
because without this the second part makes no sense. Therefore it is so far from
being true that this justifying faith makes men remiss in a pious
and holy life, that on the contrary without it they would never
do anything out of love to God, but only out of self-love or fear
of damnation. Now remiss means
this: Failing in what duty requires So that without the justifying
faith men would do good works for wrong motive that being self-love
or fear of damnation. So the Spirit of God working with man causes
man to want to do good works from proper motivation. Therefore it is impossible that
this holy faith can be unfruitful in man; for we do not speak of
a vain faith, but of such a faith which is called in Scripture a
faith working through love, which excites man to the practice of those works which
God has commanded in His Word.
So because of this we do good works and even though they are not
up to the standard of what God calls good yet they please Him because
we are doing what He wills. Now as remember justification is different
from sanctification, justification declares us righteous, sanctification
is the work of God with us to make us holy which will continue until
our glorification. This is the total package of salvation. Justification,
Sanctification, Glorification this is God's salvation each part
is just as important as the other. Prestor John
Subject: SYNERGY YES... From: Hesed
To: E.V. Date
Posted: Tues, Feb 22, 2000
at 16:54:40 (PST) Email
Address:Not Provided
Message: EV When calvinists talk about God's
sovereignity in salvation they are especially refering to the beginning:
God reaches down to a corpse to give it new life. A corpse has no
will, life nor desire for godliness ! It is God's will alone that
is effecting the change necesary for new life. Afterwards however,
the risen corpse is alive and is expected even commanded to live
for the Lord. His believing, desiring, willing obedience plus everything
else he does is by his 'will' in accordance to God's will. This
is synergy. Two wills cooperating; one precedes the other follows.
One 'works in' and the other 'works out!' The willing is a gift
of God but we exercise that gift freely of our own volition. In
His sovereign Love, Hesed
Subject: Further questions From: E.V. To: Hesed Date Posted: Wed, Feb 23, 2000 at 10:53:55 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Hi Hesed, I am not sure that I am getting the distinction you are
making in regards to two wills cooperating. The same could be said
of justification. God changes our hearts in order that we may exercise
our will and accept/believe in/submit to Christ. For most certainly
we are not justified without believing in Christ, and it is US and
not God who does the believing. This seems to be the same explanation
that you gave to sanctification. God changes our wills, and as a
result, we freely obey and progress in sanctification. Galatians
2:20 I have been crucified with Christ and I no longer live, but
Christ lives in me. The life I live in the body, I live by faith
in the Son of God, who loved me and gave himself for me. Philip.
2:13 for it is God who works in you to will and to act according
to his good purpose. If it is God who works in us to will and to
act according to His purpose, how come we so often fail? It *seems*
that we are thwarting God's plan, because most certainly He does
not desire us to sin. Would you agree then that we can hinder/thwart/limit
our sanctification? Does God provide everybody He justifies with
a minimum amount of sanctification from which they cannot lose,
and further advances are up to the individual cooperating with the
grace God gives? In Christ, E.V.
Subject: Re: Further questions From: laz To: E.V. Date Posted: Wed, Feb 23, 2000 at 11:20:32 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Golly Gee, sounds like another sovereignty vs responsibility question
again. ;-) Even what we and others mean for evil...God means for
good...for has He not ordained all things (without being the author
of sin, or course)? I think that I can safely say that at the end
of the day (the end of my natural life)...I will look back and see
the hand of God lovingly orchestrating the events of my less-than-perfect
life seeing to it that I become the very man God had ordained from
before the foundations of the world...thru my own sins even....and
all for my greater good and for His ultimate glory and good pleasure.
There will be no loose ends...no regrets...only gratitude for such
a marvelous grace for it was done by Him, thru Him and in Him. laz
Subject: amen and amen From: kevin To: laz Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 24, 2000 at 12:15:44 (PST) Email Address:amoshart@earthlink.net
Message:
Why wait till the end of the day? Let us rejoice now. As Paul says
so empatically, 'Rejoice and again I say rejoice!' I believe what
you have stated is what so many people who oppose Calvinism fail
to see. How can someone who does not believe that God's hand is
directly involved in their own life to give them that which is best
for them (that which is God and from God) ever have any joy in the
Lord? I cannot imagine what a miserable creature I would be if I
could not rest in God's providence. In Him, kevin sdg
Subject: Okay laz, From: E.V. To: laz Date Posted: Wed, Feb 23, 2000 at 15:51:01 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Subject: Re: Calvinist's view of sanctification From: Tom To: E.V. Date Posted: Tues, Feb 22,
2000 at 14:34:48 (PST) Email Address:ahardy@rapidnet.net
Message: Perhaps Romans 8:30 will help in this issue. Tom
Subject: Okay, 'Show Me' From: Rod To: All Date Posted: Mon, Feb 21, 2000 at 11:53:34 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: Here are your last pious words in a post below: 'God
does not expect me to blindly accept what you or anyone else says,
I’ll continue to search the Scripture to see if these things are
true.' Good for you! Be a Berean! When the Bible writers rehearse
the history of Israel under the inspiration of God, the emphasis
is always on what God has done for His chosen people. When the Apostles
write in the NT, the emphasis is on that which God has accomplished
for the Christians. The story throughout the whole of the collection
of its books is His grace. One primary and very noteworthy example
of this is Ps. 106. The entire Psalm is dedicated to proving God's
grace and mercy and is a plea to be under that mercy. The message
is: Man continually is failing and evil, but God's grace rescues
His chosen, executing justice on the lost. It isn't suprising that
this is the message of that Psalm; it's the message of the Bible.
I do sincerely urge you to read the whole Psalm prayerfully. After
you've done so, please go back and look at verse 31, comparing it
most carefully to Gen. 15:6 and Romans, 3:21-4:25. 'And being fully
persuaded that, what he had promised, he was able to perform' (Rom.
4:21). May God enable you to see and grasp the concept of His marvelous
grace, portrayed and revealed constantly in His holy Word.
Subject: Sin Without Free Will? Continued From: ShowMe To: Pilgrim Date Posted: Mon, Feb 21, 2000 at 08:53:37 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Pilgrim, I thought that this subject had come to an end until I
came across your last post, therefore my tardiness in replying.
You said:' Why don't you offer something
more than empty rhetoric either by way of disproving the doctrine
of total depravity or positively by giving us your own personal
view?' The doctrine of total depravity
was concocted by Augustine to counter Pelagius and then revived
by Calvin in opposition to Jacobus Arminius (Jacob Harmensen, or
Hermansz). It was thought that if man had a 'free will,' if he could
choose between sinning and not sinning, then he could choose to
be saved, but salvation is not something that someone chooses. Salvation
is something that is done to and for someone. Something that they
cannot do themselves. No one can save themselves. Salvation is an
act whereby Jesus Christ saves you, period. This whole notion of
total depravity, an inherited sin nature, just muddies the waters,
creates contradiction where no contradiction exists. It is a totally
useless doctrine and is not Bible based. I know that people like
to have an excuse for sinning, it’s either 'the devil made me do
it' or 'my old sin nature made me do it' no one wants to be responsible
for their sins. But it seems to me that without taking responsibility
there can be no true repentance. So long as we blame our sins on
some inherited sin nature then we are not really taking responsibility
for our actions and therefore our repentance is a hollow gesture.
Calvin wrote: 'Let it stand, therefore,
as an indubitable truth, which no engines can shake, that the mind
of man is so entirely alienated from the righteousness of God, that
he cannot conceive, desire, or design anything but what is wicked,
distorted, foul, impure and iniquitous; that his heart is so thoroughly
envenomed by sin, that it can breathe out nothing but corruption
and rottenness; that if some men occasionally make a show of goodness,
their mind is ever interwoven with hypocrisy and deceit, their soul
inwardly bound with fetters of wickedness.'
The Calvinist theologian Augustus Strong notes: 'Man's
present inability is natural, in the sense of being inborn, - it
is not acquired by our personal act, but is congenital.' Which makes sin the same as race or eye color, our inability
to do good is a state over which we have no control. It is heredity.
Sin is no more our fault than the color of our eyes is our fault.
How are we to repent for something that is not really our fault?
As for the source of this sin nature, Calvin says: '...the
corruption by which we are held bound as with chains originated
in the first man's revolt against his Maker.'
According to Augustine/Calvin, 'The Fall' (not a biblical term for
Adam and Eve's sin) was the cause of man's inability toward all
good and the source of his sin nature. But there is no mention of
anything like that in the Genesis account. There is no record there
of God imposing this curse of a sin nature on man. There are other
curses listed. God pronounced the death sentence, which He defined
as a return to the dust (Gen. 3:19), which obviously denotes a physical
death. God decreed the presence of 'thorns and thistles' to make
toil more difficult (v.18). He told the woman that she must endure
great pain in childbearing (v.16), but there’s no mention of a sin
nature. These curses are nothing in comparison to a sin nature.
You would think that at the very least the text would have something
like, 'Because you have done this, cursed be that moral nature which
I have given you. You and your offspring shall have no freedom to
do good, but everything they do shall be sin.' It is certainly true
that death passed upon everyone through the First Adam. His expulsion
from the Garden with its Tree of Life removed him from the source
of immortality and made death certain. This is also true of his
posterity. But the transmission of a sin nature is not to be found
in the text. I suppose that you hold to another useless and unnecessary
doctrine the London Confession's reference to 'perfection of nature'?
Is that why you must have a doctrine of an inherited sin nature?
As for giving my 'own personal view' I truly thought that I had. To one of your posts I replied:
'As human beings we have needs, legitimate
needs. Primary needs and secondary needs. Primary need consist of
air, water, food, clothing, shelter. We also have many secondary
needs, the need to procreate, the need to communicate, the need
to belong, etc., etc., etc. These needs are not sinful but the way
in which we decide to meet our needs can be sinful. Sin is the meeting
of our needs in an unlawful way. For instance, the need to procreate
is to be satisfied in 'marriage', to satisfy that need outside of
'marriage' is sin. The desire to procreate is 'natural' and not
sinful, the means by which we satisfy that desire can be sinful.
We do not have a 'sin nature' that forces us to meet our legitimate
desires in an unlawful way.' As for
'empty rhetoric'
I tried to answer every reasonable objection. In a reply to Tom,
I wrote: ' If you blame sin on a inherited
sin nature then the person that chooses to steal, or chooses to
practice homosexuality, has no alternative but to so choose. The
choice was necessitated by the desire, and the desire was necessitated
by their inherited sin nature. It might just as well be a sin to
have blue eyes as to commit the most evil act since both are just
a result of ones heredity.' I think
that’s a rational argument and not 'empty
rhetoric.' And to Tom’s idea that: ' : 'This does not mean that because of the sin nature
the unsaved will nessasarily become a Hitler or a Charles Manson.
Indeed, many people who are not saved, do things that are commendable.'
I replied: 'Here
you introduce a different problem, you now have degrees of sin,
are you saying that Hitler and Charles Manson inherited a stronger
sin nature than the rest of us? That there are varying degrees of
'sin natures'? Is that how you explain the fact that some don’t
sin as greatly as others?' I received
no answer. Are varying degrees of sin natures a part of your doctrine?
Are some born with stronger sin natures than others? To Rod, who
said that he was not really interested in answering me but was using
the forum to reach others I asked: '
This certainly does not prove that Adam had a sin nature but it
does make me wonder how you explain away Enoch, I’m pretty sure
that I know how, but perhaps you have a new twist. Enoch was the
offspring of Cain, you certainly would think that if anyone inherited
a 'sin nature' it would be Enoch, but we are told in Gen. 5:24 'And
Enoch walked with God: and he was not; for God took him.' The only
person before Enoch that we are told 'walked with God' is Adam,
in the Garden, before he sinned.'
I received no response, and I thought the question of Enoch was
a perfectly legitimate point and not 'empty
rhetoric.' It really seems to me that
the doctrine of an inherited sin nature is an unnecessary doctrine
that takes away all moral responsibly and without moral responsibility
there is no such thing as sin. If it is inherited behavior then
we simply are not responsible. How hollow repentance is with this
doctrine, one may say 'forgive me Lord for I have sinned', but what
they are really saying with this doctrine is forgive me Lord for
I could not help but sin because of this sin nature that I inherited.
That’s not much different than saying 'the devil made me do it',
either way we are blaming something or someone else for our sins.
That’s hardly genuine repentance. Sincerely, ShowMe
Subject: Re: Sin Without Free Will? Continued From: Pilgrim To: ShowMe Date Posted: Mon, Feb 21,
2000 at 21:53:04 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: ShowMe,
I won't bother to quote your menial
reply above but simply refer you and everyone else to it for examination
for the purposing of finding even ONE Scriptural text given to substantiate your objection
to the Protestant and Reformed doctrine of 'Total Depravity'; or
better 'Total Inability'. Neither will anyone find even ONE Scriptural text to substantiate
your prognostication that 'responsibility predicates free-will'.
But sir, this is exactly what I asked of you previously; to give
a BIBLICAL defense of your proposition. Instead you constantly prate
about with redundancies saying that the doctrine of Total Depravity
does a great injustice to Christianity, etc., etc., ad nauseam.
Your entire line of argumentation has been one that is absent any
biblical support. It is based rather on á priori presuppositions
which remain unproved. Again, to put it simple terms; simply stating
something does not prove its verity. Can you offer any biblical
evidence for your proposition or can you not? If you think you can,
please do so. Now I will obviate from presenting an exegesis of
Rom 5:12-18, since you have already at least implied, that you accept
the solidarity of the human race with Adam. Further, it would appear
that you also acknowledge, at least to some degree, that the transgression
of Adam had a direct impact and influence upon all his progeny.
Thus, I think it would be far more productive and to the point to
discuss what that actual 'impact and influence' was that has affected
mankind. It is the shared faith among all those who hold to the
historic faith of the Reformers in particular, that there were explicit
noetic effects upon all men consequence to the transgression of
Adam. And that effect was the depravity of man's spiritual nature.
To this you strongly disagree, but again for no biblical reason
stated. And so I would therefore have you consider the biblical
record concerning this depravity and the visible results of it.
First, there is the specific perception and indictment of God Himself
concerning man's 'modus operandi' but further the cause of it.
Gen 6:5 'And GOD saw
that the wickedness of man was great in the earth, and that
every imagination of the thoughts of his heart was only evil
continually.'[The Hebrew word signifies not only the imagination,
but also the purposes and desires.] . . . Gen 8:21 'And the
LORD smelled a sweet savour; and the LORD said in his heart,
I will not again curse the ground any more for man's sake; for
the imagination of man's heart is evil from his youth; . . .'
There are a couple of terse items
to be pointed out here for consideration. 1) The nature of all men
was that of corruption; opposed to all that which is good and acceptable
to God. It was due to this radical corruption that God cursed the
ground and brought about the flood to destroy the wickedness that
permeated the earth and all those who practiced it, with the exception
of Noah and his family [a display of sovereign grace]. 2) The corruption
of nature which permeated the human race was not eradicated by the
flood, but continued afterwards. Thus, we must learn that even while
Noah 'found grace in the eyes of the Lord' it was not due to any
inherent goodness on his part, but that he was spared by grace based
upon the future vicarious substitutionary work of the Lord Christ
on Noah's behalf. This 'sin nature' was existent in Noah and his
family and was promulgated throughout the resulting generations.
Through the inspired pen of Solomon we read,
Eccl 9:2 'All things
come alike to all: there is one event to the righteous, and
to the wicked; to the good and to the clean, and to the unclean;
to him that sacrificeth, and to him that sacrificeth not: as
is the good, so is the sinner; and he that sweareth, as he that
feareth an oath. 3 This is an evil among all things that are
done under the sun, that there is one event unto all: yea, also
the heart of the sons of men is full of evil, and madness is
in their heart while they live, and after that they go to the
dead.'
Again two things should grasp
our attention: 1) In verse 2, the writer speaks of physical death
as being the universal experience to all men without exception.
It makes no difference whether the individual is a rank pagan or
a devout worshipper of God. All alike die and go to the grave. 2)
The CAUSE is
the universal evil which dominates the hearts of all men during
their lifetimes. There is a corruption of nature which predominates
the lives of men. Job was inspired to write these words of Eliphaz,
Job 15:14 'What is
man, that he should be clean? and he which is born of a woman,
that he should be righteous? 15 Behold, he putteth no trust
in his saints; yea, the heavens are not clean in his sight.
16 How much more abominable and filthy is man, which drinketh
iniquity like water?'
The questions asked are rhetorical
in nature due to the fact that the answers are doubtless obvious
to all, or at least they should be. There is no room here for asserting
that man, in his natural born state, has any desire or ability to
do that which is good. There is hardly a more severe indictment
of mankind than is found here, 'How much
more abominable and filthy is man, . . .'
We see two things stated in these words, 1) Men are abominable,
ie., they are odious in their manner of living. 2) That men are
inherently filthy
is the CAUSE of their abominable deeds. The 'root' determines the
'fruit'! (cf. Matt 7:17, 18; Lk 6:43. Jeremiah concurs with Eliphaz's
observation when he says, Jer 13:23 'Can
the Ethiopian change his skin, or the leopard his spots? then may
ye also do good, that are accustomed to do evil.' Notice here also, that ABILITY is inherent in the rhetorical question with the word,
'can', i.e., 'Is it possible for an Ethiopian to change the color
of his skin, or is it possible for a leopard to change its spots?'
With that, Jeremiah then brings the inevitable and inescapable;
sinners cannot, they are unable to do anything good. Why? Because, like the Ethiopian's
skin and/or the leopard's spots, they are integral to their respective
natures. Thus, due to a corrupt and sinful nature, men cannot do
that which is good. They are inclined to do only that which is evil
in the sight of God. Jeremiah was also inspired to write this, referring
to the very nature of men,
Jer 17:9 'The heart
is deceitful above all things, and desperately wicked: who can
know it?'
There is little that needs to
be said by way of explanation of this text. But I would only point
out that it is the 'heart' to which Jeremiah speaks, which according
to the overwhelming testimony of Scripture, is the seat of the affections,
the governing force, the residence of the will that determines every
thought, word and deed which man is capable of and does. (cf. Prov
4:23; 22:15; Matt 15:19; Mk 7:21-23; Acts 8:21; Eph 4:18, 19). I
would like to skip Ephesians 2:1-5 and return to that later and
move to a statement of Paul further on in that Epistle, namely:
Eph 5:8 'For ye were
sometimes darkness, but now are ye light in the Lord: walk as
children of light:'
It should be noticed that Paul
doesn't say of the Christians that they were sometimes guilty of
walking in darkness, but that they WERE darkness. This statement must also be seen in the light
of what he previously wrote in chapter 4:17-19, where a more detailed
description of this darkness is delineated. For the sake of brevity,
I will forgo displaying the full passage here, but simply enjoin
you to read it carefully. Now on to Eph 2:1-5,
Eph 2:1 'And you hath
he quickened, who were dead in trespasses and sins; 2 Wherein
in time past ye walked according to the course of this world,
according to the prince of the power of the air, the spirit
that now worketh in the children of disobedience: 3 Among whom
also we all had our conversation in times past in the lusts
of our flesh, fulfilling the desires of the flesh and of the
mind; and were by nature the children of wrath, even as others.
4 But God, who is rich in mercy, for his great love wherewith
he loved us, 5 Even when we were dead in sins, hath quickened
us together with Christ, (by grace ye are saved;)'
I have already taken up quite
a bit of space and to wit much time of those who will read this,
thus I would like to point out simply this from this grand passage
of Scripture. The 'death' of which Paul states here as being the
lot of all men is not the inevitable physical death to which you
seem to say it is and/or some poetic phrase to imply the end judgment
to which unrepentant sinners will inevitably face. [Gene might have
suggested this? ala 'dead men walking' etc.] The text is perspicuous
enough on its face, 'who were dead in trespasses
and sins; 2 Wherein in time past ye walked . . .' (vss 1, 2) Paul says that we who are believers, before
we received grace, were in league and no different than those who
are yet living in unbelief. He says that we all were 'dead in trespasses
and sins' WHEREIN WE ONCE WALKED . . .. Indeed, all men are as 'dead men walking' but not in
reference to some future inevitability where they will suffer eternal
death, or even physical death, but contrariwise, it is a 'living
death' which is expressed by the resultant sin. The 'death' here
is a reality. It is the opposite of 'life'. It is not 'non-entity'
but rather a 'existent state of being'. Along with this 'death'
is added the influence of the Evil One who works in conjunction
with the already existent corrupt nature, thus increasing the hopelessness
and culpability of all men, but more so the INABILITY of all men to even incline themselves to God or to desire
that which is good. (cf. Joh 3:19; 6:44; Job 14:4; Rom 3:9-12).
Now I would ask of you to give an BIBLICAL explanation to an affirmation
you have made several times elsewhere on this forum. You stated
that you hold that man contributes absolutely nothing to his salvation;
that salvation is totally of grace and of God. To this I can say,
Amen! However, I have little doubt that what you actually mean by
this and what I mean are not synonymous. To either justify my suspicions
or negate them, could you please explain to me, to all of us, if
man contributes nothing to salvation, and by NOTHING, I would assume
you are including conviction, repentance, faith, love etc., which
all are part and parcel of God's redemption in Christ and prerequisites
to apprehending it, how is a man saved? If as you vehemently maintain,
that all men are vested with a 'free will' and thus are inherently
ABLE to do that which is good, yet man contributes nothing which
is good, for one indeed does a good thing by believing upon Christ
etc. to gain salvation, how is anyone saved? Where does your alleged
'free will' come into play? Where does 'grace' fit into your scheme
of things? Please include biblical evidence to support your answer.
In His Precious Blood, Pilgrim
Subject: Re: Sin Without Free Will? Continued From: ShowMe To: Pilgrim Date Posted: Tues, Feb 22,
2000 at 12:22:40 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Pilgrim, You ask: 'Can you
offer any biblical evidence for your proposition or can you not?
If you think you can, please do so.' The
Bible is full of people choosing good over evil, and evil over good,
choosing to sin or not to sin. David chose to sin and was held responsible
for that sin, he was even given a choice of punishments. I’m really
at a loss as to what you are asking me to prove. I came here looking
for answers, for one thing I would like to know how you answer to
Jesus being descended from Adam and yet without the so called sin
nature. That’s the very reason the Roman Church has a sinless Mary,
please, how do the reformed explain this and still maintain that
Jesus Christ was truly Man. Heb.2:17 Wherefore IN
ALL THINGS it behooved him to be made
like unto his brethren, that he might be a merciful and faithful
high priest . . . Wouldn’t the 'all things' include a sin nature
if that were truly a part of us? I’ll go through and answer your
'proof texts', this is a work day for me, so I probably will not
have the time to answer them all in one setting, but I’ll do my
best. You quote Gen.6:5 and say: The nature
of all men was that of corruption; opposed to all that which is
good and acceptable to God. It was due to this radical corruption
that God cursed the ground and brought about the flood to destroy
the wickedness that permeated the earth and all those who practiced
it, with the exception of Noah and his family [a display of sovereign
grace]. There is a noticeable failure
on your part to give the actual Biblical reason for the corruption
shown in Gen. 6:5. When taken in context we are told in no uncertain
terms why this corruption existed and it is not because of some
inherited sin nature, here read the reason for yourself: Gen. 6:1
And it came to pass, when men began to multiply on the face of the
earth, and daughters were born unto them, Gen. 6:2 That the sons
of God saw the daughters of men that they were fair; and they took
them wives of all which they chose. Gen. 6:3And the LORD said, My
spirit shall not always strive with man, for that he also is flesh:
yet his days shall be an hundred and twenty years. Gen. 6:4 There
were giants in the earth in those days; and also after that, when
the sons of God came in unto the daughters of men, and they bare
children to them, the same became mighty men which were of old,
men of renown. Gen. 6:5 And GOD saw that the wickedness of man was
great in the earth, and that every imagination of the thoughts of
his heart was only evil continually. Gen. 6:6 And it repented the
LORD that he had made man on the earth, and it grieved him at his
heart. Gen. 6:7 And the LORD said, I will destroy man whom I have
created from the face of the earth; both man, and beast, and the
creeping thing, and the fowls of the air; for it repenteth me that
I have made them. Gen. 1-4 gives the reason for Verse 4 verses 5,
6 and 7. Also notice that in verse 7 the animals as well as man
are to be destroyed. Do cows and chickens also have a sin nature?
It really doesn’t matter who you say that the 'sons of God' were,
or the 'giants' but it is certain that they were the cause of Gen.
6:5 and not some inherited sin nature. As for Noah, verse 8 says
'Noah found grace in the eyes of the Lord.' Why? We are told in
Gen. 6:9 …'Noah was a just man and perfect in his generations, and
Noah walked with God.' Noah found grace in the eyes of the Lord
because: 1. He was a just man, a man who gave to all their due;
that’s the best meaning of the original word. 2. He was perfect
in his generation; he was consistent in moral character. Next you
use try to use Eccl. 9: 2&3, in support of your belief that
we can do nothing but sin because of an inherited sin nature, you
write: 'Again two things should grasp our
attention: 1) In verse 2, the writer speaks of physical death as
being the universal experience to all men without exception. It
makes no difference whether the individual is a rank pagan or a
devout worshipper of God. All alike die and go to the grave. 2)
The CAUSE is the universal evil which dominates the hearts of all
men during their lifetimes. There is a corruption of nature which
predominates the lives of men.' Eccl.9:2
All things come alike to all: there is one event to the righteous,
and to the wicked; to the good and to the clean, and to the unclean;
to him that sacrificeth, and to him that sacrificeth not: as is
the good, so is the sinner; and he that sweareth, as he that feareth
an oath. Eccl.9:3 This is an evil among all things that are done
under the sun, that there is one event unto all: yea, also the heart
of the sons of men is full of evil, and madness is in their heart
while they live, and after that they go to the dead. A more literal
translation of verse 3 is 'There is an evil above all (evils) that
are done,' meaning that not only is there 'one event to all,' but
'also the heart of the sons of men' makes this fact, that the one
event that comes to the righteous as will as the wicked, is the
reason for 'madly' persisting in evil while they live. This verse
is simply stating that 'sin is madness' it has nothing at all to
do with some inherited sin nature. Furthermore verse 3 is speaking
of 'an evil' as a great trouble to a good man. There are some very
interesting and strange doctrines that people have come out of the
Book of Ecclesiastes, an inherited sin nature is just one of many.
Then you turn to Job and tell me that 'Job
was inspired to write these words of Eliphaz.
Implying that they are true because Job wrote them but God Himself
testifies that Job's friends did not hold the truth. Job 42:7 And
it was so, that after the LORD had spoken these words unto Job,
the LORD said to Eliphaz the Temanite, My
wrath is kindled against thee, and against thy two friends: for
ye have not spoken of me the thing that is right, as my servant Job hath. God says that Eliphaz is wrong
and has not spoken correctly. That’s good enough for me and I have
no idea why you would resort to using this passage of Scripture
to try to prove your point. Next you bring up Jeremiah 17:9, you
wrote: Jeremiah was also inspired to write
this, referring to the very nature of men, Jer 17:9 'The heart is
deceitful above all things, and desperately wicked: who can know
it?' There is little that needs to be said by way of explanation
of this text. But I would only point out that it is the 'heart'
to which Jeremiah speaks, which according to the overwhelming testimony
of Scripture, is the seat of the affections, the governing force,
the residence of the will that determines every thought, word and
deed which man is capable of and does. (cf. Prov 4:23; 22:15; Matt
15:19; Mk 7:21-23; Acts 8:21; Eph 4:18, 19).'
I find it interesting that Judaism to this day does not teach that
we sin because of an inherited sin nature. I’m sure that their Old
Testament Scholars were and are every bit as good as those of the
Reformed persuasion. This chapter begins with the sin of Judah,
idolatry, and its fatal consequences verses 1-4. The happiness that
comes from trusting in God is then contrasted with the opposite,
trusting in man, verses 5-8. That brings us to the verses that you
quoted in support of the doctrine of an inherited sin nature. The
word translated deceitful here is from a root, 'supplanting,' from
which Jacob (Hos.12:3) took his name. In speaking of the Jews’ deceit
of heart, it is very appropriate that a term referring to there
forefather Jacob is used. It showing that they were following Jacob’s
deceit but not his faith. Jacob’s 'supplanting' was in order to
obtain God’s blessing. Here they supplant God for 'trust in man'
(Jer. 17:5), and then they think that they can deceive God, as if
it could escape His notice that it is in man and not in Him that
they trust. It is shown that trust in one’s own heart instead of
God is as foolish as trusting in man instead of God. When taken
in context this has nothing to do with some inherited sin nature.
Next you try to incorporate Eph. 5:8 into your doctrine, you wrote:
'It should be noticed that Paul doesn't
say of the Christians that they were sometimes guilty of walking
in darkness, but that they WERE darkness. This statement must also
be seen in the light of what he previously wrote in chapter 4:17-19,
where a more detailed description of this darkness is delineated.
For the sake of brevity, I will forgo displaying the full passage
here, but simply enjoin you to read it carefully.' Eph.4:19 reads: 'Who being past feeling have given themselves
over unto lasciviousness, to work all uncleanness with greediness.'
'…have given themselves over' sounds like free will sinning to me!
As for Eph. 5:8 'For ye were sometimes darkness, but now are ye
light in the Lord: walk as children of light:' 'Sometimes' is an
interesting translation here. This verse is not referring to some
kind of inherited sin nature that makes people sin. 'Ye were sometimes
darkness' simply means that they gave off no light and actually
darkened others. Now they have the Light of the World and they themselves
are to be lights to the world. Not only have they now been 'enlightened'
they are to be a light enlightening others (Eph. 5:13). Here’s the
note from the Geneva Bible, Calvin’s Bible: 5:8
For ye were sometimes darkness, but now [are ye] {c} light in the
Lord: walk as children of light: (c) The faithful are called light,
both because they have the true light in them which enlightens them,
and also because they give light to others, insomuch that their
honest conversation reproves the life of wicked men. Ye were sometimes
darkness. Not only lived in darkness, but gave off no light and
darkened others. Now [are ye] light in the Lord. Shining with the
light that comes from Christ. I’m out
of time right now, got to get back to work but I will cover Eph.
2:1-5 later if you really want me to. You ask me again if I truly
believe that we do nothing to save ourselves! I don’t know how to
be any clearer on this subject, for some reason you refuse to accept
my words at face value, again, I say, in no uncertain terms, that
there is absolutely nothing that a person can do to save themselves.
By nothing I mean nothing. I can’t make it any plainer. You simply
don’t want to accept that I mean what I say. I must go. Sincerely,
ShowMe
Subject: Re: Sin Without Free Will? Continued From: Pilgrim To: ShowMe Date Posted: Tues, Feb 22,
2000 at 13:14:04 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: ShowMe,
Thanks for the response! It went
a long way to proving my point. I think the readers will easily
see the error you embrace is wholly unbiblical and that you have
no grasp of the Scriptures. You love to prate about and point out
that men MUST have a free will because they 'freely sin' and 'freely
do that which is good!' However, the Scriptures concur with the
doctrine of Total Depravity/Inability for men are indeed FREE to
sin. As to sinners doing 'good'? Well, Paul says that 'no man does
good', and the Lord Christ says, that 'only God is good'! Any 'good'
which men do in the Scriptures in an unregenerate state is a 'relative
good'; that which is virtuous and/or beneficial to others. But when
brought before the light of God's holy Law, 'there is NONE that
does good'! Even the regenerate's good works are fraught with sin.
They are accepted by God only on the merits of the cleansing blood
of the Lord Christ which is imputed to them. As to your iteration
of your belief that 'we do nothing to save
ourselves!', I cannot help but perceive
that this is a deliberate attempt to deceive others into thinking
that you hold to Sola Gratia. Yes, I doubt the veracity of your
acclamation and on good grounds. For anyone who proposes that men
in their unregenerate state are not bound by a sin nature but rather
are born with a 'Tabula Rasa' or some other like nature, being able
to do good or evil according to their 'free will', then they obviously
bring SOMETHING to the cross. This is why I meticulously asked the
questions I did, e.g., concerning the origin of faith, repentance,
etc. For these things are inextricably bound to the apprehension
of Christ and justification. It is true that man is 'responsible'
for his own repentance and to believe upon Christ. But this does
not answer the question as to their origin. Nor does it answer the
question as to their efficacy once possessed by a sinner. Your avoidance
in answering these questions is plain for all to see. If it were
a matter of being pressed for time, one would assume that you would
have made a statement to that affect with a promise to return to
expand on the questions. But it was only to your former remarks
concerning my offering to you that you applied this excuse. Man
indeed contributes NOTHING to his salvation. And it is also true
that no man even desires salvation apart from regeneration, for
all men HATE THE LIGHT and love darkness, and thus says the Lord
Christ, 'NO man CAN come to me, unless the Father who sent me draw him!' In His Precious Blood, Pilgrim 'The very name, Free-will,
was odious to all the Fathers. I, for my part, admit that God gave
to mankind a free will, but the question is, whether this same freedom
be in our power and strength, or no? We may very fitly call it a
subverted, perverse, fickle, and wavering will, for it is only God
that works in us, and we must suffer and be subject to his pleasure.
Even as a potter out of his clay makes a pot or vessel, as he wills,
so it is for our free will, to suffer and not to work. It stands
not in our strength; for we are not able to do anything that is
good in divine matters.' - The Table-talk of Martin Luther (CCLIX)
Subject: Re: Sin Without Free Will? Continued From: ShowMe To: Pilgrim Date
Posted: Tues, Feb 22, 2000
at 17:09:29 (PST) Email
Address:Not Provided
Message: Pilgrim, You wrote: 'As to your iteration of your belief that 'we do nothing
to save ourselves!', I cannot help but perceive that this is a deliberate
attempt to deceive others into thinking that you hold to Sola Gratia.' And: You wrote: 'It is true that man is 'responsible' for his own repentance
and to believe upon Christ. But this does not answer the question
as to their origin.' I’ll
say it again, no one can do anything to save themselves. This statement
includes in it the fact that everything necessary for our salvation
is by the Grace of God through Jesus Christ and applied by the Holy
Spirit. You quoted : John 6:44 'NO
man CAN come to me, unless the Father who sent me draw him!'' I agree with this verse of Scripture, totally
and completely. Why can’t
anyone go to the Father?
It’s not because of some inherited sin nature, it’s because they have not been draw. Do you see that? It’s not because of some sin nature, it’s because they
have not been draw to Him!!!
This is ridiculous, you either will not or cannot answer some basic
questions on the doctrine of a sin nature. A doctrine that is totally
and completely unnecessary. A doctrine that is not supported by
Scripture. Instead of answering by questions, questions that are
important to me, all I get are snide remarks and ridicule from you
and your followers. I really do not understand why you people are
so defensive, I really was not attacking your beliefs, I just wanted
to have some of my questions answered. Thanks anyway. Maybe I’ll
try again some other day. Sincerely, ShowMe
Subject: Re: Sin Without Free Will? Continued From: Tom To: ShowMe Date Posted: Wed, Feb 23,
2000 at 01:08:03 (PST) Email Address:ahardy@rapidnet.net
Message: In your post in reply to Pilgrim using John 6:44
as his proof text, your reply was: I agree with this verse of Scripture,
totally and completely. Why can’t anyone go to the Father? It’s
not because of some inherited sin nature, it’s because they have
not been draw. Do you see that? It’s not because of some sin nature,
it’s because they have not been draw to Him!!! I am afraid it is
you that is not seeing something! Don't you see that if it wasn't
for the sin nature, the Father would not have to draw us? Before
the fall, the Father did not have to draw Adam and Eve, because
they were not in need of salvation. In other words their nature
was good in God's eyes. You seem to trip over the word 'nature',
I would suggest to you that you look the word up in a dictionary,
for it's meaning. Again, I say that the fact that man has a sin
nature, shouldn't be in dispute. The amount man is depraved, can
be disputed, but I believe that the scripture verses Pilgrim gave
should be suffice to show how much man is depraved. Man is totally
depraved, therefore no man can come to Jesus unless the Father draws
them. Tom
Subject: You Must Be Born Again From: ShowMe To: Tom Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 24, 2000 at 05:53:19 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Tom, I doubt that this is worth my time but I cannot in good conscious
let such an error go unanswered. I will try to make this my last
post on this subject. You wrote: 'Don't
you see that if it wasn't for the sin nature, the Father would not
have to draw us? Before the fall, the Father did not have to draw
Adam and Eve, because they were not in need of salvation. In other
words their nature was good in God's eyes.'
As I have already shown in another post, Adam’s nature was not changed
because he disobeyed, the Bible simply does not teach that. The
Bible says that they ate of the 'fruit of the tree of the knowledge
of good and evil' and that they 'KNEW' it does not say that they
ate that fruit and therefore could only 'DO' evil and not good.
Humanity is condemned solely on account of the sin committed by
Adam. Don’t you believe that? Or do you believe that condemnation
comes from your own actions? From this post it sounds like you believe
that condemnation comes from your own sins, because of your inherited
sin nature, and not because of Adam’s transgression. That’s not
what the Bible teaches. Your assumption here is that man without
a sin nature would seek God? Would not need to be drawn to God?
Would not need to be saved? Surely you don’t believe that if a man
did not have an inherited sin nature he would automatically be spiritual?
Without being 'born again'? If so, you are confusing 'natural' with
'spiritual.' Lack of a sin nature certainly does not make one 'spiritual',
that takes being 'born again' or 'from above'. You have to be 'spiritual'
in order to seek God, you must be 'born again' or 'from above' in
order to seek God and that’s why we must be drawn to Him, not because
we have an inherited sin nature but because we are not born 'spiritual.'
Before being 'born again' or 'born from above, a person is 'natural'
that does not mean that they have some kind of inherited sin nature
that makes them sin, it means that they are not 'spiritual.' If
you want to say that they are 'spiritually dead' that’s all right
but that does not mean that they are physically, intellectually,
emotionally, or volitionally dead. You wrote: 'You
seem to trip over the word 'nature', I would suggest to you that
you look the word up in a dictionary, for it's meaning.' I’m not tripping over the word 'nature' at all, I know
exactly what the Biblical meaning is. I would suggest to you that
you not depend upon a English dictionary to get the meanings of
the Greek words of the New Testament, that will most certainly lead
to error. 1Co 2:14 But the natural man receiveth not the things
of the Spirit of God: for they are foolishness unto him: neither
can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned. 'Natural'
here does not mean 'sin nature.' Adam lost communion with God, and
that’s the condition of the 'natural' man, he is out of communion
with God, he cannot discern the things of the Spirit of God. He
must be 'born again' made 'spiritual' if that union is to be restored,
and that Tom, takes a supernatural act of God. The doctrine of an
inherited sin nature that makes people sin is a useless doctrine
that is not, as far as I can tell, Scriptural, and it creates several
contradictions that undermine the integrity of God’s word. Sincerely,
ShowMe
Subject: Re: You Must Be Born Again From: Tom To: ShowMe Date Posted: Fri, Feb 25, 2000 at 01:24:05 (PST) Email Address:ahardy@rapidnet.net
Message:
ShowMe I am not sure my saying any more to try to help you understand
will do any good. Read Pilgrim's responce below, if that won't do
it, I am not sure anything will. One thing I can not help but say,
is you have put yourself in a possition where you disagree with
most if not all of Christendom on this issue. To me, since this
is one of the most important doctrines of Christianity. It is almost
like you are ready to say, 'everyone else is wrong so I am going
to start my own religion. One where errors of Christemdom will be
corrected and the Lord will be glorified!' That may seem harsh,
but follow your reasoning through, and see if I am not correct.
Tom
Subject: Re: You Must Be Born Again From: Pilgrim To: ShowMe Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 24, 2000 at 08:12:51 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
ShowMe,
Your view is ostensibly obnoxious
and a contradiction of all that Scripture teaches. You have decided
to redefine what 'natural', 'flesh', and 'spiritual' mean to fit
your preconceived ideas. God created Adam and therefore all mankind
in him as 'spiritual' creatures. They were created with the imago
dei, which in its first estate was that which reflected the Creator
within the bounds of the creature. There was communion glorious
between the Creator and the creature. Adam's 'theology' was pure
and true. He was endowed with 'knowledge, true holiness and righteousness
(Eph 4:24; Col 3:10). He was truly a 'spiritual' man in the fullest
sense of the word, for all that he did was motivated out of a disposition
that sought only to please God through righteous living and a desire
to glorify the Creator. There was no arbitrary 'thinking' on Adam's
part, i.e., he didn't have to evaluate and decide for himself what
was good and right. Total trust and love for his God brought only
perfect obedience to all that God had required of him, up and until
the moment of his transgression. It was his disobedience, i.e.,
becoming alienated in his love and obedience to God that brought
about his demise and all those who would follow after him. The PUNISHMENT
which God sentenced him to was not only a physical removal from
the Garden of Eden and all its benefits, but a removal from the
relationship between the Creator and the creature. Further, the
imago dei was also sentenced to 'death', ie., corruption; the first
act of disobedience was but a foretaste of what Adam would become
wholly. That which precipitated his rebellious act was to be that
which would govern all his being from that day forward. Thus he
'DIED' on the very day which he transgressed the holy law of God.
From that day forward, Adam ceased to be a 'spiritual man' and became
a 'natural man', being governed no longer by a true love for God
or having a desire to please Him as he once did. The myriad biblical
passages I offered you are but the descriptions of the essence of
this 'depraved nature', whose fruit is 'every thought and imagination
of man is evil continually' and whose 'heart is deceitful beyond
all things' and which is capable of doing 'no good'! Thus it is
of necessity that any and all men must BE BORN AGAIN/FROM ABOVE...
i.e., that the nature/disposition must be re-created/quickened/resurrected/made
alive to that which was once 'dead'. The language is all too clear.
Man is INCAPABLE of desiring or doing good. He is INCAPABLE of loving
God. He is INCAPABLE of changing his ways. He is hopelessly lost
in sin and helpless to even desire the change necessary, never mind
accomplish it. Men are totally enamored with sin; it is their fetish
and joy. Yes, most men hate the consequences which their sin brings
upon them, but not enough to cease from committing a life of sin.
'Men love darkness. .. and hate the light' (Jh 3:19; Eph 4:17-19).
Lastly, your view embraces another fatal error in that you state
that 'Humanity is condemned solely on account
of the sin committed by Adam.' Yet you
would have men condemned even though, by their own 'free will' they
could theoretically live perfectly righteous lives, if they so chose
to do so. The Scriptures teach that men are culpable and therefore
guilty. Along with the imputed guilt, the source of that guilt,
the sin nature is inherited. They are inseparable items. In other
words, it's like a parent telling his disobedient child, 'Okay,
so you want to do what you want to do and not what I want you to
do? Fine. . . then you can have it your way and therefore you are
now no longer a part of my house. You are on your own. You are no
longer a part of my family and all the benefits which flowed from
my headship are no longer yours. And this includes all the 'rules
and regulations' which were designed for your good, for now you
are to live only according to that which YOU think is good. But
NOTHING you think or do from now on will be acceptable to me, for
YOUR way of thinking is totally opposed to that which I say is good.'
Adam got what the serpent promised, which was in fact the punishment
God had promised, Gen 3:5 'For God doth know that in the day ye
eat thereof, then your eyes shall be opened, and ye shall be as
gods, knowing good and evil.' But the Devil failed to explain the
implications of all this. He deceitfully held back the truth which
was that to 'know good and evil' is to cut yourself off from God
and to be come 'a god unto yourself'. One's entire nature needs
be changed; from living out of a heart enthralled with love for
God and all that He commands, to one that is enthralled with self
and all that IT commands. And so on the very day which Adam and
Eve ate of the fruit of the Tree of Knowledge of Good and Evil,
THEY DIED and
were thus alienated from God in body and soul. Salvation is the
restoration of that which was lost. Man needs to be 'born again',
i.e., he needs a NEW NATURE if communion is to be regained between
himself and the Creator. This is SOLA GRATIA, SOLA FIDE, SOLUS CHRISTUS
and SOLI DEO GLORIA. It is the GOSPEL and the 'faith once delivered
by the saints'! It is the 'OLD PATHS' on which the Church has walked
for ages past and will always until the Lord Christ appears to usher
in the New Heaven and New Earth. You may hold to whatever belief
you desire. But automatons have no place in the Kingdom of God.
In His Precious Blood, Pilgrim
Subject: Re: Sin Without Free Will? Continued From: Pilgrim To: Tom Date Posted: Wed, Feb 23,
2000 at 12:29:17 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Tom,
Amen, brother! You are right on
two counts. 1) 'You Can NEVER ShowME' doesn't get it. 2) IF man
has a 'free-will' as asserted by him, then what is the need of God
having to 'draw' anyone? Surely, if a man CAN (has the inherent
ability) to repentant and/or believe, IF a man can 'freely' choose
to hate sin and love Christ, which are all 'good things', then why
must God 'draw' them? IF all men are not born with an inherited
sin nature which would prevent them from doing ANY good thing, including
coming to Christ with a repentant faith, what is to prevent them
from doing so? Conclusion: This proposition is illogical and contradictory
to the overwhelming testimony of the biblical record, it does immeasurable
harm to the Church and it exalts man to a place that rivals even
God Himself. Could this not be just one of the many reasons the
church historical has consistently rejected this view? DOUBTLESS!!
Subject: Re: Sin Without Free Will? Continued From: laz To: Tom Date Posted: Wed, Feb 23,
2000 at 07:49:05 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Tom - great point! Sort of like the wild deer around
my house, timid by nature...but in some areas, the deer have become
tame and actually eat out of your hands. blessings, laz p.s. perhaps
No Show should check out J. Edwards excellent explanation of the
nature of our will....how everything we will is predicated upon
some other stimulous or deeper inherent desire/nature within us...usually
a selfish one. In otherwords, we don't chose things in a vacuum
(as though we are totally nuetral in how we make decisions), some
innate desire within us is what's causing us to will/choose chocolate
vs vanilla, Ford vs Chevy, Sue vs Janet, paper vs plastic, etc....and
even THAT is granted by a sovereign God who created us and in Him
we live, move and have our being.
Subject: Re: Sin Without Free Will? Continued From: laz To: ShowMe Date Posted: Tues, Feb 22,
2000 at 19:02:33 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Dear Show ME - I think I get your subtle point of
departure relative to original sin. You say that we are not predisposed
towards sin (i.e., deny a 'sin nature')...otherwise culpability
would be negated. Am I with you so far? You also say you believe
that all men are condemned on account of Adam's sin imputed to us
all (Amen)...even newborn babies that die at birth....them being
'sinners in Adam' as well. Why then do we sin? I believe you say
it's because of a will that's truly free (as Adam had in the Garden?)
... which implies that we are born morally/spiritually neutral.
And that nothing 'died' relative to Adam the very
day he sinned (contrary to what God said).
Do you really believe that we are created today just as Adam was
relative to a spiritual nature and that all them verses dealing
with man's sinfulness have been misinterpreted by us to support
a useless doctrine? laz p.s. why then does a believer have such
a different perspective towards sin? What happens 'inside us' at
regeneration that suddenly enables us to 'see and hear' the things
of God whereas before it was just foolishness?
Subject: I hope everyone here sees this post of yours. From: Rod To: Pilgrim Date Posted: Tues, Feb 22,
2000 at 15:19:08 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: Pilgrim, As you correctly point out, Show Me has
shown himself to be a person who is not only confused, but confusing.
Your statement, 'As to your iteration of your belief that 'we do
nothing to save ourselves!', I cannot help but perceive that this
is a deliberate attempt to deceive others into thinking that you
hold to Sola Gratia,' is exactly right. No one can hold to the deliberate
misapplication of such Scriptures such as Rom 3:9-20 which Show
Me put forth in a very recent post and believe in the grace of God
as portrayed in Eph. 2:1-10. The actual fact that grace exists,
as given us in the Scriptures, is proof that man can do nothing
for himself, that he is totally depraved/totally unable to effect
good, except, as you point out, 'relative good.' That 'relative
good,' that which man perceives as 'good,' is utterly disgusting
to the Lord God, as Is. 64:6 so vividly displays it. 'And if by
grace, then it is no more of works; otherwise grace is no more grace.
But it it be by works, then it is no more grace; otherwise work
is no more work' (Rom. 11:6). God's Word is very clear on this.
Subject: Re: Sin Without Free Will? Continued From: Tom To: ShowMe Date Posted: Mon, Feb 21,
2000 at 13:14:07 (PST) Email Address:ahardy@rapidnet.net
Message: ShowMe May I ask you a question? Your views are a
little new to me, so I ask that you reveal to us where you are coming
from, ie. denominational persquasion. Like I said in an earier post,
most Arminians believe in man's inherited sin nature. Tom
Subject: Re: Sin Without Free Will? Continued From: ShowMe To: Tom Date Posted: Mon, Feb 21,
2000 at 16:06:35 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Tom, I really don’t know how to answer your question,
I don’t have any denominational affiliation. I’m still trying to
glean the truth from all the different denominations. I certainly
don’t blindly accept anything because it’s what every one else in
a particular group believes. I really don’t think of myself as a
Calvinist or an Arminian. I have studied the works of both men.
Most Calvinist that I have come in contact with have never studied
the works of Jacobus Arminius and most Arminians have never studied
the works of John Calvin. Instead they take what they have been
taught as the truth of each system of theology. I prefer to find
out for myself. Sincerely, ShowMe
Subject: Re: Sin Without Free Will? Continued From: Tom To: ShowMe Date Posted: Tues, Feb 22,
2000 at 01:09:39 (PST) Email Address:ahardy@rapidnet.net
Message: ShowMe It is commendable that you like to study history
and different denominations beliefs. However in your case that may
be part of your problem. You have made yourself out to be a sectarian,
by not believing what most if not all denominations hold to. They
all hold that man has a sin nature, but what they can't agree on
is how depraved that sin nature makes man. Think about that for
a minute, is it possible that you are right about this issue, and
everyone else is wrong? I have said this before on this forum, but
I think it bares repeteing again. If I believed scripture said one
thing, but found that I was the only one who believed it. I would
be very suspiscious that it is me who is in error. Tom
Subject: Re: Sin Without Free Will? Continued From: laz To: ShowMe Date Posted: Mon, Feb 21,
2000 at 10:52:37 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Did Enoch really come from the line of Cain? If mankind
is not predisposed to sin (on account of being sinners at conception
as I believe the psalmist declared)...why did God only find one
man, Noah, just in His sight? Must be that mankind is infact predisposed
in Adam to sin, sin, sin. For all have sinned (and WILL sin) and
fallen short of the glory of God. Why else would Christ need to
come if it were possible to NOT sin? Would we ever live without
sin? Why else do we sin now but won't in heaven? IT's all in the
nature, man....and yes, GOd will hold us responsible for our sin....we
have been judged already in Adam. THat's Christianity 101! All your
protestations about augustine, calvin....etc notwithstanding...Romans
reads pretty clear to me (as does Eph)that sin has been inputed
to all mankind thru Adam....it's clearly who we are and what we
do by nature ...YET, God clearly holds us responsible for our actions
for we sin WILLFULLY consistent with our fallen natures....in fact,
the more the reprobate sin, the greater condemnation they can expect
in the afterlife...but, found in Christ, there is no condemnation.
laz
Subject: Re: Sin Without Free Will? Continued From: ShowMe To: laz Date Posted: Mon, Feb 21,
2000 at 11:31:36 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Laz, You ask: 'Did Enoch
really come from the line of Cain?' The
Scriptures seem to say so: Gen. 4:17 And Cain knew his wife; and
she conceived, and bare Enoch: and he builded a city, and called
the name of the city, after the name of his son, Enoch. Luke 3:37
Which was the son of Mathusala, which was the son of Enoch, which
was the son of Jared, which was the son of Maleleel, which was the
son of Cainan, I must assume that you have in mind some kind of
'spiritual' origin for Enoch? I don’t understand? You ask: If mankind is not predisposed to sin (on account of
being sinners at conception as I believe the psalmist declared)...why
did God only find one man, Noah, just in His sight? The question is how did God find eight people, Noah and
his family, just in His sight, does this mean that Noah was born
without a 'sin nature' and that’s why he was able to obey God? You
wrote: 'In all have sinned and fallen short
of the glory of God...which means that everyone WILL sin...why,
the fallen nature inherited from Adam.'
I notice that Calvinists place a lot of emphasis on Rom. 3:10, but
if you really dig into that section of Scripture you will find that
it does not mean what you want it to mean. Romans 3:10-12 'There
is no one righteous, not even one; there is no one who understands,
no one who seeks God. All have turned away, they have together become
worthless; there is no one who does good, not even one.' You suppose
this to be speaking of a literal condition in which all human beings
are born, a proof that we are born with an inherited sin nature
that makes us sin. Paul is not speaking of some inherited sin nature
that absolves us from any moral responsibility. His point is clearly
set forth in verse 9: Jews and Gentiles alike are 'under sin.' Sin
is not peculiar to lowly Gentiles, but also afflicts the favored
Jews. He proves his point by quoting Psalm
14, which at the very beginning tells the readers it is dealing
with 'the fool.' See Psalm 14:1 :o) As
a poet, the Psalmist frequently bursts into hyperbole. David is
teaching the sinfulness of men, but he does so with an exorbitant
Hebrew idiom to get the point across more powerfully. This is a
common Hebrew poetic device. In verse 4, he says evildoers 'devour
my people as men eat bread.' That, of course, is not literal. Or
do you think that David is giving us a doctrine that all men enter
this world with a propensity for cannibalism? You ask:'Why else do we sin now but won't in heaven? A couple of reasons that come to mind are, new bodies,
bodies without the needs of these bodies. No tempter. A state above
that of Adam. The doctrine of an inherited sin nature is simply
not necessary and it does more harm than good. It does away with
moral responsibility and in doing that it does away with sin itself.
We are without excuse, we cannot blame our actions of some inherited
sin nature. Sincerely, ShowMe
Subject: no tempter? From: Five sola To: ShowMe Date Posted: Mon, Feb 21, 2000 at 12:55:30 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Showme, This reply is really not to the substance of your post for
I do not have the time to come here as often as it seems necessary
to show you what scripture says. There are also many others more
skilled then I that are doing a great job at it. My point is to
something you brought up in this post near the end (probably just
an aside) but it is something I think alot of people over look.
you said: 'A couple of reasons that come to mind are, new bodies,
bodies without the needs of these bodies. No tempter. A state above
that of Adam.' While I do believe that we will be in a glorified
body much better than Adam possesed, and I do believe we will be
made unable to sin, in the same way that we are born unable to do
good currently. But to the point of Adam having a tempter is a factor
in why he sinned... Adam was not tempted by satan, Eve was. (ladies
please perservere through what I say) :-) Eve was fooled by the
serpent, but there is no mention of Satan confronting Adam. Adam
of his own 'decision', without cohersion, sinned. We cannot say
the reasons why for scripture does not reveal. Some may want to
romanticize it and say it was because he didn't want his wife to
recieve death alone, or it may be just that he choose to openly
rebel against his creator. Also a good point is that Rom chap 1-3
is often considered the 'magnus opus' on sinfulness of humanity
and sin itself, take note that no where is satan ever mentioned.
Our sin is never due to satan. Why is that? Because of the heart
of man is evil, every intention, every thought of the heart is evil.
We don't need satan's help to make us sin we do a good enough job
on our own :-) unless God recreates our heart with a willingness
to love and obey His laws. by the way that also answers your comment
on ...'The question is how did God find eight people, Noah and his
family, just in His sight, does this mean that Noah was born without
a 'sin nature' and that’s why he was able to obey God? ' Because
they were saved/regenerated. Their dead hearts were made alive by
the holy spirit, now they possessed the ability to obey God. Amen
Five Sola
Subject: Re: no tempter? From: Gene To: Five sola Date Posted: Mon, Feb 21, 2000 at 14:35:49 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
5, Adam was not tempted by satan, Eve was. (ladies please perservere
through what I say) :-) Eve was fooled by the serpent, but there
is no mention of Satan confronting Adam. Adam of his own 'decision',
without cohersion, sinned. We cannot say the reasons why for scripture
does not reveal. Genesis 3:6 So when the woman saw that the tree
was good for food, and that it was a delight to the eyes, and that
the tree was to be desired to make one wise, she took of its fruit
and ate; and she also gave some to her husband, who was with her,
and he ate. Notice: '...who was with her...' Adam was with Eve the
whole time she was talking with the serpent. You are right, he did
not confront Adam BUT, he was there!
Subject: your point? From: Five Sola To: Gene Date Posted: Mon, Feb 21, 2000 at 21:42:04 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Gene, yes I know he (serpent) was there, Your point??? When Adam
decided to sin it was not with the serpent trying to convince him.
five sola
Subject: Re: your point? From: Gene To: Five Sola Date Posted: Tues, Feb 22, 2000 at 04:02:25 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
5, I guess my point is that Adam was right next to Eve when she
was having the conversation with the serpent. That is all! :)
Subject: oh ok! From: Five Sola To: Gene Date Posted: Tues, Feb 22, 2000 at 18:43:51 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
gene, Oh, I just thought you were trying to make a point in contradicting
what I said or showing where I was wrong. Since it doesn't apply
to what I said then I guess it was just a random qoute of scripture.
sorry I thought you were trying to reply to my post. Five Sola
Subject: Re: Sin Without Free Will? Continued From: laz To: ShowMe Date Posted: Mon, Feb 21,
2000 at 12:19:32 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: The point about Enoch is interesting. hmm As for
Noah, now was a sinner and preached repentence. He was justified
as all men are...by grace thru faith in the promises of God. God
being a covenantal God, allowed his family to join him in the ark.
Ps 51:5 Behold, I was shapen in iniquity; and in sin did my mother
conceive me. Sounds like original and imputed sin to me... The sin
nature does not absolve us of responsibility..that's just a pretext
of yours. The doctrine of original sin may or may not be necessary
depending upon what you deem necessary. I say it's biblically derived
and has been at the core of essential christian doctrine since day
one. that's good enough for me. As for hyperbole, Paul in Romans
was very direct in his imperative TEACHINGS.... laz
Subject: Cain, Cainan, and Kenan From: Rod To: laz Date Posted: Mon, Feb 21, 2000 at 13:12:49 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: Hi, laz, As a careful student, you didn't swallow
the suppositions of SM about 'Cain' and 'Cainan' being the same
person. But, being true to the Word of God, you were open to the
truth on the subject. Good for you, my friend and brother! A close
look at the Scripture reveals that the name 'Cainan' is a differnt
word/name from 'Cain,' both in the OT and the New, though they are
very similar. God makes it clear in his Word that these two men
are not the same. In my translation of the Genesis account, 'Cainan'
is designatied 'Kenan' in Gen. 5:1-13. But it is the same person,
the word apparently being 'anglicized' by the translators (possibly
to make this very distinction). When the ungodly 'Cain,' the son
of Adam who sinned willfully, is mentioned in the NT, it is always,
'Cain,' not 'Cainan.' Again the words are close, but not the same.
The context of Gen. 5 makes it clear and indisputable that what
is being considered is Adam's third mentioned son, Seth, and his
lineage, not Cain's. Otherwise, God has a big problem when he describes
the men of verses 6-27 where He presents an unbroken line from Seth
(not Cain, whose lineage was disposed of in the previous chapter)
through Methuselah and down to Noah and his sons in verse 32. There
is no question at all that these two men, 'Cain,' and 'Cainan' are
different men with different ancestors, expect for Adam.
Subject: Re: Cain, Cainan, and Kenan From: laz To: Rod Date Posted: Mon, Feb 21, 2000 at 13:23:28 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Hi, laz, As a careful student, you didn't swallow the suppositions
of SM about 'Cain' and 'Cainan' being the same person. But, being
true to the Word of God, you were open to the truth on the subject.
Good for you, my friend and brother! A close look at the Scripture
reveals that the name 'Cainan' is a differnt word/name 'Cain,' both
in the OT and the New, though they are very similar. God makes it
clear in his Word that these two men are not the same. In my translation
of the Genesis account, 'Cainan' is designatied 'Kenan' in Gen.
5:1-13. But it is the same person, the word apparently being 'anglicized'
by the translators (possibly to make this very distinction). When
the ungodly 'Cain,' the son of Adam who sinned willfully, is mentioned
in the NT, it is always, 'Cain,' not 'Cainan.' Again the words are
close, but not the same. The context of Gen. 5 makes it clear and
indisputable that what is being considered is Adam's third mention
son, Seth, and his lineage, not Cain's. Otherwise, God has a big
problem when he describes the men of verses 6-27 where He presents
an unbroken line from Seth (not Cain, whose lineage was disposed
of in the previous chapter) through Methuselah and down to Noah
and his sons in verse 32. There is no question at all that these
two men, 'Cain,' and 'Cainan' are different men with different ancestors,
expect for Adam. --- I could see that the two were different...but
on first glance, it did appear that a 'prob' existed. I need to
search the matter out further. No Show has yet to explain Eph 2
where we are shown to have a sin nature....clearly!! Eph 2:1 And
you hath he quickened, who were dead in
trespasses and sins; 2 Wherein in time
past ye walked according to the course of this world, according
to the prince of the power of the air, the spirit that now worketh
in the children of disobedience: 3 Among whom also we all had our
conversation in times past in the lusts of our flesh, fulfilling
the desires of the flesh and of the mind; and were by
nature the children of wrath, even as
others. blessings, laz
Subject: Re: Cain, Cainan, and Kenan From: ShowMe To: laz Date Posted: Mon, Feb 21, 2000 at 16:09:16 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Laz, I really don’t know why you refer to me as 'No Show' if I have
missed some of what you have posted I’m sorry but it was not my
intention to dodge any of your points. Please forgive me if I have
done so. I assume that your argument from Ephesians 2:1 goes like
this: 1.Paul says that we were 'dead in transgressions and sins.'
2.Therefore man are born with an inherited sin nature? But Paul
is not necessarily speaking of 'spiritual death' in Ephesians 2:1
or of some inherited sin nature. I certainly don’t dispute that
there is a figure in the Scripture use of the term the dead. But
the question is: Are we to trace the figure in the tense, or in
the radical signification of the terms? I believe that the figure
is in the tense. The unregenerate men are described as the dead,
and dead in sins, because they are certain to die, because they
are under sentence of destruction. That the way the figure of prolepsis
is employed in Gen. 20:3: 'God said to Abimelech, Thou art a dead
man, for Sarah, Abraham's wife.' 'The Egyptians said, We be all
dead men' (Exod. 12:33). 'All my father's house were dead men before
the king' (2 Sam.19:28). The figure in each of these instances is
that of using the present instead of the future tense. The unregenerate
are 'as good as dead.'' Today we the same thing is used in our prison
system for those under the death sentence, whenever they are out
of their cells they are proclaimed to be 'dead men walking.' Sincerely,
ShowMe
Subject: Re: Cain, Cainan, and Kenan From: Tom To: ShowMe Date Posted: Tues, Feb 22, 2000 at 00:45:30 (PST) Email Address:ahardy@rapidnet.net
Message:
ShowMe Judging from your responce that you gave Laz, you didn't
actually read the scripture passage he gave. In Eph 2:3 you missed
the words '; and WERE BY NATURE the children of wrath, even as others.'
A good dictionary will tell you that the word 'nature' means a person's
or thing's essential qualities and characteristics that are innate
to them. Now use a dictionary's defination of the word 'nature'
and use it is context of Eph.2:3, and get back to us. Tom
Subject: Re: Sin Without Free Will? Continued From: Gene To: laz Date Posted: Mon, Feb 21,
2000 at 11:16:19 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Laz, If mankind is not predisposed to sin (on account
of being sinners at conception as I believe the psalmist declared)...why
did God only find one man, Noah, just in His sight? Must be that
mankind is infact predisposed in Adam to sin, sin, sin. For all
have sinned (and WILL sin) and fallen short of the glory of God.
Why else do we sin now but won't in heaven? Genesis 6:9 These are
the records of the generations of Noah. Noah was a righteous man,
blameless in his time; Noah walked with God. Notice: Blameless 'in
his time...' Noah was the 'best one of the bunch.' Compared to everyone
else, he was good! Also, I am assuming you are referring to Psm
51:5; but the text says 'I' (David) but does not say mankind!
Subject: works salvation? From: Five Sola To: Gene Date Posted: Mon, Feb 21, 2000 at 13:00:27 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
'Noah was the 'best one of the bunch.' Compared to everyone else,
he was good!' Oh my! So we just have to have more good then bad.
Become the better then society and we will make it? WOW! so I guess
all those good hindus will make it, eh? Your theology is just slipping
lower and lower. Five Sola
Subject: Re: Sin Without Free Will? Continued From: laz To: Gene Date Posted: Mon, Feb 21,
2000 at 12:21:39 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Laz, If mankind is not predisposed to sin (on account
of being sinners at conception as I believe the psalmist declared)...why
did God only find one man, Noah, just in His sight? Must be that
mankind is infact predisposed in Adam to sin, sin, sin. For all
have sinned (and WILL sin) and fallen short of the glory of God.
Why else do we sin now but won't in heaven? Genesis 6:9 These are
the records of the generations of Noah. Noah was a righteous man,
blameless in his time; Noah walked with God. Notice: Blameless 'in
his time...' Noah was the 'best one of the bunch.' Compared to everyone
else, he was good! Also, I am assuming you are referring to Psm
51:5; but the text says 'I' (David) but does not say mankind!
--- Good but NOT good enough....he was saved by Jesus' future
atonement by grace thru faith as all the elect are...unless you
are RC and believe Mary was sinless. The truth is that a believers
are PERFECT, being IN CHRIST...so, like Enoch and Noah, we TOO are
'good' in the most important sense (justified)....yet not without
sin of our own...lest we prove ourselves to be liars (1 Jn1:8).
As for David, the man after God's own heart, the prototypical King
of Kings....give me a break. We are all conceived in sin.... laz
Subject: Psalm 22:6 From: Gene To: laz Date Posted: Mon, Feb 21, 2000 at 14:18:15 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Laz, I agree we are all sinners like Noah, Enoch, etc. BUT, Psm
51:5 does not say 'all men' it just says, 'I' (David).... Are you
also going to take Psm 22:6 literally (as you 'try' with 51:5)?
'But I (David) am a worm, and not a man...' I guess this means ALL
of mankind are worms?!
Subject: Re: Psalm 22:6 From: laz To: Gene Date Posted: Mon, Feb 21, 2000 at 14:59:11 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Laz, I agree we are all sinners like Noah, Enoch, etc. BUT, Psm
51:5 does not say 'all men' it just says, 'I' (David).... Are you
also going to take Psm 22:6 literally (as you 'try' with 51:5)?
'But I (David) am a worm, and not a man...' I guess this means ALL
of mankind are worms?! --- gee, Gene... I guess that means
that David was really NOT a man either, eh? laz p.s.I think I can
safely imply that David was identifying with every person who is
born of a woman....yeeesh man....besides, it all fits so well with
the rest of scripture...which by the way, interprets itself.
Subject: Re: Psalm 22:6 From: Gene To: laz Date Posted: Mon, Feb 21, 2000 at 15:17:54 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Laz, If you take 51:5 literally you have to do the same for 22:6
(both are poetry). You cannot get your 'Calvinist' doctrine from
this verse! This 'kindergarden' evidence shows how silly it is to
take one poetic verse literally and the other figurativly. Geeee
laz! Romans, is another story....
Subject: Re: Psalm 22:6 From: laz To: Gene Date Posted: Mon, Feb 21, 2000 at 15:32:46 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Laz, If you take 51:5 literally you have to do the same for 22:6
(both are poetry). You cannot get your 'Calvinist' doctrine from
this verse! This 'kindergarden' evidence shows how silly it is to
take one poetic verse literally and the other figurativly. Geeee
laz! Romans, is another story.... --- ******** Excuse me
but this 'poetry' is revealing simple truths....even prophetic truths...to
be understood and believed in their intended form and meaning in
light of the whole counsel of God. Jesus spoke figuratively as well
as literally...but only an Elect person was privy to tell the difference...those
given eyes to see and ears to hear. Sorry, your novel interpretations
(like Gen 3:15) renders scripture and the redemptive history it
reveals to no avail. Besides, I take neither literally for how on
earth is one 'shapened in iniquity'? Don't make me break out you
know which verse! hahaha! laz
Subject: Re: Psalm 22:6 From: Gene To: laz Date Posted: Tues, Feb 22, 2000 at 04:12:53 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
NO!!!!!!!!!!!!!! Any verse but 1 Cor 2:14!!!!!!!!!!!!
Subject: Sinless Mary From: ShowMe To: laz Date Posted: Mon, Feb 21, 2000 at 13:09:17 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Laz, In your post to Gene you mention Mary, that brings up another
problem with the doctrine of an inherited sin nature. Augustine
realized this when he used the argument of an inherited sin nature
against Pelagius. Augustine said: 'We must
except the holy Virgin Mary. Out of respect for the Lord, I do not
intend to raise a single question of the subject of sin. After all,
how do we know what abundance of grace was granted to her who had
the merit to conceive and bring forth Him who was unquestionably
without sin?' Council of Trent, decreed
in 1546 AD, 'The doctrine of the conception
of all men in sin was not intended to include the Virgin.' Do you see the problem with an inherited sin nature?
Since Mary is the source of the humanity of Jesus then if Mary had
an inherited sin nature she would pass that sin nature on to Jesus.
The Bible teaches that Jesus became one of us: Gal.4:4 But when
the fullness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, MADE
OF A WOMAN, made under the law. He was born of a woman. He was the
seed of Abraham, the offspring of David, DESCENDED from Adam. Matt.
1:1, Rom.1:3, Heb.2:16, Rev.22:16. Jesus Christ the God/Man derived
His humanity from Adam through Mary and this doctrine of an inherited
sin nature is the reason that the Roman Catholics teach that Mary
was sinless, without a sin nature. What other choice do they have?
Heb.2:14 Forasmuch then as the children are partakers of flesh and
blood, he also himself likewise took part of THE
SAME; that through death he might destroy
him that had the power of death, that is, the devil; Heb.2:16. For
verily he took not on him the nature of angels; but he took on him
the SEED OF ABRAHAM. Heb.2:17 Wherefore IN
ALL THINGS it behooved him to be made
like unto his brethren, that he might be a merciful and faithful
high priest . . . Heb.4:15. For we have not an high priest which
can not be touched with the feelings of our infirmities; but was
IN ALL POINTS tempted like as we, yet without sin. How could it
be true that he was tempted in all points like we are if He did
not have the same nature as we? And is it not true that the word
'yet' in the statement 'yet without sin' would lose all its force
and meaning if Christ had not been tempted in the same human nature
as we have, yet without sin? The doctrine that teaches that we have
an inherited sin nature is not Scriptural, and it causes contradictions
where there are no contradictions. Sincerely, ShowMe
Subject: Unwarrented assumptions From: Rod To: ShowMe Date Posted: Mon, Feb 21, 2000 at 15:02:33 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: SM, So does your post above denote that you are,
in fact, RCC? Your words: 'Since Mary is the source of the humanity
of Jesus then if Mary had an inherited sin nature she would pass
that sin nature on to Jesus.' Please note that the Lord Jesus is
to be the 'seed of the woman' in Gen. 3:15, specifically not Adam's
seed. Very important. His Father, from whom the indications and
implications of the Bible are that one receives his nature, was
God. Please note very carefully the lineage in Luke 3 you mentioned
in another post. The Bible always emphasizes that the Lord Jesus
was God's Son, not Adam's. Luke indentifies that by noting that
Joseph, His 'supposed father,' actually wasn't involved at all.
The lineage here is that of Mary, as I'm sure you know. It goes
back to Adam, who sinned and sinned for all his offspring, including
Mary. In verse 38, this Adam ('man') is identified as the created
'son of God.' But there was another, 'Son,' the eternal Son, Who
wasn't created, but Who was always God. He is, God's Son in every
sense, and Mary was the chosen 'vessel' by which God brought forth
His Son in human form, making Him truly man in every sense of the
Word. But the emphasis is that He, and
He alone, was sinless and perfect: 'And
the angel answered, and said unto her, The Holy Spirit shall come
upon thee, and the power of the highest shall overshadow thee; therefore, that holy thing which shall be born of thee
shall be called the Son of God' (Luke
1:36). 'The Son of God,' not 'the son of Jopseph,' nor the 'son
of Mary.' He had no human father, and thus, no inherited sin nature,
no curse from Adam's sin. God was His Father and His whole purpose,
when Scripture is compared to Scripture, is to show that He, while
being human and fully so, was not sinful, nor was He capable of
it, as was the 'created son,' the 'first Adam.' He was the Word
of John 1:1, Who was God and was with God. He was the 'Word made
['become,' become of His own choice, as God] flesh' to 'tabernacle
among us' of John 1:14. It is significant that you cited Galations
in this regard: 'Gal.4:4 But when the fullness of the time was come,
God sent forth his Son, MADE OF A WOMAN, made under the law. He
was born of a woman. He was the seed of Abraham, the offspring of
David, DESCENDED from Adam.' But, you didn't actually quote the
verse. The verse definitely says, before it says, 'made of a woman,'
that 'In the fullness of time, God sent forth his son [whose? not
Mary's], made of a woman, made under the law....' And again, the
word 'made' is the same word as 'made' in John 1:14. It is an action
of 'becoming' what He choses, a decisive action on the part of God.
Compare Heb. 10:5, where the Spirit of God has the writer say, 'A
body thou hast prepared me.' The 'preparation' of that body wasn't
Mary's, though she was the instrument God used, but it was God's,
so that He could be a Lamb, without spot or blemish. 'For what the
law could not do, in that it was weak through
the flesh [of sinful man], God sending
forth his own Son, in the likeness of [a similarity, a resemblance,
not the same] sinful
flesh and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh' (Rom. 8:3). Thus,
God sent His Son, who by the teaching of the Scripture was His Son
prior to His
having been sent, His eternal Son, God, the Second Person of the
Trinity, to accomplish His will as the second and 'last Adam.' God
'made him [in the causative sense] who knew no sin to be sin for
us that we might be made the rightousness of God in him' (2 Cor.
5:21). The words 'knew no sin' are very significant. He actually
and in fact knew more about sin than any other human ever could,
being joined with the divine nature into One complete Person, but,
because He was so intimately associtated in unity with that divine
Nature and was God Who had chosen to 'become' fliesh in a specially
prepared body, He was free from knowing sin in Himself, except by
imputation by the Father, by prior counsel in eternity. In that
sense, He completed the perfect plan of God, His own plan in reality.
He came as a vastly different 'Adam,' from the first, who resulted
in the problem, because he could and did sin. He came to redeem
His own (see Matt. 1:21 and Gal. 4:5), bringing them to ultimate
'glorification' (see Rom. 8:30) by making possible our adoption
by God, as purified from sin through Himself, as adult 'sons' into
glory with the Father with Him (Rom. 8:14-17; Gal. 4:5). Paul outlines
it all very clearly in 1 Cor. 15:20-57). Thank God for His marvelous,
sovereign grace!
Subject: Re: Unwarrented assumptions From: clark To: Rod Date Posted: Tues, Feb 22, 2000 at 04:58:42 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Rod-- You said 'Please note that the Lord Jesus is to be the 'seed
of the woman' in Gen. 3:15, specifically not Adam's seed. Very important.'
Is the sin nature then passed only through the father, and not the
mother? The mother doesn't pass on HER sin nature, the children
only get their fathers sin nature? Sound pretty good to me--it's
all their father's fault. (ha ha, couldn't resist)
Subject: Re: Unwarrented assumptions From: Rod To: clark Date Posted: Tues, Feb 22, 2000 at 11:25:37 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: Hi, clark, When I was preaching and teaching, I usually
avoided jokes and asides about the issue of 'men/women, better/worse.'
Even though meant in good fun, every time I did it or observed someone
else doing it, someone got upset. It detracted from the prupose
of the message: to glorify God in Christ. Some people really have
a 'burr under their saddle' about this. :>) I'm not one of those.
Yes, the way I understand the Scripture, the woman passes on her
attributes and characteristics in the offspring, but isn't responsible
for the curse of sin and its consequences being passed on, as Pilgrim
explained below. 'In Adam,' our representative, 'all die.' According
to the NT, Eve was 'deceived' (1 Tim. 2:14); Adam was deliberately
rebellious. Neither man, nor woman, comes off looking very well!
:>)
Subject: Re: Unwarrented assumptions From: Pilgrim To: clark Date Posted: Tues, Feb 22, 2000 at 07:37:26 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Rod-- You said 'Please note that the Lord Jesus is to be the 'seed
of the woman' in Gen. 3:15, specifically not Adam's seed. Very important.'
Is the sin nature then passed only through the father, and not the
mother? The mother doesn't pass on HER sin nature, the children
only get their fathers sin nature? Sound pretty good to me--it's
all their father's fault. (ha ha, couldn't resist) ---
Clark, The sin nature and the guilt which our first father Adam
merited for himself and all his progeny is IMPUTED. Eve was not
the Federal Head of the human race, but under Adam's authority as
per God's original institution of both the corporate solidarity
of mankind and marriage. So as men are still the God-ordained 'head',
it is through them that the corruption comes. Let's not forget,
that although Adam was indeed responsible for the corruption and
damnation of the race, Eve was the initial transgressor and was
the proximate cause for Adam's horrid transgression. :-) In His
Precious Blood, Pilgrim
Subject: Re: Unwarrented assumptions From: ShowMe To: Rod Date Posted: Mon, Feb 21, 2000 at 16:13:15 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Rod, I am most certainly NOT Roman Catholic but I have, of course,
studied that religion and I have given the reason for there necessity
to teach the sinlessness of Mary. The rest of your post, if taken
seriously, would require one to deny that Jesus Christ came in the
flesh, because it does away with any real sense of His having become
Man, and it does away with Jesus as our substitute because you have
Him becoming something other than what we are. The doctrine of an
inherited sin nature is, as far as I can ascertain, simply not Scriptural
and it does a great deal of harm to Christianity. Sincerely, ShowMe
Subject: Another unwarranted assumption From: Rod To: ShowMe Date Posted: Tues, Feb 22, 2000 at 12:43:23 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: SM--'The rest of your post, if taken seriously, would
require one to deny that Jesus Christ came in the flesh, because
it does away with any real sense of His having become Man, and it
does away with Jesus as our substitute because you have Him becoming
something other than what we are.' Here's another great mystery
about your logic: how One born of a human female isn't come 'in
the flesh!' It is impossible for a Person not to be flesh, if He is born of a human
mother! The Lord Jesus was born of a human mother; He was flesh,
human, but not 'sinful flesh,' which is 'weak' toward the righteousness
of God (Rom. 8:3). He was in no way 'weak' toward God, being god
Himself come into the world, in order to 'save his people from their
sins' (Matt. 1:21, note the specificity fo that statement). That
same Rom. 8:3 declares that He was in the 'likeness' of sinful flesh,
but not, of course, exactly like it, because He 'condemned sin in the flesh.' He
did that because He 'became flesh and tabernacled among us,' but
He was much more than 'us.' We don't need any more of 'us,' any
more sinners, we need Someone Who could, in the flesh, rescue us
from sin. The Lord Jesus did that. It brings the Lord of the universe
down to our level to say that He was exactly like us in respect
to association with sin, when God says the opposite. That is abomination.
Subject: John 1:14...again! From: Gene To: Rod Date Posted: Tues, Feb 22, 2000 at 14:11:14 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Rod, That same Rom. 8:3 declares that He was in the 'likeness' of
sinful flesh, but not, of course, exactly like it, because He 'condemned
sin in the flesh.' John 1:14 says he was flesh. Not 'as' or 'like'
but SARX! Oops...does this mean you are about to leave again? Sorry!
Subject: Wrong assumption...again! From: Rod To: Gene Date Posted: Tues, Feb 22, 2000 at 15:43:54 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: But, Gene, again you miss the point. I just pointed
out in the previous post that He was flesh--I went to great lenghts
to point it out. He is flesh, human flesh, yet He is not 'sinful'
flesh, but only in the likeness of that. That's why John 1:14 points
out that the Word (God) became flesh. It is real, actual, human
flesh being spoken of, which, as Adam's sinless state in the Garden
proved, doesn't have
to be sinful! It is only 'sinful flesh' if it is descended from
Adam after his sin. Adam was created in God's image, but he "begot
a son in his own likeness, after his image," as are all his
descendants (see Gen. 5:1-3). This is a simple concept, Gene, and
the reason that, in John 1:14, the actual 'flesh' is spoken of,
and why in Rom. 8:3 that actual flesh is spoken of in elaboration
as 'in the LIKENESS OF,'
not the actuality of, 'SINFUL flesh.' He was Man, but He was not exactly the same as
other men because He had no sin nature. If He had been the same
as we are, there could have been no perfect offering. This is the
whole point of God's going to such great lengths in the Scriptures
to prove that the Lord Jesus wasn't descended from Adam (see Luke
3). He was God's Son, God come in the flesh, 'for sin, [and He]
condemned sin in the flesh.' Anyone grasping the salvation of God
through a sinless substitutionary Sacrifice must realize that.
Subject: Re: Unwarrented assumptions From: Rod To: ShowMe Date Posted: Tues, Feb 22, 2000 at 02:50:54 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: SM--'The doctrine of an inherited sin nature is,
as far as I can ascertain, simply not Scriptural and it does a great
deal of harm to Christianity. ' On the contrary, it is the cause of Christianity, man's
helplessness dictating the need for a sinless Savior to accomplish
what man's weak sinful 'flesh' (his nature) made it impossible for
the creature to do.
Subject: Context, context, context From: Rod To: Gene Date Posted: Mon, Feb 21, 2000 at 11:35:38 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: Gene, In the previous verse, eight, in Genesis, God
made grace available to Noah; hence Noah 'found' it when no one
else did. We know from Rom. 3:24 and Eph. 2:5,8 that it is grace
which saves. Noah was saved in the same way everyone else who is
saved is saved: by grace and through resultant faith, 'the gift
of God.' Then in verse 9, because God saved Noah by grace, he was
'blameless,' or 'perfect.' The word used leaves no doubt that he
alone was so gifted among all the people of the earth at that time.
This is amply proved by his being brought safely through the awesome
judgment of God by His marvelous provision. You've placed the emphasis
on the wrong phrase, as the immediate and general context reveals.
Subject: Re: Context, context, context From: Gene To: Rod Date Posted: Mon, Feb 21, 2000 at 14:29:09 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Rod, I guess if he was 'perfect' he would not have had a drinking
problem. He was blameless 'among the people of his time'(NIV). He
chose Noah because of his conduct UNLIKE Abraham. No such epithet
was ascribed to him! No doubt, grace was there because God should
have destroyed everyone!
Subject: Re: Context, context, context From: Rod To: Gene Date Posted: Mon, Feb 21, 2000 at 15:25:04 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: Gene, You're again not considering the context, but
making it fit your own conception of 'righteousness.' You simply
must compare Scripture to Scripture and must understand 'imputed righteousness' as
God's Word decalres it. It is the only righteousness God will accept
or which man can obtain. Man can 'obtain' that only by it's being
gifted to him, 'by grace...through faith.' "And the LORD said
unto Noah, Come thou and all thy house into the ark, for thee have
I seen righteous before me in this generation" (Gen. 7:1).
How could God have seen a sinful man "righteous?" God's
Word makes it clear that "all have sinned, and come short of
the glory of God" (Rom. 3:23). But God "viewed" Noah
as righteous because He had imputed righteousness to the man. He
was "positionally sanctified," one of God's "saints,"
being "justified freely by grace" (Rom. 3:24) resulting
the the "justification by his faith" (Rom. 3:26). The
fact that Noah wasn't actually 'righteous' in himself and, therefore,
'blameless' in all his acts illustrates precisely the point you're
missing, 'there is none righteous, no not one,' in and of himself.
As Romans 3-4 (I implore you, please read this, asking God to show
you the truth) demonstrates, man must receive, as Abraham, Noah,
and everyone else ever saved by God was gifted with righteousness imputed to him, as did
Abraham, who certainly sinned after the imputation, as the Bible
makes clear. If you're going to believe the Bible, you must take
and believe it all, Gene. May God open your eyes to His grace and
give you saving faith.
Subject: For 'Don't Show Me' From: Rod To: ShowMe Date Posted: Mon, Feb 21, 2000 at 10:16:01 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: SM, I won't answer for Pilgrim, but I'd like to make
a couple of observations. The first is this: Your handle, Show Me,
is indicative of an agressive and militant attitude which can't
be shown anything, as I've mentioned before. Your mind is made up
and all you want to do is to debate. Second, there have been people
here previously who consider themselves, 'missionaries to the Calvinists.'
One wonders if you're one of those returned? Third, one wonders
why you feel this compulsion to come on a board such as this to
argue the membership out of their carefully arrived at beliefs?
Have you read the purpose of this board, investigating the site
before you came in with both guns blazing? The final observation
is a piece of advice, which I thoroughly expect you to ignore. For
your own sake, you should be very wary of speaking so disparagingly
of the precepts of the Lord God, plainly given through His Apostles.
Subject: Re: For 'Don't Show Me' From: ShowMe To: Rod Date Posted: Mon, Feb 21, 2000 at 10:47:50 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Rod, You wrote: 'The first is this: Your
handle, Show Me, is indicative of an agressive and militant attitude
which can't be shown anything, as I've mentioned before. Your mind
is made up and all you want to do is to debate. ' You are simply wrong in your accusation. The handle I
chose was one that was suppose to weed out posts like yours. 'Empty
rhetoric,' apparently it did not work. I notice that people tend
to accuse others of those faults that they have in themselves. I’m
not the one with the aggressive and militant attitude, I think that
anyone reading your posts will see that that description fits you
much better. You seem to have the need to pick a fight with anyone
that does not conform to your system of theology. You wrote: 'Second, there have been people here previously who
consider themselves, 'missionaries to the Calvinists.' One wonders
if you're one of those returned?' I certainly
do not consider myself a missionary to Calvinists or to anyone else
for that matter. You apparently believe that this forum is for you
to preach your message, while I thought that it was a place for
the discussion of theology. There’s a lot that I do not understand
in all the systems of theology that are used to divide Christians
one from another. I don’t know of any of them that hold all the
truth so I must study each in order to find my way. You wrote: 'Third, one wonders why you feel this compulsion to
come on a board such as this to argue the membership out of their
carefully arrived at beliefs? Have you read the purpose of this
board, investigating the site before you came in with both guns
blazing?' I really have no interest at
all in arguing anyone 'out of their carefully arrived at beliefs.'
It really doesn’t matter much at all to me what others believe.
I’m more interested in testing and confirming my own beliefs and
I can think of no better place right now than on forums like this
to do that. You wrote: 'The final observation
is a piece of advice, which I thoroughly expect you to ignore. For
your own sake, you should be very wary of speaking so disparagingly
of the precepts of the Lord God, plainly given through His Apostles.' If they are so 'plainly given' then why are Christians
so divided over doctrine? I have done nothing wrong here, you are
simply way out of line. God does not expect me to blindly accept
what you or anyone else says, I’ll continue to search the Scripture
to see if these things are true. Sincerely, ShowMe
Subject: Dear Senior 'Show Me' From: Hesed To: ShowMe Date Posted: Mon, Feb 21, 2000 at 15:35:24 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Dear Senior Show Me, I agree with you that this should be a place
to discuss our differences and hopefuly learn. I think some however
are feeling frustrated that you do not seem to be finding satisfaction?
Perhaps no one has answered your objection??? I don't know about
that exact term 'sin nature' but scripture does seem to speak of
a tendency towards sin that when followed by one's free uncoherced
will leads one to sin and bondage. I think the biblical view is
that when a person is born again of the Holy Spirit that one has
a new tendency introduced by which one may escape the call of the
sin tendency to do God's righteous will (freely uncoherced). Until
this 'new tendency' is introduced man of his own freewill uncoherced
by anything or anyone external to himself opts for the sin tendency!
He does so because sin is a powerful motivational force which entices
man to follow its ways. But the Holy Spirit is a greater motivational
force and therefore we may overcome evil by his leadingship, is
we freely choose him over the sin tendency. 'Do you not know that
if you yield yourselves to any one as obedient slaves, you are slaves
of the one whom you obey, either sin, which leads to death, or obedience
which leads to righteousness. But thanks be to God, that you who
were once slaves of sin have become obedient from from the heart
to the standard of teaching to which you were committed, and, having
been set free from sin, have become slaves of righteousness' Ro.
6:16-17. To Yield and obey are acts of choice. It is man himself
not sin that is doing these.One is either a slave of sin or a slave
of righteousness, however to be a slave of righteousness is to be
free from sin which is true freedom. To choose contrary to God's
standard of teaching is called death not freedom in scripture, Gen.2:16-17.
Man who chooses death is in a state of death until resurrected by
the power of God's Spirit. Then and only then may it be said that
he is free to eat the fruit of God's fellowship unto eternal life!
'Sin is couching at the door; its desire is for you but you must
master it' Gen.4:7. Is this text, an offer of grace to Cain so that
he may master sin or is it infering that Cain has the ability to
go either way (a choice similar to Adam?) In His Sovereign love,
Hesed
Subject: Dear Senior 'Show Me' From: laz To: No Show Date Posted: Mon, Feb 21, 2000 at 15:46:59 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
CLearly the call, no COMMAND, to repent applies to every person
alive...yet, only those infallibly drawn CAN come. John 6:44 No
man can come to me, except the Father which hath sent me draw him:
and I will raise him up at the last day. No Show... If Adam's sin
has not been imputed to all mankind ... why do babies die? And what
DID happen to Adam the day he sinned? Wasn't he supposed to die?
laz Eph 2:1 And you hath he quickened, who
were dead in trespasses and sins; 2 Wherein
in time past ye walked according to the course of this world, according
to the prince of the power of the air, the spirit that now worketh
in the children of disobedience: 3 Among whom also we all had our
conversation in times past in the lusts of our flesh, fulfilling
the desires of the flesh and of the mind; and were by nature the
children of wrath, even as others.
Subject: Re: Dear Senior 'Show Me' From: ShowMe To: laz Date Posted: Mon, Feb 21, 2000 at 16:31:18 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Laz, You Ask: 'If Adam's sin has not been
imputed to all mankind ... why do babies die?'
I have never said that Adam’s sin was not imputed to us! But that
certainly does not mean that Adam or anyone else received a so-called
'sin nature' that forces people to sin. In one of my early posts
I explained that all die because of Adam's sin, that post is still
available. You Ask: 'And what DID happen
to Adam the day he sinned? Wasn't he supposed to die? ' I believe the Scriptures say 'dying you shall die.' That
very day Adam was separated from the Tree of Life, God even set
Cherubims at the entrance to keep them out 'Dying ye shall die'
death was certain. Gen. 3:22 And the LORD God said, Behold, the
man is become as one of us, to know good and evil: and now, lest
he put forth his hand, and take also of the tree of life, and eat,
and live for ever: Gen. 3:23 Therefore the LORD God sent him forth
from the garden of Eden, to till the ground from whence he was taken.
Gen. 3:24 So he drove out the man; and he placed at the east of
the garden of Eden Cherubims, and a flaming sword which turned every
way, to keep the way of the tree of life. I have already answered
your question on Eph.2:1 in another post. Sincerely, ShowMe
Subject: Re: Dear Senior 'Show Me' From: Gene To: ShowMe Date Posted: Tues, Feb 22, 2000 at 04:08:35 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Good post! Adam was made mortal. The scriptures show that the only
way they could live forever is if they ate from the tree of life.
Even in their sinful state they could have eaten and lived forever,
BUT, God did not want them to so he 'posted the guard.' Excellent
post.
Subject: Re: Dear Senior 'Show Me' From: Pilgrim To: Gene Date Posted: Tues, Feb 22, 2000 at 07:46:00 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Gene, You are presuming much which has not been proven. Who is to
say that Adam and Eve were not partakers of the 'Tree of Life' while
they habitated the Garden on a regular basis? What warrant is there
to presume that 'eternal life' would be realized if they ate of
the 'Tree of Life'; specifically one time and one time only? You
seem to be implying that to eat of the 'Tree of Life' is analogous
to taking a 'magic pill'! Pilgrim
Subject: Re: Dear Senior 'Show Me' From: Gene To: Pilgrim Date Posted: Tues, Feb 22, 2000 at 14:07:29 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Pilgrim, I am presuming they did not partake of the tree of life
BECAUSE it does not say they did. The text in question says that
God kicked them out of the garden so that they would not eat of
the tree and live forever. Whether it had to be continuous or just
one time the text does not say. Bottom line: God did not want them
to live forever so he cast them out of the garden which would have
cut off their access to the tree of life. Which also means physical
death did not come from eating of the tree of knowledge. Even in
their sinful state they could have eaten from the tree of life and
lived forever. It's all there in the text.
Subject: The Highway UPDATE! From: Pilgrim To: All Date Posted: Sun, Feb 20, 2000 at 10:15:18 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
As some of you might know, I have
been absorbed in a very important project over the past couple of
months. It has been my desire to republish a now out of print book
that I feel is sorely needed to be made available once again to
the children of God. Dr. Francis Nigel Lee, through the auspices
of the L.D.O.S. (Lord's Day Observance Society) published a momentous
work [one of his doctrinal dissertations] back in 1965. It was entitled,
The Covenantal Sabbath.
It is my personal conviction that this work is to the subject of
the Christian Sabbath as John Owen's work, The
Death of Death in the Death of Christ
is to the doctrine of the atonement. I believe it is a definitive
work which has never heretofore been rivaled. Doubtless, it will
require the reader's utmost attention as it is quite long and detailed.
However, those of you whose true desire is to gain knowledge for
the purpose of growing in Christ will 'endure to the end.' Due to
the limitations which unfortunately is inherent in the medium of
the Internet, as compared to having a hard copy of a book, I have
striven to make the publication of this work as 'reader friendly'
as possible. You will notice that the voluminous amount of footnotes
have all been linked to the text, so that one can simply click on
the superscripted footnote notation and bring up the relevant reference,
so that the information in the footnotes can be consulted immediately
without having to scroll down to end of the chapter to read it.
One need only to then click the 'Back' button to return to the text
proper. Further, the format is 'printer friendly' for those of you
who wish to have a hard copy. May the LORD, by His Holy Spirit bless
each of you unto your edification through this marvelous work, as
much as He has blessed me personally. You may find this book from
The Highway home page in the 'Calvinism and the Reformed Faith'
section under the 'Praxis' heading and/or by clicking here: The Covenantal Sabbath
In His Precious Blood, Pilgrim
Subject: FYI From: stan To: ALL Date
Posted: Fri, Feb 18, 2000
at 15:08:47 (PST) Email
Address:Not Provided
Message: Just ran across this today and thought
some might be interested. http://www.ageslibrary.com/gill.html
Subject: extra info From: kevin
To: everyone Date
Posted: Fri, Feb 18, 2000
at 19:07:02 (PST) Email
Address:Not Provided
Message: Also look for Joh Owen and Arthur Pink
there as well. In Him, kevin sdg
Subject: clarification From: Rod To: All Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 17, 2000 at 16:48:52 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: mebaser (and possibly others) seems to think that
I have some 'sinister' agenda in regard to Gene and that I deliberately
try to provoke him. Allow me to clear the air. My sole purpose is
to alert Gene to his errors, which are all based on the undeniable
fact of his unbelief, his not being saved. Is it 'evil,' mebaser,
to do so? Apparently that's your interpretation. I think that's
the right thing to do. It involves no personal vendetta, or mean
feelings. I would treat any false professor the same, particularly
if he continually ridiculed the truth of God. I'm very 'democratic'
in that regard. Gene represents no personal threat to me, and my
ego isn't involved in my responses to him. mebaser, you have said
that I made a 'false accusation' against Gene. The only thing I've
said which I can think of which you might be referencing is that
he couldn't understand Pilgrim's response below. Now, mebaser, surely
you didn't think that I was insulting his intelligence or ability
to read ordinary words. The reference was to his inability to understand
the Scriptures generally because of the fact that he isn't saved
and enabled to do so by God's Spirit. That point should have been
crystal clear to anyone really reading the post. Do you believe
that unsaved people can understand on the same level as we Christians?
Surely not! Does Gene understand the Scriptures with the same level
of appreciation of Christians? Surely not! Those are facts. And
I think it's a fact that Gene never really recognized before that
his question revealed his disrespect for God. I think he needs to
be alerted to his error. I'm not 'goading him unnecessary' and 'bullying
him,' as you seem to suspect. I was trying to tell him that that
sort of question involves answers beyond his understanding because
he is lost, a fact he denies, even as he denies the true nature
of the Savior. I personally don't believe it's 'cruel' to point
out the truth to Gene, or any other lost person. He is headed for
a certain eternity of torment unspeakable. He can only be saved
by God's truth, that's my motive in showing him the Scriptures,
though you ascribe others to me by inference and implication. That,
mebaser, is a false accusation.
Subject: Re: clarification From: mebaser To: Rod Date Posted: Fri, Feb 18, 2000 at 08:18:14 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Dear Rod, Thank you for the clarification, and the opportunity for
me to clarify myself as well. First off, I don't believe that you
have a sinister agenda in regards to Gene, I just think you are
bringing down the hammer of rebuke on Gene a little harder than
it needs to (and I DO belive it needs to be done). Second, it is
not evil to alert Gene to his error, but being the fact that we
are all imperfect humans, it is possible that doing a good thing
like alerting Gene to his error can be done in a bad way. Third,
the 'false accusation' that I refer to came from the first thread
in which you engaged Gene, about the inspiratin of Leviticus. I
still hold to that the 'gist' of his query does not indicate, as
you say it does, a denial of the plenary inspiration of the book
of Leviticus. Surely I know that a non-saved person is not able
to discern spritual truth (as Genes favorite verse explains, 1 Corinthians
2:14). But I am not trying to show that Gene can. I agree with you
on that point. As to whether or not your demeanor is cruel to Gene,
I believe its less than gracious (but remember, I do believe it
needs to be done), and goes against 1 Peter 3:15's command to do
so with gentleness and reverence. I do not believe that Gene has
been dealt with to the point that Jesus did with the religious rulers
of His day. There is a time and place for direct and harsh confrontation,
but I think you've jumped the gun on Gene. There's my bit, thanks
for reading. In Christ, mebaser
Subject: Concerning the 'false accusation.' From: Rod To: mebaser Date Posted: Fri, Feb 18, 2000 at 10:42:40 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: Mebaser, dear friend in Christ and brother in the
Lord, Thank you for your honest reply. :>) If I had made the
judgment about Gene's statement on Leviticus based solely on that
statement, it would have been flimsy, indeed. But, knowing his feelings
on inspiration, the Triune God, Moses' role in Leviticus and the
writing of it, it was pretty apparent to me what his views were
and where he was going. Based on his own testimony and track record,
I don't think I made an unfair judgment in any sense of the word.
Actually, I'm convinced that it was both accurate and fair. I am
not Gene's enemy. Actually, if he comes to Christ, whether through
my witness being used by God positively, or negatively to spur him
to study and the positive witness of someone else being the immediate
means, I would have been Gene's 'friend' all along in either case,
having presented him the truth of God which God sovereignly used
to his ultimate benefit. He would be, in Christ, a beloved brother,
as you are. I pray it will be so that he becomes a brother. I repeat,
I'm not Gene's enemy, but the conflict arises because, as Romans
8 teaches, he is the non-believing enemy of God at this point. Being
more than merely an avowed non-believer, he is a professed believer
in a false Christ, 'another gospel,' which God pronounces as 'cursed
of God' (Gal. 1:8; 1 Cor. 16:22). This is very serious stuff and
not to be taken lightly. Gene should be aware of the consequences,
as the Word of God is his only means of salvation, humanly speaking.
He must know and believe that truth.
Subject: Thanks From: mebaser To: Rod Date Posted: Fri, Feb 18, 2000 at 18:50:56 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Mebaser, dear friend in Christ and brother in the Lord, Thank you
for your honest reply. :>) If I had made the judgment about Gene's
statement on Leviticus based solely on that statement, it would
have been flimsy, indeed. But, knowing his feelings on inspiration,
the Triune God, Moses' role in Leviticus and the writing of it,
it was pretty apparent to me what his views were and where he was
going. Based on his own testimony and track record, I don't think
I made an unfair judgment in any sense of the word. Actually, I'm
convinced that it was both accurate and fair. I am not Gene's enemy.
Actually, if he comes to Christ, whether through my witness being
used by God positively, or negatively to spur him to study and the
positive witness of someone else being the immediate means, I would
have been Gene's 'friend' all along in either case, having presented
him the truth of God which God sovereignly used to his ultimate
benefit. He would be, in Christ, a beloved brother, as you are.
I pray it will be so that he becomes a brother. I repeat, I'm not
Gene's enemy, but the conflict arises because, as Romans 8 teaches,
he is the non-believing enemy of God at this point. Being more than
merely an avowed non-believer, he is a professed believer in a false
Christ, 'another gospel,' which God pronounces as 'cursed of God'
(Gal. 1:8; 1 Cor. 16:22). This is very serious stuff and not to
be taken lightly. Gene should be aware of the consequences, as the
Word of God is his only means of salvation, humanly speaking. He
must know and believe that truth. --- Dear Rod, I too want
to be frank when I say that I count you as a dear brother in the
Lord. I agree completely with your post above and I hope that God
would bring Gene to saving faith. I feel that I said my piece, and
I hope you take it as a friendly gist as to what I saw. But as I
see the response you gave to Gene today, I feel that I need not
say more. You are more than able to deal with this man, and I see
that your effort is seriously directed with confronting Gene with
his need to humble himself in the sight of the Lord. I say amen
to your post to him, and your effort to bring the light of the gospel.
In Christ, mebaser
Subject: How do you know? From: Gene To: Rod Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 17, 2000 at 18:48:33 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Rod, How do you know I am not saved? I could be one of the elect.
Does an elect person have to think like you? Can you say for sure
my name is not written in the book of life? Based on your posts
(not knowing your lifestyle)I would have no problem thinking yours
is. Being an elect has no bearing on what I do or say or believe.
Is it not all God's call?
Subject: Christians believe, first and foremost From: Rod To: Gene Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 17,
2000 at 19:41:10 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: in the Lord Jesus Christ, in the full meaning of
the title and all its implications--you know our stance by now.
Christ is God. Christians are Trinitarian. You have stated on this
forum that the Lord Jesus isn't God and you evidently hate the concept
of the Trinity. In short, you are known from your testimony.
Subject: Re: Christians believe, first and foremost From: Gene To: Rod Date Posted: Fri, Feb 18,
2000 at 02:47:19 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: But Calvinism teaches my salvation is not up to me.
It does not depend on what I do, say, or believe. If I am the elect
then there is nothing I can do to become the 'non-elect' and vis
versa. Is this not what Calvin taught and believed? Surely man is
not saved by what they believe?
Subject: Re: Christians believe, first and foremost From: Brother Bret To: Gene Date Posted: Fri, Feb 18,
2000 at 14:44:23 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Gene: No it's not what Calvin 'completely' taught
and believed. The word of God teaches God's sovereignty in salvation
(Jn. 6:37;Ph.2:12,13; Acts 2:23)as well as the human responsibility.
Me thinks that some have tried to explain this to you :^ ). If you
are of the elect, you will believe, repent, not practice sin, and
have the proper biblical understanding of God, Christ and the holy
Spirit. A person is not saved when God elects them or calls them.
One of God's sheep/elect is saved when they embrace Christ and the
cross and subsequent resurrection. The rest that I mentioned above
is 'evidence' that the sheep is saved. Just out of curiosity Gene...And
I don't know if this question was asked of you already. If it was,
please indulge me. Do you believe that those who claim to be JW's
and believe that organization's doctrine, can be saved? BB
Subject: Gene, this is a perfect example of your inability to
see... From:
Rod To:
Gene Date Posted:
Fri, Feb 18, 2000 at 09:31:11 (PST) Email
Address:na
Message: ...actual Bible truth and the grace of God, due to
your lack of spiritual life. That is a statement of fact, not malice,
BTW. If you were elect, you'd be saved now, as I understand the
concept. An elect person, such as mebaser, is one who was predestined
to salvation and who has been 'effectually called' as he explained
it below. He has been drawn by and saved by 'irresistible grace'
from God, the result of God's having 'predestined' him to ultimate
conformation to the image of His Son, the Lord Jesus (Rom. 8:29).
He will be carried safely on to the ultimate step, 'glorification'
(Rom. 8:30) and that is 'conformation to the image of the Son,'
the Second Person of the One God, the One Who took on a perfect
human nature in order to pay our penalty. You may, indeed, be 'predestined'
by God. In which case, one day you will respond to the presentation
of Scriptural truth and be saved by God's Spirit acting in conjunction
with His Word--that is, you'll be 'elect.' When Spurgeon was asked,
'If you believe in election, why do you preach to everyone?' (These
aren't exact quotes, incidentally.) He replied, 'If all the elect
had yellow stripes painted on their backs, I'd go around town lifting
up shirts and preaching to those.' God has made it incumbent on
us to 'preach the word; be diligent in season, out of season; reprove,
rebuke, exhort with all long-suffering and doctrine' (2 Tim. 4:2).
By that means will the predestined/elect be found out and the lost
be convicted and confirmed. Are you elect, Gene? If so, God is calling
you right now. You may come to Christ, if you want, for that is
what an elect person wants, and that he wants fervently.
Subject: Re: Christians believe, first and foremost From: mebaser To: Gene Date Posted: Fri, Feb 18,
2000 at 08:01:24 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: But Calvinism teaches my salvation is not up to me.
It does not depend on what I do, say, or believe. If I am the elect
then there is nothing I can do to become the 'non-elect' and vis
versa. Is this not what Calvin taught and believed? Surely man is
not saved by what they believe? --- Okay Gene, Now your
being unreasonable. If you have studied Calvinism, then you should
know that God's election is efficacious. That means a few things.
First, if someone is elect, then you have to consider their spiritual
state before and after their salvation. Before they are saved, they
are just as spiritually dead as any who are not saved (Ephesians
2:1-3; Titus 3:3). Once one is saved, God EFFECTS change in their
beliefs, attitudes, and actions. So within a biblical framework,
which Calvinism is, it DOES depend on what you do, say, or believe.
Not that what you say, do, or believe will earn you salvation, rather
it evidences the efficacious change wrought by the washing of regeneration
and renewal of the Holy Spirit (Titus 3:5). In Christ, mebaser
Subject: Unity, when there is none. From: Rod To: All Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 17, 2000 at 11:21:04 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: To all: I took a look at the RCC/Lutherian justification
document and was prompted to make a few remarks, not about that
statement, which is extremely detailed and would need more analysis
than I'm inclined to give and which is too long to analyze properly
on a forum like this. But it got me to thinking about why there
can be no unity between true Christians and the RCC cult. And I
actually and sincerely believe that statement just made about its
being a cult. I know that many of the leaders in Christian circles
have justly denounced this movement toward unifying with the RCC,
but I'm not certain that the vast majority of us realize the actual
and core issue separating us who are real worshippers of the Lord
Jesus Christ from the RCC religious organization. I hope you noted
that last designation, 'religious organization.' That is key to
the problem. We're not dealing with a 'chruch,' when considering
the RCC, but a system, an organization which has 'evolved' over
the years into the false and corrupt perversion of Christianity
which exists today. (I must parenthetically note that this is not
an attack on individuals who are RCC, but on the organization and
its non-Christian, anti-Christian basis. I believe that there are
saved RCC members, but that they are saved in
spite of the RCC, not because of it. They
should immediately come out of its falsehoods.) The RCC's one foundational
and all-pervasive error, throughout its existence, is this: THERE
IS NO SALVATION APART FROM THAT BODY. Think about that for a moment.
It goes deeper than just the 'one true church' issue, which afflicts
many non-Catholic bodies. It goes all the way to the heart of the
Christian faith itself, that Christ Jesus, our Lord, is the way,
the truth, and the life. Without the administration of the 'seven
sacraments' of the RCC, by the invocations of the heirarchy of the
priesthood of the RCC, there is no salvation in the Lord Jesus.
That is the essence of the RCC doctrine in a nutshell. The situation
is much too complicated to explain here, but that is a sweeping
statement of flat and concise truth. No matter what statements are
made, no matter how many compromises are acceded to, there remains
the fact that the One Way to the Lord Jesus Christ, the 'one mediator
between God and men, the man Christ Jesus' is so blocked and obscured
by the RCC teaching and intercessory priesthood, that one can't
get to their heaven without first jumping through the necessary
religious 'hoops' and passing through the many layers of works salvation
interposed by the priests and traditions. Even then, they deny actual
entrance into the RCC heaven. Everyone, including the popes, has
to work off his sins after death, which haven't been completely
and finally covered by the blood of Christ, of course, in their
prugatory. Their purgatory, like all their falsehoods, flies in
the face of the true God and Savior of authentic Christianity. Someone,
in referring to the exquisite truth of Heb. 1:1-3, especially verse
3: '...when he had by himselfpurged our sins, sat down at the right hand of the Majesty on high,'
rightly identified that as, 'The only PURGATORY in the Bible!' Thus denying the completed and purposeful
work of the Lord Jesus Christ, the RCC interposes the need of its
mediation and its sanctification for its deceived members, placing
an extradordinary and abominable barrier between itself and people
who are looking, not to the Christ of the Bible, but to the organization,
for salvation. The Lord Jesus said this, provoking the anger of
the Jewish religious leaders of His day, and inciting their desire
to execute Him: 'My Father worketh hitherto, and I work' (John 5:17)
and He pronounced subsequently, 'For as the Father raiseth up the
dead, and giveth them life, even so the Son giveth life to whom he will' (verse 21,
see the entire context of the chapter). But the RCC interposes itself
and says, effectively, 'The Son doesn't give life, as He claims,
but it is necessary that one obtain it from this vast religious
organization and its principles and requirments." Then is the
work of Jesus Christ complete. And only then! There can be no unity
between actual Christians and any body or person who teaches and
adheres to such heresy. _____________________________ It's been
all I could do in writing what's above to stop from launching into
a description of actual and real practices of the RCC, details of
the organization which prove my point. I simply can't do that, they're
too numerous and far-reaching. The foundational and fundamental
error of the organization is this: The RCC steadfastly and irrevocably,
from Matthew 16:13-20, specifically verse18, builds itself upon
the principle of 'Apostolic Succession,' and the fact that entrance
into Heaven rests upon Peter and his successor 'popes' who have
been given the actual 'keys of the kingdom of heaven' (verse 19)
and can admit/deny entry into glorification with the Lord Jesus
Christ to those of their choosing, on the basis of the RCC teaching
and supposed intercessory power. This is the primary error, which
gives birth to compounded error, which leads to the obscuring of
the truth of salvation as contained in the Bible, which has, in
many ways, become secondary to the traditions of the RCC and the
'pronouncements' of its leadership in the priesthood. Each Christian
should, in light of the pervasiveness of the RCC, and in light of
the fact that it is perceived as 'Christian,' not only by itself,
but by the world at large, and even by many who sincerely name the
Name above all names which can bring salvation to His people (see
Phil. 2:9-11); each Christian should review the RCC documents and
teaching to be familiar with the basic falsehoods. A good place
for those not aware of the RCC teaching is the 'Catholic Encyclopedia'
which is online and easily found by search. There the 'easiness'
ends, for the volume is ponderous, tedious, and greatly disturbing
to a Bible reader who is a believer in the Christ of the Bible and
is, therefore, led by God's Spirit. But those who would know the
doctrine of the most vast organization opposed to Christ in the
Americas, and probably in 'Christendom,' owe it to themselves to
read some of the things they teach. Starting with the word 'sacraments,'
or 'baptism' will be very revealing. Be certain to look at the 'sacraments
of death' and the 'sacraments of life.' I urge everyone who has
little or no knowledge of the teaching of this body to examine that
document. It is, for a real Christian, both chilling and energizing.
Chilling for its falsehood and heresy, energizing for its tendency
to goad a real believer into action against false teaching. May
God guide us as we stand for His truth.
Subject: Re: Unity, when there is none. From: Christopher To: Rod Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 17, 2000 at 15:04:40 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Hi Rod, Your post reminded me of a question you asked some time
ago, when we were discussing the subject of Peter and the keys.
In contrast to the RC's, Orthodox believe that Christ's statements
to Peter rested on the faith of the man, not some magical final
authority held by every bishop who succeeded him. While there are
a variety of other substantial things which keep east and west apart,
this one is the biggie. Just FYI... Christopher
Subject: Thanks, Christopher. n/t From: Rod To: Christopher Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 17, 2000 at 15:08:10 (PST) Email Address:na
Message:
Subject: Re: Apostolic succession From: hESED To: Rod Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 17, 2000 at 20:48:03 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
It seems like apostolic sucession was necessary until the canon
could be established otherwise there would have been no way to verify
which writting were handed down from the apostles!
Subject: Re: Apostolic succession From: Prestor John To: hESED Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 17, 2000 at 21:48:06 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
No, the canon could have been established by one apostle like John.
Especially since I believe the canon was complete before the fall
of Jerusalem. But even if that had not happened, the Word of God
is unique enough to be recognized for what it is. Prestor John
Subject: Re: Apostolic succession From: Rod To: Prestor John Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 17, 2000 at 22:21:17 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: Prestor John, It seems to me that these are very
true words: 'the Word of God is unique enough to be recognized for
what it is.' The councils which recognized the canon were not creating
the Bible, they were saying that God had already done so and that
His people knew it by the guidance of His Spirit. Incidentally,
this is another RCC error, that, in essence, the Bible proceeds
from the Church (i.e., their organization) instead of creating it.
Subject: Re:Holy Spirit & successors From: Hesed To: Rod Date Posted: Fri, Feb 18, 2000 at 23:33:01 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
You guys are right by saying that the Holy Spirit's guidance established
the canon, but what your overlooking is the fact that he did so
through the instrumentality of the church. Especially through those
who were the disciples of the original apostles who could give a
credible witness to what writting were recognized in the first centuries.
It is precisely because of the lack of a strong witness of these
successors that certain books took longer to include in the Canon.
A better understanding of the church and the heresies it faced in
the first and second centuries will help prove the above!
Subject: Re: Re:Holy Spirit & successors From: Pilgrim To: Hesed Date Posted: Sat, Feb 19,
2000 at 12:33:47 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Hesed,
That's an excellent point. The
Canon wasn't formed in a vacuum! Today, because of the 'Deformed
Church' and its long history even before the Medieval period and
the incipient individualism that has infected the modern church,
to make mention of the church's role in the formation of the Canon
brings strong negative reaction from many. Although the church in
its infancy was still growing and thus its dogma took time to be
developed, as the Holy Spirit led and gifted men as leaders, this
is no reason to reject its findings. Look at the momentous foundational
Creeds, eg., the Nicene, Athanasian and Chalcedonian. God knew what
was needed to lay the 'brick work' upon the foundation of the 'prophets
and apostles' to build His church. Providentially, heretics were
raised up as an impetus so as to put into writing what was beforehand,
surely believed, but held mainly by universal consent without benefit
of codified documents. It is a shame and shameful how little professing
Christians know about the history of the church of the Lord Jesus
Christ. If they were more informed, I would like to believe that
there would be far less heresy allowed to be embraced and taught
in seminaries, from pulpits and in the homes of believers. However,
my confidence does not lie with what might have been, or what might
happen if 'such and such' were true. It rests in the promise of
the Lord Christ who said, 'I will build my Church and the gates
of hell shall not prevail against it.' Therefore, lot us do that
which is required of us mainly 1) To preach the truth as it is found
in God's infallible Word, 2) Expose the works of darkness and all
the gross heretical teachings as well as those subtle and seemingly
insignificant errors which work to bring down the true members of
the Body of Christ.
In His Precious Blood, Pilgrim
Subject: Re: Re:Holy Spirit & successors From: Hesed To: Pilgrim Date Posted: Sun, Feb 20,
2000 at 20:59:32 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Greetings! You said.... 'It is a shame and shameful
how little professing Christians know about the history of the church
of the Lord Jesus Christ. If they were more informed, I would like
to believe that there would be far less heresy allowed to be embraced
and taught in seminaries, from pulpits and in the homes of believers.'
It helps to be acquainted with history, it give us understanding
and balance if listened to. In the presence of many counselors one
finds wisdom. But many who know alot end up being the worse heretics!
They try to figure out more than what has been revealed in God's
word, treaspassing into the 'hidden' counsels of God and speculating
on darkness. Or else they try to satisfy the carnal fancies of man
instead of trying to please the Holy One of Israel. They are like
the fallen angels 'that did not keep their own position' Jude, 'in
their dreamings defile the flesh, reject authority, and revile the
glorious one,' Jude. Whenever one, whether angel or man exalts his
own wisdom above that of God he becomes a damnable fool! But even
God choses fools! 1 Cor. 1 May he convert many of these enemies
of the cross and build his Church! Hesed
Subject: Re: Apostolic succession From: laz To: Rod Date Posted: Fri, Feb 18, 2000 at 11:06:30 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Prestor John, It seems to me that these are very true words: 'the
Word of God is unique enough to be recognized for what it is.' The
councils which recognized the canon were not creating the Bible,
they were saying that God had already done so and that His people
knew it by the guidance of His Spirit. Incidentally, this is another
RCC error, that, in essence, the Bible proceeds from the Church
(i.e., their organization) instead of creating it. ---
Rod - that's been my understanding as well. The Church did not determine
the canon of Scripture, but merely discovered it by the enabling
power of the Holy Spirit. laz
Subject: laz, AMEN! n/t From: Rod To: laz Date Posted: Fri, Feb 18, 2000 at 12:28:25 (PST) Email Address:na
Message:
Subject: Re: Apostolic succession From: Christopher To: Rod Date Posted: Fri, Feb 18, 2000 at 09:17:58 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Rod, Should you have the time and inclination, I'd like your further
thoughts on the subject. I've been researching the development of
the canons, both OT and NT, from a variety of perspectives, and
have found that while a majority of the NT was accepted quite early,
there were a few books that took until the fourth century to be
accepted by both the eastern and western churches. Hebrews, for
example, was not widely accepted as canonical in the west (apparently
because of the Montanist heresies) and Revelation was not widely
accepted in the east, due to a general avoidance of apocalyptic
writings in general. It appears that the drive for a complete canon
was prompted intially by heretics, claiming that their spurious
books were actually inspired. Christopher
Subject: Christopher, my thoughts on this are pretty simple and
direct. From:
Rod To:
Christopher Date Posted: Fri, Feb 18, 2000 at 10:03:57 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: My info is that there was an almost complete NT recognized
by the Church at large well before A. D. 200 (thirty years or so).
Hebrews seems to have been a part of that body of accepted writings
early on. I think your statement, 'It appears that the drive for
a complete canon was prompted intially by heretics, claiming that
their spurious books were actually inspired,' illustrates perfectly
the principle of God stated in 1 Cor. 11:19: 'For there must be
also heresies among you, that they who are approved may be made
manifest among you.' Look at what happens on this board by comparison:
When a believer, and one who is in harmony with the basic beliefs
of this board, posts something on say, 'grace,' there is little
reaction, until and unless, someone who is not a 'sovereign gracer'
or who is unsaved blasts the belief. Then people come out to defend
their views. It just seems to be a human characteristic (fault?)
that agreement doesn't appeal to us, but disagreement? Now there's
something zesty! God knows and uses that trait within us all. I
am not an expert on Church History by any means. (Or on any other
subject, for that matter.)
Subject: Re: Christopher, my thoughts on this are pretty simple
and direct. From:
Christopher To:
Rod Date Posted:
Fri, Feb 18, 2000 at 11:01:31 (PST) Email
Address:Not Provided
Message: >>>>>I
think your statement, 'It appears that the drive for a complete
canon was prompted intially by heretics, claiming that their spurious
books were actually inspired,' illustrates perfectly the principle
of God stated in 1 Cor. 11:19: 'For there must be also heresies
among you, that they who are approved may be made manifest among
you.' <<<<< Couldn't agree with you more! Thanks
for taking the time to respond. Christopher
Subject: Justification From: Kent W To: All Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 17, 2000 at 09:06:17 (PST) Email Address:ibq645i@tninet.se
Message:
The Joint Declaration on the doctrine of Justification. Questions
to be considered. 1) How do we stand on this very imported doctrine
now? 2) Do you think the document in itself express a real joint
view or do you not think so? 3) If you're critical towards it, on
what grounds are you critical? 4) Since many of you participating
here on Gospelcom are Reformed, how would you have changed this
document? How would it have been different from what it is now if
some Reformed theologians were involved? The Joint Declaration on
the doctrine of Justification www.justification.org/joint_eng.htm
Subject: Pharaoh's heart From: Gene To: All Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 17, 2000 at 03:44:25 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Hi all, I will try and keep a civil tongue. :) Here is my question:
If God hardened Pharaoh's heart and then brought upon him and the
Egyptians all this grief then why could he not soften his heart
and spare everyone the grief?
Subject: Re: Pharaoh's heart From: Pilgrim To: Gene Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 17, 2000 at 13:03:53 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Hi all, I will try and keep a civil tongue. :) Here is my question:
If God hardened Pharaoh's heart and then brought upon him and the
Egyptians all this grief then why could he not soften his heart
and spare everyone the grief? --- Gene,
God could have 'softened Pharaoh's
heart', either in a temporal sense or in a permanent and spiritual
sense. But since all God's works are perfect (Deut 32:4; Ps 18:30;
Eccl 3:14). Therefore, looking back we could assuredly say that
for God to have softened Pharaoh's heart would have been imperfect.
Pharaoh hardened his own heart as well! :-) But as for God hardening
Pharaoh's heart, it is not as if Pharaoh had a 'good heart' and
God turned it into an evil heart. God simply rendered the inevitable
judgment upon him at that particular time for a special purpose,
which Paul makes clear here:
Rom 9:16 So then
it is not of him that willeth, nor of him that runneth, but
of God that sheweth mercy. 17 For the scripture saith unto Pharaoh,
Even for this same purpose have I raised thee up, that I might
shew my power in thee, and that my name might be declared throughout
all the earth. 18 Therefore hath he mercy on whom he will have
mercy, and whom he will he hardeneth.
God's sovereign right to save
whom He will is firmly established here with the repetitive phrase,
'but of God that shewth mercy'. Pharaoh only got what he deserved
and much more. He was given riches, fame, worldly glory, power and
much more; all which he desired most.
In His Precious Blood, Pilgrim
Subject: Re: Pharaoh's heart From: Gene To: Pilgrim Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 17, 2000 at 14:02:23 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Pilgrim, I think your quote of Rom 9:17 gives us some indication
as to why God hardened instead of softened Pharaoh's heart. It appears
the whole purpose for the plagues was to (1) Show God's Power and
(2) Make His name great among the nations. Hardening Pharaoh's heart
guaranteed the success of purpose #1. Just think, if God softened
his heart God could not have said this. Exodus 10:1 Then the LORD
said to Moses, 'Go to Pharaoh, for I have hardened his heart and
the heart of his servants, that I may perform these signs of Mine
among them, 2 and that you may tell in the hearing of your son,
and of your grandson, how I made a mockery of the Egyptians and
how I performed My signs among them, that you may know that I am
the LORD.'
Subject: The actual question asked... From: Rod To: Pilgrim Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 17, 2000 at 13:43:40 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: Gene, now that Pilgrim has given you the excellent
answer he has, from the Scriptures, and now that you, if you haven't
since become a believer, have misunderstood it, as you inevitably
must, please consider this: Your question, far from keeping a 'civil
tongue,' is a direct insult to the Almighty God. Your words: ' then
why could he not soften his heart and spare everyone the grief?'
There is unbelief in the God of the Bible succinctly stated. It
is the utmost in disrespect toward God, by one who professes to
be a Christian. Actually, if you were a Christian, an Arminian say,
and hadn't continually proved yourself to be a mocker and scoffer,
I'm certain you'd have had numerous answers by now. I would certainly
have answered along the lines of Pilgrim's response. The sad and
plain fact is that you cannot see the truth of the Bible, simply
and plainly because you are not a Christian. You are among those
lost people described in Rom. 8. Here's what it says about you and
why you cannot see this truth about God's character in your unbelief:
First, your mind is totally 'enmity against God' (verse 7). There
is no other description of your unbelieving mind in that verse.
You are, at your core, 'God's enemy.' Second, the succeeding verses
demonstrate that you and all unbelievers are not subject to God's
law (verse 7, second half). Then, it states that you are, because
of your unbelief unable to please God in verse 8. That inability
to please God comes directly from the fact of your unbelief: 'Without
faith it is impossible to please him' (Heb. 11:6). Moving on to
Rom. 8:9, we come to the crux of the issue (the reference was intentional).
Read that verse for yourself. See that the Spirit of God and the
Spirit of Christ are identical. See that His indwelling Presence
is necessary to salvation (the being 'born again'). Without out
that indwelling Presence, the lost person is 'none of his.' It's
not possible for a lost person to understand the nature and truth
of God in an unregenerate condition: 'There is none that understandeth,
there is none that seeketh after God' (Rom. 3:11). 'Marvel not that
I said unto thee, Ye must be born again' (John 3:7). You regard all this as an attack and personal.
It isn't. It's the only response Christians have for you: the truth
of God. May He enable you to come to Christ.
Subject: Re: The actual question asked... From: Gene To: Rod Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 17, 2000 at 13:55:17 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Rod, You wrote: Gene, now that Pilgrim has given you the excellent
answer he has, from the Scriptures, and now that you, if you haven't
since become a believer, have misunderstood it, as you inevitably
must, please consider this: How about I let you respond to all the
posts that I want because you seem to think you know what I am going
to say! Before I even respond one word to Pilgrim you try and put
words in my mouth! This tells me you have your mind made up as to
what I will say BEFORE I know what I will say! OK, try this...I
am thinking of a color.... Since when did you read minds?
Subject: Gene, I wonder what you'd have said to Pilgrim, From: Rod To: Gene Date Posted:
Thurs, Feb 17, 2000 at 14:23:01 (PST) Email
Address:na
Message: If you hadn't seen my reply first? I note that you
answered it prior to answering his. No, I don't read your mind,
but your total posting over the time I've been here reveals your
heart, which God describes in Romans 8, as I have quoted and directed
you to. Again, you haven't understood my intent. Gal. 4:16 summarizes
it nicely.
Subject: Re: Gene, I wonder what you'd have said to Pilgrim, From: Gene To: Rod Date Posted:
Thurs, Feb 17, 2000 at 14:46:25 (PST) Email
Address:Not Provided
Message: Rod, Why even
respond to my posts? Why not 'shake the dust off your feet' and
ignore me? You seem to think there is an (evil) agenda behind every
question. Of course, you did say you were not going to ever respond
to me a while back (just like you said you would leave this forum)
and both statements turned out to be less than true. So even if
you say you will not respond to me anymore, I won't believe you.
So, I guess the bottom line is...deal with it!
Subject: Gene, here's a better question. From: Rod To: Gene Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 17, 2000 at 15:03:44 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: Why bother to come to a Christian forum and expect
not to get Christian responses? Actually, I often respond to you
and others to speak to the larger group. Yes, I followed a course
of not answering you previously. You have shown that God, and your
own unsaved nature, have hardened your heart so that it is, at this
point, 'bullet proof' as far as the gospel is concerned. That's
all I'm giving you, Gene, an opportunity to be saved. When I didn't
answer you, you frequently tried to 'call me out' with challenges.
You remind me of the ones the Lord Jesus described in Matt. 11:16-17,
that is, you aren't satisfied when one doesn't play your game.
Subject: Re: Gene, here's a better question. From: mebaser To: Rod Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 17,
2000 at 16:02:29 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Dear Rod, At this point, there really is no point
for you to continue to engage Gene. You have provoked him to anger,
with a rather unfair accusation leveled at him, and you are merely
provoking him to further anger by which many on this board will
then accuse him of being uncivil and ill-tempered. In Christ, mebaser
Subject: What unfair accusation would that be? n/t From: Rod To: mebaser Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 17,
2000 at 16:11:28 (PST) Email Address:na
Message:
Subject: Gene From: Tom To: Monitor Date Posted: Wed, Feb 16, 2000 at 13:31:13 (PST) Email Address:ahardy@rapidnet.net
Message:
Monitor I think it should be obvious to all by now, that Gene is
a wolf in sheeps clothing. He has proven himself to be more interested
in getting people's goat, than actually learning and growing in
our Lord Jesus Christ. An example of a post that proves this is
as followed: Rod, You have your work cut out for you. You have a
lot of postings to 'correct' because since you were gone we got
so far off track. What would the 'Highway' do without you coming
in to correct everyone and 'saving the day'? But not all is lost...there
will be a time someone will correct you and you will be gone AGAIN(with
your tail between your legs as before) , promising never to return,
and then 'BOOM' back to save the forum from 'false teachings.' Make
sure you go through ALL the posts, we would not want any 'false
teachings' to creep in without Rod knowing about them. This kind
of talk, proves my case. The more people react to this kind of talk,
the more it gives him his jolies. I have stopped posting to him
a long time ago, but I can see that some have not done so. How long
do we have to put up with him? Tom
Subject: Re: Gene From: Five Sola To: Tom Date Posted: Wed, Feb 16, 2000 at 19:25:23 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Tom, This is so true. Gene has yet to behave in a christian manner
since his first post here. Of course, after exposing his theology
he has proven that he is not a christian. I think maybe the monitors
have not disposed of him before because his exegesis is never of
any substance to cause a christian to believe it so no threat :-)
Of course, now that he has continually become insulting and demeaning
in his post, may cause him to have caused his dismissal. Five Sola
Subject: Re: Gene From: Tom To: Five Sola Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 17, 2000 at 11:58:42 (PST) Email Address:ahardy@rapidnet.net
Message:
Five Sola You said: I think maybe the monitors have not disposed
of him before because his exegesis is never of any substance to
cause a christian to believe it so no threat :-) Actually I do not
believe that is true, it might not have been of any substance to
you, but he has a little knowledge of the Greek. Just enough to
be dangerous, an example of this was his exegesis on John 1:1. To
someone who is searching for the truth, they could possibly read
his view on this matter or others, and begin to wonder if he is
right. (No Gene, I am not one of those who are wondering this) Tom
Subject: Re: Gene From: Gene To: Five Sola Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 17, 2000 at 04:48:13 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Now thats an interisting perspective! :)
Subject: Re: Gene From: Gene To: Tom Date Posted: Wed, Feb 16, 2000 at 14:09:44 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Tom, I would say the monitors are showing a lot of grace...wouldn't
you? :) Continue to ignore me if you like. I enjoy being challenged,
don't you? :)
Subject: Re: Gene From: Brother Bret To: Gene Date Posted: Wed, Feb 16, 2000 at 15:25:06 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Showing alot of grace is good Gene/? for that right reasons and
attitude. The words you spoke that Tom shared with us is uncalled
for. When did you become a mindreader to know Rod's motives for
leaving and coming back, and responding to the various posts? BTW,
is your church ready to hear the real 'you' yet? They might cast
you on out, even for the CoC :^). Take care my friend, and be ye
reasonable...BB
Subject: Re: Gene From: Gene To: Brother Bret Date Posted: Wed, Feb 16, 2000 at 18:58:39 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Bret, Of course I am no mind reader! Nor do I play one on TV.:)
Rod stated his reason for leaving and it is quite clear from his
posting that he is getting a running start at making sure people
know what is 'right.' Now, tell me what your last statement has
to do with this or any post on this forum? Out of the blue you bring
this up! A totally different subject! A subject I shared with YOU,
not with anyone on this forum!! What I can see from your last statement
is that you share info that someone told you in confidence!
Subject: Re: Gene From: Brother Bret To: Gene Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 17, 2000 at 15:37:22 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Bret, Of course I am no mind reader! Nor do I play one on TV.:)
Rod stated his reason for leaving and it is quite clear from his
posting that he is getting a running start at making sure people
know what is 'right.' Now, tell me what your last statement has
to do with this or any post on this forum? Out of the blue you bring
this up! A totally different subject! A subject I shared with YOU,
not with anyone on this forum!! What I can see from your last statement
is that you share info that someone told you in confidence! Dear
Gene: First let me apologize for sharing that info publicly. I just
wasn't thinking properly regarding that(of couse some might think
that I don't think properly at all...hehe)and I think that I was
thinking that it was okay for a reason that I can't share here,
or I will end up doing the same thing again :^(. People in general,
you, and I do bring up other subjects within the same post or e-mail
at times. For me to bring that up was tantamont me asking you about
your baby's health. But Tom was discussing false teachings too,
which made me think of that. But again, I do apologize and hope
you will forgive me!!! As far as the stuff with you and Rod? I do
not agree with your explanation, but hey, that wouldn't be the first
time would it? We may believe you are a false teacher and by the
word of God point that out to you. You may think we don't know what
we are talking about because most of us do not 'allegedly' know
Greek and Hebrew as well as you. But to respond sarcastically or
to judge someone's motives is not the way to deal with it. If you'd
like, we can continue this discussion by e-mail. And by the way,
I do hope your baby son is doing okay! Brother Bret
Subject: 'Wicket Gate' From: george To: All Date Posted: Tues, Feb 15, 2000 at 16:50:51 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
All, I am reading 'Pilgrims Progress', and would like some insight
on what you all believe the 'Wicket Gate' to represent. I remember
awhile back (maybe it was on another board?), that someone posed
the question, but I wasn't interested then. IHG, george
Subject: An explanation of my return From: Rod To: All Date Posted: Tues, Feb 15, 2000 at 10:49:54 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: To all: When I announced I was leaving this board,
that was my complete intention. And I did, returning a couple of
days ago to read the article by Pink (most excelelnt, BTW) on The
Atonement, as I had been severely challenged on another board on
this (and a multitude of other issues), even being called, as a
'Calvinist,' a non-Christian, since 'Calvinists' were anti-Christian
at the core. This by the board owner. It was my 'dismissal' notice
from that board. I have to admit that, when someone calls me an
unbeliever as I am confessing and honoring my Lord Jesus Christ,
it doesn't shake my confidence in my belief and ultimate salvation,
but it does do these things: First, it makes me extremely sad that
those people don't even understand the foundation of Christianity,
'that if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt
believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou
shalt be saved' (Rom. 10: 9). And this from people constantly spouting
'John 3:16.' Next, it causes me to seek out good, sound expositers
of the Word of God to see if my stance is all it could be in terms
of truth and accuracy. I was humbled to see how inadequate I was
in the face of Pink's proofs of the Limited Atonement of our Lord
Jesus Christ. Following that, I dropped by this board and was lured
into posting, with a facetious handle, but one of the fine monitors
recognized me right off, it seems, and very graciously spoke to
me. (Thank you!) With the permission of Pilgrim and the monitors,
I would like the privilege of posting. I don't intend (the Lord
willing) to get into as deep an involvement as previously, because
of time and other considerations. I posted just now on the Leviticus
thread because, after a couple of days, no one had answered what
I saw as an erroneous conclusion about the nature and attributes
of God. That's my story. Thanks for listening.
Subject: Glad you're back, Rod!!! We missed you. EOM From: Anne To: Rod Date Posted: Tues, Feb 15,
2000 at 11:12:39 (PST) Email Address:anneivy@home.com
Message:
Subject: Re: An explanation of my return From: Pilgrim To: Rod Date Posted: Tues, Feb 15, 2000 at 11:09:49 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Rod,
I, as the owner of this board
welcome you with open arms. Despite your personal convictions over
the previous discussion concerning the subject matter that influenced
your departure, I consider you a dear brother in the Lord Christ.
You need not my permission to participate here as I found nothing
whatsoever that would disqualify you from doing so. I was saddened
over your decision, but respect your right to have made it. So,
once again, I bid you welcome and I look forward to your sharing
what wisdom God has imparted to you for the edification of the saints
and detractors alike, ultimately to the glory of the name of the
LORD God and Christ Jesus our Saviour.
In His Precious Blood, Pilgrim
Subject: Re: An explanation of my return From: Rod To: Pilgrim Date Posted: Tues, Feb 15, 2000 at 11:15:18 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: Pilgrim, Thank you, dear brother! Your words: 'ultimately
to the glory of the name of the LORD God and Christ Jesus our Saviour.'
Those are the words of the goal of every true Christian operating
in the Spirit of God's leadership. I look forward tp pressing toward
that goal with you and the membership. May God enable us to do so,
as He has enabled us to be saved by His grace.
Subject: Re: An explanation of my return From: David Teh To: Rod Date Posted: Wed, Feb 16, 2000 at 08:09:10 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Hey Rod, Glad you're staying. Enjoyed whatever exchanges we had
in the past but for the most part, it's the commitment to honour
God with all our strength....and all our mind. Okay, back to lurking
mode. Swimming/drowning in my work! :P
Subject: leviticus From: danny To: All Date Posted: Sun, Feb 13, 2000 at 12:50:43 (PST) Email Address:team@paceteam.freeserve.co.uk
Message:
Why are women considerably less in value than men in leviticus chapter
27 verses 1-7. I understand that this is a redemption price and
possibly cultural, but i wanted to know why. any ideas? Thankyou
Subject: Re: leviticus From: Anne To: danny Date Posted: Tues, Feb 15, 2000 at 17:30:55 (PST) Email Address:anneivy@home.com
Message: Ha! Another
POV. Why do we automatically assume that having the 'fee' for the
dedication be higher is a plus, huh? Perhaps God is showing partiality
for the very young and the older folks by graciously agreeing to
accept a minimal fee for their dedication, but when it comes to
those men, . . . . well, that's gonna cost you 50 big ones, guy.
Females, naturally, also are dedicated for a much more reasonable
amount. Hee hee hee. Ho ho ho. ;-> Works for me! Anne
Subject: A few considerations From: Rod To: danny Date Posted: Tues, Feb 15, 2000 at 10:23:45 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: Danny, I'm not an expert on these things, but here
are a few things of note, I think. The first thing is that God is
sensitive to the realities of physical limitations and abilities
to pay. In vese 8: 'But if he be poorer than thy valuation, then
he shall present himself before the priest, and the priest shall
value him, according to his ability [to pay]....' That means, the
prescribed amounts the Lord God has set can be adjusted on ability
to pay. It seems that the valuations of the various ages and genders
of the people involved in this 'special' (and apparently voluntary
vow) are set up by God also basically on earning potential and abilities
to produce income, males being the ones who directly produced income
and females having a necessary supportive role which ordinarily
didn't produce income, but who indirectly, by their roles, supported
the males who made the livelihood possible. It can't be forgotten
that the God-given role of the sexes is that God determined the
headship of the male and produced Eve to 'help' Adam, the female
role being designated from God as subordinate (not 'inferior') as
was necessary in God's plan. Eve was a 'correspondent,' that is,
she was dependent for her existence and actions on Adm's prior existence
and needs. She was to complete him, so that he wouldn't be 'alone,'
which made the situation of Adam, 'not
good' : And the LORD God said, it is not good that the man should
be alone [and by implication, incomplete], I will make him an helper [who shall be] fit for him' (Gen. 2:18).
These directions from the mind and heart of the holy, just, merciful,
and righteous God in Lev. 27 are reflective of His will and His
decisions. It is men and women who err in applying incorrect interpretations
to them, denying God's ability to do as He will, and making Him
appear to be unwise and unrighteous. I think it's wise to let God
say what He will and to look for His perfection in it rather than
His flaws. We are promised the leading of the indwelling Holy Spirit,
if we are believers, and we should ask Him to show us the majesty
of God.
Subject: Re: A few considerations From: Anne To: Rod Date Posted: Tues, Feb 15, 2000 at 11:32:40 (PST) Email Address:anneivy@home.com
Message: I think you
are correct in noting that it was the 'potential earning power'
that was being considered, since presumably God is fond of children
('Suffer the little children to come unto Me.'), yet the offering
for the dedication was a measly five shekels of silver for a two
year old boy, which zoomed to fifty when the kid reached twenty.
It seems to have been a general, no-more-than-this-amount guideline,
subject to change, depending upon individual circumstances. Well,
we've always carried more life insurance on Don than on me, since
he is the breadwinner. I am valuable to the home and family, but
there is no denying that I don't rake in the bucks like he does!
Doesn't mean I'm worth less than he is, though. And I've never felt
undervalued by God when reading Leviticus, for the same reason.
Anne
Subject: Re: A few considerations From: Rod To: Anne Date Posted: Tues, Feb 15, 2000 at 12:06:41 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: Anne, Good insight, thank you. And I'm glad you realize
that God, Who is immutable, pronounces that, in His eyes, you are
'an adult son' set for inheritance jointly (which I personally find
amazing for all of us!) with the Lord Jesus in 'glorification' (Gal.
3:28-29; Rom. 8; many others).
Subject: Re: leviticus From: Gene To: danny Date Posted: Tues, Feb 15, 2000 at 04:00:36 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Danny, I do not know why women are 'worth less' but it is clearly
cultural and what we see is a God who works within the culture.
To God male and female are equal (Gen 1:26-7). But to man...well
that is a different story.
Subject: Re: leviticus From: Rod To: Gene Date Posted: Tues, Feb 15, 2000 at 11:08:01 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: Gene--'To God male and female are equal (Gen 1:26-7).
But to man...well that is a different story.' Gene, I don't wish
to be insulting, but, as you so often do, not being a believer in
the Christ as presented in the Scriptures, but another christ (hence,
another gospel), who isn't actually God, you have made a basic,
and grave error of assumption and misinterpretation. I can only
assume that you don't think these words of Moses are inspired of
God (another sign of a non-believer). that's very intesresting,
most interesting, in fact, in view of the statement that you make
immediately subsequent to that, 'To God male and female are equal
(Gen 1:26-7). But to man...well that is a different story.' This
is a most amazing inference you've drawn: Moses words in Genesis 1 are inspired of God,
but his words in Leviticus aren't! Only a mind not attuned to the Word of God and not led
by the Spirit of God could conclude that. I say that to, once again,
point you to your lost condition and need of the Lord Jesus Christ
as your Savior, God come in the flesh, as another inspired passage
(and the intent of the Bible) declares: 'And the Word was with God
and the Word was God...And the Word became flesh and tabernacled
among us (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten
of the Father), full of grace and truth' (John 1:1, 14). BTW, do
you realize that, every time you deny the Godhood of the Lord Jesus,
you are guaranteeing that hell will be a little 'hotter' for yourself?
I think that's regrettable and infinitely sad.
Subject: Whoah! wait a minute From: mebaser To: Rod Date Posted: Tues, Feb 15, 2000 at 15:10:44 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Gene--'To God male and female are equal (Gen 1:26-7). But to man...well
that is a different story.' (cut) I can only assume that you don't
think these words of Moses are inspired of God (another sign of
a non-believer). that's very intesresting, most interesting, in
fact, in view of the statement that you make immediately subsequent
to that, 'To God male and female are equal (Gen 1:26-7). But to
man...well that is a different story.' This is a most amazing inference
you've drawn: Moses words in Genesis 1
are inspired of God, but his words in
Leviticus aren't!
Only a mind not attuned to the Word of God and not led by the Spirit
of God could conclude that. --- Hold on a second brother,
I know that in our overall evaluation, Gene is not counted as a
regenerate brother in the faith due to his denial of the deity of
Christ. But let's at least examine what he says with an attitude
of examination rather than out-right rejection. Gene said, 'To God
male and female are equal (Gen 1:26-7). But to man...well that is
a different story.' But Rod, you automatically assume that Gene's
problem in this instance is an apparent rejection of inspiration
in Leviticus. Instead, look at the sentance, vague as it is, and
admit that with respect to salvation there is neither Jew nor Greek,
there is neither slave nor free man, there is neither male nor female;
for the elect are all one in Christ Jesus (Galatians 3:28). Who
knows? Could it be that Gene was approaching it from that perspectve?
In Christ, mebaser
Subject: Re: Whoah! wait a minute From: laz To: mebaser Date Posted: Tues, Feb 15, 2000 at 20:19:47 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Mebaser - it's possible but I took GEne's post as an expression
of disbelief....at least a questioning of the infallibility of the
bible. I fully realize that the bible was written by men used by
God in the circumstances they found themselves in, BUT, only the
MEANS are cultural, and NOT the message of scripture. NO? GEne -
if I have jumped to conclusions, pls accept my apology. ;-) laz
Subject: Amen From: mebaser To: laz Date Posted: Wed, Feb 16, 2000 at 00:16:37 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Mebaser - it's possible but I took GEne's post as an expression
of disbelief....at least a questioning of the infallibility of the
bible. I fully realize that the bible was written by men used by
God in the circumstances they found themselves in, BUT, only the
MEANS are cultural, and NOT the message of scripture. NO? GEne -
if I have jumped to conclusions, pls accept my apology. ;-) laz
--- Hi Laz, Now we see eye to eye. Amen to your post! In
Christ, mebaser
Subject: mebaser, have you really read the thread? From: Rod To: mebaser Date Posted: Tues, Feb 15,
2000 at 16:02:11 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: Your charity and generosity toward Gene is obvious,
but misplaced. (Have you read my reply above to Anne, where I cite
the Gal. verse? And that prior to your post here.) Being misunderstood
is often worse than being wrong, but Gene's own words, as always,
make him wrong and refuting him is, consequently, a 'slam dunk,'
because the Spirit of God has already done it. Here is your statement:
'Who knows? Could it be that Gene was approaching it from that perspectve?'
Gene's words: 'I do not know why women are 'worth less' but it is
clearly cultural and what we see is a God who works within the culture.'
That statement is very revealing for what it implies and doesn't
say about God and His view of humanity. By that statement, Gene
seems to me to undeniably affirm what He always affirms in his unbelief.
(He has repeatedly denied that the Lord Jesus Christ is God, in
spite of the fact that the title itself, with no other evidence
offered by additional Scripture, which is overwhelming, proves that
He is. He has also said recently that he doesn't accept the Mosaic
authorship of all the content of the books of Moses.) Gene doesn't
believe the Bible literally; he rejects the diety of the Lord Jesus;
and he errs about the character, nature, and work of God. He does
so because he is admittedly not a believer in the Christ of the
Bible and, consequently, hasn't the Spirit of God within, Who guides
His own into all truth, enabling them to recognize the truth of
God. May God see fit to bring him into that condition is my prayer
for him. It should be dazzlingly obvious that, if we believe that
God gave the Law of Moses and inspired the Scriptures, God doesn't
merely, 'work within the culture,' as Gene says. That's what the unbeliever sees. The
Christian sees, in the inspired Word of the whole of the Bible,
that GOD CREATED THE CULTURE OF ISRAEL AND GAVE IT TO MOSES TO GIVE
TO THE NATION BY THE LAW! Of course, He "works
in it." That was the entire purpose
of His giving it.
Subject: It is so nice... From: Gene To: Rod Date Posted: Wed, Feb 16, 2000 at 04:54:16 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Rod, It is so nice that you come back to this board to protect others
against me! It is so nice to have the police/jude/jury back on duty.
What did the board do without you?
Subject: Gene, I'm pretty sure that several share your sentiments
From: Rod
To: Gene
Date Posted:
Wed, Feb 16, 2000 at 06:28:40 (PST) Email
Address:na
Message: in this matter, but for different reasons. However,
I'm not out to protect the board against you or anyone else. My
job is to get out the Word of God. Period. What He does with it
is entirely in His hands. It is nice to know that the presentation
of His Word causes you, an unbeliever in the Christ of the Bible,
so much consternation. It reveals that God is dealing with you.
Will you come to Christ, God come in the flesh, the Second Person
of the Triune God, or will you continue to deny and thereby reap
hotter flames?
Subject: Re: Gene, I'm pretty sure that several share your sentiments
From: Gene
To: Rod
Date Posted:
Wed, Feb 16, 2000 at 07:55:18 (PST) Email
Address:Not Provided
Message: Yah, and when
the other members on this board do not agree with you (i.e., Christ's
ability to sin) you leave...but only for a while! Lets not talk
about 'consternation.' So much for 'getting out the Word of God.'
Subject: Re: Gene, I'm pretty sure that several share your sentiments
From: monitor
To: Gene/Rod/All
Date Posted:
Wed, Feb 16, 2000 at 21:12:22 (PST) Email
Address:Not Provided
Message: That is enough.
Civility shall be maintained and that applies to all who post here.
Petty sniping is not going to be the norm. Stick to the subject
matter, and maintain the rules of the forum.
Subject: Did you read MY post? From: mebaser To: Rod Date Posted: Wed, Feb 16, 2000 at 00:24:09 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Rod, So it is entirely impossible that Gene could have been referring
to the Galatians 3:28 sense of equality between men and women? If
you say yes, then you must have either a special revelation beyond
the rest of us, or you are quick to assume the worst of Gene before
asking him to clarify his answer. It is possible for an unsaved
man to recognize the equality issue in Gal. 3:28, no? In his post,
Gene said that he did not know why women were "worth less"
money in answer to the original post. You know what? I myself also
do not know WHY women are "worth less" (not that they
are worthless, but have a lower amount of money assigned to them)
in that Leviticus passage. Gene also said that the issue is most
definitely a cultural one, and you yourself give a answer that reflects
the issue as being a cultural one. So where you see a difference
in what Gene said (a cultural issue) and how you explain it (a cultural
issue), I see no difference. In Christ, mebaser
Subject: Why, yes, I read and understood your point From: Rod To: mebaser Date Posted: Wed, Feb 16,
2000 at 01:58:54 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: very well. I also understood Gene's intent as he
stated it. First of all, he could have clearly indicated that this
was part of the culture that God gave the nation Israel, but the
gist of his statement, as written, indicates that he considered
this as extraneous from God's gift to Israel to set them apart to
Himself as a unique people, a witness for Himself. It seems to be
the indication that he views this as 'man-made,' not God-made and
commanded as part of His inspired Word and Law of Moses. Instead
of speculating about what Gene did say, let's just ask him straightforwardly.
Gene: please note and answer the entire question I'm about to ask.
Do you believe that this section in Leviticus 27 is part of the
inspired Word of the Lord God Almighty, given expressly and infallibly
to Moses himself, directly by God Himself, and that it was God's
express will that the various catagories mentioned here of 'valuation'
are God's, not man's? mebaser, I know that you know that God made
Israel to come under the Law for multiple reasons, but that ultimately
it was so that the nation could be a 'peculiar treasure unto me'
(Ex.19:5; cp. Deut.14:2; 26:18; Ps. 135:4). God wanted them to expressly
possess and honor God with the culture He dictated in His law. And
that to honor and glorify Himself, pointing the way toward the Lord
Jesus by the types of the Law and paving the way for the eventual
birth of the Church of Jesus Christ at Pentecost, which makes all
believers in the Lord Jesus Christ as presented in the Bible, 'an
holy nation [of 'royal priests'], a people of his own [KJV--'a peculiar
people'], that ye should show forth the praises of him who called
you out of darkness into his marvelous light' (1 Peter 2:9). All
very reminiscent of His calling His people out of the bondage of
Egypt to be His special witness by their very dedication to and
dependence on Him for their livelihood as a nation, apart from the
other nations of the world, the 'Gentile dogs.' Compare Titus 2:14.
They were designated and called to be a holy nation. Why were they
holy and set apart to God? Because He willed that they be so and
told them so and laid out exactly how to do His will in the teachings
of the Law of Moses, God's law. He created their unique culture
for that reason, every part of it, including Lev. 27:1-7. Do you
think it's unfair to tell Gene the truth? Do you think it's unfair
and against God's will to warn Gene of his serious errors and give
him the Word of God, by which faith comes, if God wills it to come
to him? I say, instead, that it's the right thing to do, in the
will of God, to point out his multiple errors and warn him of the
'wrath to come' (see Matt. 3:7; Eph. 2:1-3), a wrath he inevitably
faces if he remains as he is, in denial and rejection of the Christ
of the Bible. It's the means by which he can be saved, if God so
wills that he be saved. I make no apologies for that. I don't think
I should be called upon to. I do find it curious that you feel compelled
to answer for Gene.
Subject: Answering for Gene From: mebaser To: Rod Date Posted: Wed, Feb 16, 2000 at 18:11:33 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
I do find it curious that you feel compelled to answer for Gene.
--- Rod, I am not answering for Gene, but I guess I am
somewhat defending him. The reason being is that I do not see this
'gist' you speak of in Gene's post that supposedly points to a denial
of the inspiration of Leviticus. My thinking was that in order to
be fair to Gene, not to give him leverage, but to be honest to his
post, I cannot agree that he plainly denies inspiration by what
he wrote in his post. I see though that you do, in your honest evaluation,
see this problem in Gene's post. So, now that you have engages Gene
himself, i'll leave this discussion (or at least this point of it,
maybe i'll join in at a different point) for the time being. In
Christ, mebaser
Subject: Re: Why, yes, I read and understood your point From: Gene To: Rod Date Posted: Wed, Feb 16,
2000 at 04:50:58 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Rod, Gene: please note and answer the entire question
I'm about to ask. Do you believe that this section in Leviticus
27 is part of the inspired Word of the Lord God Almighty, given
expressly and infallibly to Moses himself, directly by God Himself,
and that it was God's express will that the various catagories mentioned
here of 'valuation' are God's, not man's? ABSOLUTELY!
Subject: Gene, I'm very pleased to hear that! From: Rod To: Gene Date Posted: Wed, Feb 16,
2000 at 06:20:34 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: Gene, Please humor me one more time. :>) Having
answered the previous question in the affirmative, do you also believe
that God's law, given directly by inspiration of the Spirit of God
infallibly to Moses, caused the culture of Israel, or did God merely
'work within' the existing culture which men 'created' or 'evolved?'
And finally, since you've stated previously that you believe that
Moses not only didn't write, but actually couldn't have written, all the Pentateuch personally, but others
added to his work, it being impossible for Almighty God to have
enabled Moses to describe his own death prior to its occurrence,
for one example, how do you know that Moses himself received this
direct and infallibly inspired Word from God's Spirit?
Subject: Re: Gene, I'm very pleased to hear that! From: Gene To: Rod Date Posted: Wed, Feb 16,
2000 at 07:50:45 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Rod, No question about it; God worked within mans
culture. He does not hate culture but works within it to serve His
purposes.
Subject: Gene, that doesn't answer either question, but From: Rod To: Gene Date Posted: Wed, Feb 16,
2000 at 08:50:40 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: the fact that you've evaded both direct questions
asked here does tell us where you stand, doesn't it? Also, I have
to point this out: Nowhere in my posts have I suggested that the
LORD God 'hated' the culture of Israel. He couldn't hate it, since
He created it to serve His purposes and used the law, which is 'pure'
(Ps. 19:8; cp. 119:140) and 'holy, just, and good' (Rom. 7:12) to
demonstrate to Israel how far short of God's ideal man was by measuring
him with God's yardstick. The law was to utterly prove that man
was incapable of goodness from within himself, teaching him that
substitutionary sacrifice of innocent blood was required: 'Wherefore,
the law was our schoolmaster to bring us unto Christ, that we might
be justified by faith' (Gal. 3:24). Once one is taught by God, that
he can't 'measure up' to God's standard of absolute holiness, being
shown the absolute necessity of sinless blood being shed in his
stead, he is ready at last to receive the gospel, which, as you
know is 'good news' for 'all ye who labor and are heavy laden [with
the guilt of sin and the burden of observance of a holy law], and
I will give you rest...and ye shall find rest unto your souls' (Matt.
11:28-29). Peter gave a direct comment on this very aspect of the
law, when he said, 'Now, therefore, why put God to the test, to
put a yoke upon the neck of the disciples which neither our fathers
nor we were able to bear? But we believe that through the grace
of the Lord Jesus Christ we shall be saved, even as they' (Acts
15:10-11). Now, did you notice, Gene, what the Word said, 'the grace
of the Lord Jesus Christ?' In Eph. 2:5,8-10, the Apostle Paul says
that salvation, 'by grace' is 'the gift of God.' And Peter says
that 'grace' (the thing which saves men) is 'of the Lord Jesus Christ.'
The fact that grace is 'of' Him, as well as the title Peter assigns
Him by inspiration, 'the Lord Jesus Christ,' doubly affirms that
He is God.
Subject: Re: Gene, that doesn't answer either question, but From: Gene To: Rod Date Posted:
Wed, Feb 16, 2000 at 11:01:27 (PST) Email
Address:Not Provided
Message: Rod, I have
no clue why you are bringing up this 'trinity' discussion again!
What does that have to do with God and culture? You have a right
to form your own conclusions concerning my posts if you want.
Subject: What does it have to do with God and culture? From: Rod To: Gene Date Posted: Wed, Feb 16,
2000 at 11:47:27 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: Would you like to reconsider that question, Gene?
What does the Triunity of God (His very nature) have to do with
God and the type of culture based on His Word He creates for His
people? You can't be serious!
Subject: Re: leviticus From: laz To: Gene Date Posted: Tues, Feb 15, 2000 at 07:51:26 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Gene - are you suggesting that if it were up to God in establishing
the OT legal framwork, He would have been more egalitarian ... but
was forced otherwise on account of the humanly-devised paternalistic
culture of that day? In otherwords, He works with what we give him?
When was God stripped of His power and authority? laz hmmm, if God
'works within the culture'...are you suggesting that you embrace
open theology...whereby God is moved by time and space...i.e., He's
not really immutable but subject to the whims of man?
Subject: C'mon Laz From: mebaser To: laz Date Posted: Tues, Feb 15, 2000 at 15:34:46 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Gene - are you suggesting that if it were up to God in establishing
the OT legal framwork, He would have been more egalitarian ... but
was forced otherwise on account of the humanly-devised paternalistic
culture of that day? In otherwords, He works with what we give him?
When was God stripped of His power and authority? laz hmmm, if God
'works within the culture'...are you suggesting that you embrace
open theology...whereby God is moved by time and space...i.e., He's
not really immutable but subject to the whims of man? ---
Laz bro, C'mon now, God totally works within the framework of the
culture which He has ordained. I know that Gene hasn't exactly shown
himself to be a true bother in the faith, but what he said regarding
how God work within cultire is not off base. What about Ephesians
6:5 (Slaves, be obedient to those who are your masters according
to the flesh, with fear and trembling, in the sincerity of your
heart, as to Christ)? This verse applies not only to household servants
who were actually paid for their labor, but to full custody slaves
in which their masters were their owners as well (like Onesimus
was a slave to Philemon). Unless you think that God approves of
slavery, God works His will within the evil cultural institution
of slavery to bring glory and honor to His name. Besides, the answer
given by Rod to danny's original post depicts the Leviticus 27 passage
as an issue where God works within the culture. In Christ, mebaser
Subject: Sin without free will? From: ShowMe To: All Date Posted: Sun, Feb 13, 2000 at 09:21:21 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
In reading the Westminister Confession, on this site, I was confused
by the apparent negation of sin that is the logical conclusion that
I draw from its argument for Total Depravity due to an inherited
sin nature, here’s the section: I. Our
first parents, being seduced by the subtilty and temptations of
Satan, sinned, in eating the forbidden fruit. This their sin, God
was pleased, according to His wise and holy counsel, to permit,
having purposed to order it to His own glory. II. By this sin they
fell from their original righteousness and communion, with God,
and so became dead in sin, and wholly
defiled in all the parts and faculties of soul and body. III. They being the root of all mankind, the guilt
of this sin was imputed; and the same death in sin, and corrupted nature,
conveyed to all their posterity descending from them by ordinary
generation. IV. From this original corruption,
whereby we are utterly indisposed, disabled, and made opposite to
all good, and wholly inclined to all evil, do proceed all actual
transgressions. V. This corruption of nature, during
this life, does remain in those that are regenerated; and although
it be, through Christ, pardoned, and mortified; yet both itself,
and all the motions thereof, are truly and properly sin. VI. Every
sin, both original and actual, being a transgression of the righteous
law of God, and contrary thereunto, does
in its own nature, bring guilt upon the sinner, whereby he is bound
over to the wrath of God, and curse
of the law, and so made subject to death, with all miseries spiritual,
temporal, and eternal. Perhaps I’m incorrect,
but from this I assume that Calvinists believe that one is compelled
to sin because of an inherited nature. That a person is born with
a 'sin nature' that forces them to sin. They cannot refrain from
sinning. They must sin. Am I understanding your position correctly,
do you believe that sin is something that we have no more control
over than the color of our skin, or our eyes, or any other of our
physical or mental traits? Would you please explain to me how you
come to the conclusion that a person can sin and yet not have a
'free will.' I do not see how anyone can be morally responsible
unless they have a free will. This idea of a 'sin nature' that makes
a person sin, to my mind actually does away with any moral responsibility,
and in doing away with moral responsibility it actually does away
with sin! How can we be held accountable to be morally responsible
unless we have the ability to do that which is moral? If you relegate
human beings to an animal level whereby they can only do that which
is according to an inherited necessity to sin, then they are relieved
of any and all moral responsibility and are no more guilty than
any other animal that lives according to its animal nature, its
instincts. How can there be sin without free will? ShowMe
Subject: Both are true! From: Hesed To: ShowMe Date Posted: Mon, Feb 14, 2000 at 13:03:11 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
'How can there be sin without free will?' Scripture teaches that
man confronted by TRUTH is 'without excuse' Ro. 1. Now if he is
without excuse then he 'must' be responsible. Are calvinists denying
this when they speak of a sin nature? Are they saying that the man
who sins cannot be accused. Not in the least! Man is both 'inclined
towards sin' and without excuse, both at the same time! If you want
everything to be 'logical' then I'm afraid your in the wrong field
of studies! God is incomprehensible and his ways are past finding
out. If we could figure everything, then we would be God!
Subject: Re: Sin without free will? From: Pilgrim To: ShowMe Date Posted: Sun, Feb 13, 2000 at 21:48:54 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
ShowMe,
Let's turn this around for a second
and look at the other side, as it were. God requires that we all
live our lives PERFECTLY (Matt 5:48). Perfect not in a relative
sense, but as God Himself is PERFECT! Again, God requires that we
all be HOLY (Lev 11:44; 19:2; 20:4; 1Pet 1:16). Give these two commandments,
which are among many others I could reference, is it your contention,
that IF you so willed to do so, you could fulfill these requirements
due to the fact that you have a 'free-will'? And if not, are you
saying that God is unjust in that He requires you to be PERFECT
and HOLY, when you are unable to do so? Please remember, a good
effort doesn't count in God's eyes, ONLY to do ALL that He requires
is acceptable (Jam 2:10).
In His Precious Blood, Pilgrim
Subject: Re: Sin without free will? From: ShowMe To: Pilgrim Date Posted: Mon, Feb 14, 2000 at 11:09:12 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Pilgrim, You wrote: 'Let's turn this around
for a second and look at the other side, as it were. God requires
that we all live our lives PERFECTLY (Matt 5:48). Perfect not in
a relative sense, but as God Himself is PERFECT!' I do not understand how you can say that 'perfect' is
not to be understood in a 'relative sense' you seem to be applying
an absolute attribute to man! Only God is Perfect, and only God
is absolutely Holy, we will never reach a state of perfection equal
to God. We can only gain that perfection in Jesus Christ, we will
never have it in and of ourselves. Like everything else our 'perfection'
is a blood bought gift I certainly do not claim to be blameless,
my sins are many, and great, but that does not seem to have been
the case with Zacharias and Elisabeth. Luke 1:6 And they were both
righteous before God, walking in all the commandments and ordinances
of the Lord blameless. Paul says that he kept the law: Php 3:6 Concerning
zeal, persecuting the church; touching the righteousness which is
in the law, blameless. Again, I do not argue against the idea that
all people sin but I do argue against the notion that all are forced
to sin because of heredity. If that is the case then sin is no longer
sin. You wrote: 'And if not, are you saying
that God is unjust in that He requires you to be PERFECT and HOLY,
when you are unable to do so? Please remember, a good effort doesn't
count in God's eyes, ONLY to do ALL that He requires is acceptable
(Jam 2:10).' God is not 'unjust' because
He has supplied our perfection and our holiness, He has supplied
the perfection and the holiness that He has demanded. God supplies
that which He demands. We will never be perfect as God is Perfect
and we will never be holy as God is Holy outside of Jesus Christ.
Jesus Christ is our Perfection and Jesus Christ is our Holiness.
My answer to your question is YES, I am perfect as God is Perfect
so long as I am in Jesus Christ. Sincerely, ShowMe
Subject: Re: Sin without free will? From: Pilgrim To: ShowMe Date Posted: Mon, Feb 14, 2000 at 13:07:48 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
ShowMe,
You have ineffectively tried to
avoid the issue I posed to you. There is no qualification whatsoever
in God's requirement that all men be HOLY and PERFECT. The Lord
Christ, being the legal and actual substitute for those whom the
Father gave Him, was under full obligation to do that which WE ourselves
are required, but fail to do. There is no RELATIVE to be sought
in His commandments. Yes, those you mentioned were 'blameless' in
that they OUTWARDLY performed the required ceremonial laws of which
the Jews were under obligation. However, their hearts were not 'blameless'
else they would never had sought the Messiah and the redemption
He would bring. David sometimes declared that he too kept the law
(Ps 18:32; 101:2; 119:55), yet it is the overwhelming testimony
of the Scriptural record that 'no one does good' (Ps 14:1-3; 53:1-3;
Job 15:14-16; 25:4-6; Eccl 7:20; Gen 6:5; Rom 3:10f; et al). The
problem with your reply is that you 'jumped' to Christ who is alone
'righteous' in the FULL SENSE of what is perfect and holy to find
true holiness an perfection for yourself. Indeed, this is a truism,
for only in Him is one found righteous, for through faith, Christ's
perfect righteousness is imputed to the believer. Further, the Lord
Christ, speaking of man's ABILITY to come to Him in faith eliminates
any self-effort on the part of man: Joh
6:44 'No man can come to me, except the Father which hath sent me
draw him: and I will raise him up at the last day.' Paul expands on the condition of all men in Ephesians
2:1-5 and Colossians 3:10, clearly stating that all men are born
'DEAD in trespasses and sins' and thus what they need is not to
reach inside themselves and pull out faith, but what they need prerequisitely
is a NEW NATURE, which God alone is able to create. Your contention
is one that is all too common, and it wasn't Calvin or the Reformation
that brought forth the doctrine of Total Depravity as you have asserted.
One of the first 'formal' attacks on the Church and its doctrine
of the total depravity of the soul came by Pelagius in the fourth
century, which was refuted by Augustine of Hippo. This can be justified
historically by the 'Council of Orange' (529), wherein this entire
line of argumentation was soundly rejected. In fact, it is said
that it was a prayer of Augustine that infuriated Pelagius and to
launch his attack upon this doctrine. For Augustine prayed, 'Lord!
Commandest what Thou wilt. And grant what Thou has commandest.',
thus implying, and rightly so, that God has the sovereign right
to command what He chooses and to require of His creation whatsoever
He wills. Further, that which He does command may not be within
the ability of the creature to do; postlapsarian. The fact is that
all men are born with a corruption of nature; inherited from the
judgment placed upon Adam after his fall. Further, his guilt is
also imputed to us for his transgression as well, so that we are
all under the judgment of God and without hope, unless God sovereignly
and graciously imparts to us that new nature (regeneration), thus
'making us willing' (Ps 110:3) to seek Him by a true and living
faith. Unfortunately, I am out of time. But I think that a detailed
exegetical discussion concerning Romans 5:12-18 would be profitable
to the end that we might resolve the biblical answer to your personal
consternation. And thus I will return, D.v. to do just that. In
His Precious Blood, Pilgrim 'The Sovereignty of God is the stumbling
block on which thousands fall and perish; and if we go contending
with God about His sovereignty it will be our eternal ruin. It is
absolutely necessary that we should submit to God as an absolute
sovereign, and the sovereign of our souls; as one who may have mercy
on whom He will have mercy and harden whom He will!' - Jonathan
Edwards (1703-1758)
Subject: Re: Sin without free will? From:
ShowMe To: Pilgrim Date
Posted: Mon, Feb 14, 2000
at 16:44:22 (PST) Email
Address:Not Provided
Message: Pilgrim, I truly have not 'tried to
avoid the issue' that you posed. I really believe that we are only
perfect and holy so long as we are in Christ and that God supplies
that which He demands. You wrote: 'The
problem with your reply is that you 'jumped' to Christ who is alone
'righteous' in the FULL SENSE of what is perfect and holy to find
true holiness an perfection for yourself. I honestly do not know where else to 'jump' there is no
righteousness outside of Jesus Christ. You bring up the 'Council
Of Orange' and I have already answered to that in my post to Laz,
I hope that you can find it, if not, I will re-post it here if you
like. As I said in that post to Laz, I do not believe that a person
has any part at all in their own salvation. Free will cannot be
separated from ability. We do not have the ability to save ourselves,
that’s why we need a Saviour. We cannot save ourselves, therefore
free will has no place in our salvation. Sincerely, ShowMe
Subject: Re: Sin without free will? From: Pilgrim To: ShowMe Date Posted: Mon, Feb 14, 2000 at 17:47:28 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
ShowMe,
Again, it appears that you have
tried to avoid that which I have offered you by way of reason, logic
and more importantly, the Scriptures. Men are BORN DEAD, and thus
have no moral or spiritual ability to do those things which God
requires. Yet, they are accountable to do just those things. All
men were judged by way of 'trial' in Adam and thus when he rebelled
and acted in disobedience, the consequences fell not only upon him,
but upon all those whom he represented, i.e., the entire human race.
The truth is that you had your 'chance' in Adam, whom God appointed
as your Federal Head. The consequence of your depravity is your
just reward and thus you have been rendered unable to do those things
which God STILL requires. Ability and respons(ability) are not inseparable
attributes as you contend at all. As Creator, God is entitled to
total subservience and obedience by His creatures, regardless of
ability or lack thereof. Man, in Adam was given the opportunity
to live perfectly and in holiness but failed. Man has been cursed/punished
and you don't like the judgment cast upon you. God is justified
in His works, but you are not in your indictment of Him and it.
You wrote: 'I do not believe that a person
has any part at all in their own salvation.'
QUESTION: Do you really believe this? REALLY? that man has no part whatsoever? I am
in full agreement with this statement for as the Lord Christ tersely
said it, 'No man CAN come to me, UNLESS the Father who sent Me draw
him!' (Jh 6:44). And Paul, in full agreement echoed this truth when
he said, '. . . there is none that seeketh after God.' (Rom 3:10).
Since no one CAN or DOES even seek after God, i.e., for the purpose
of obtaining salvation in Christ, then how could a person who hypothetically
had 'free-will' have any advantage over one, who according to the
biblical truth that men are bondservants to sin and only do that
which their corrupt natures dictate? I am sure you comprehend the
dilemma! What man can argue that he sins out of a compulsion that
overwhelms his will? Do not men sin willfully? It is in this sense
that men are 'free'; they only do that which they desire to do most
at any given moment. Men do indeed perform acts of 'relative good',
which Augustine called, 'the splendid vices of the heathen.', but
these 'good works' which most all men do to one degree or another
fail miserably to qualify as 'good works' before God; 'there is
none that doeth good, no, not one.', says Paul. And describing the
state of men he also said, '. . . Gentiles
walk, in the vanity of their mind, 18 Having the understanding darkened,
being alienated from the life of God through the ignorance that
is in them, because of the blindness of their heart: 19 Who being
past feeling have given themselves over unto lasciviousness, to
work all uncleanness with greediness.'
(Eph 4:17-19). God holds you, me and all men responsible even though
we are unable to do those things which He requires. This includes
trusting in the Lord Christ for that righteousness which is so necessary
for a right standing before the LORD. We are all, by nature, unwilling
AND unable to do ANYTHING good, including coming to Christ for the
remission of sins.
In His Precious Blood, Pilgrim
Subject: Re: Sin without free will? From: ShowMe To: Pilgrim Date Posted: Tues, Feb 15, 2000 at 13:05:29 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Pilgrim, Lunch time! I’ll try to reply to your post, food for the
mind as well as the body :o) I was expecting your commentary on
Romans 5:12-21. I suppose that this is the heart of your argument
from that passage of Scripture? You wrote: All
men were judged by way of 'trial' in Adam and thus when he rebelled
and acted in disobedience, the consequences fell not only upon him,
but upon all those whom he represented, i.e., the entire human race.
The truth is that you had your 'chance' in Adam, whom God appointed
as your Federal Head. The consequence of your depravity is your
just reward and thus you have been rendered unable to do those things
which God STILL requires.' Rom. 5:12 Wherefore,
as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and
so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned: '…and so
death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned…' rather, 'all
sinned,' the meaning is that Adam’s sin is accounted to all men.
And because of that death comes to every individual. Death does
not come to the individual because of their personal sin but because
of Adam’s sin. This passage of Scripture does not support the doctrine
of a 'sin nature' that forces people to sin. As human beings we
have needs, legitimate needs. Primary needs and secondary needs.
Primary need consist of air, water, food, clothing, shelter. We
also have many secondary needs, the need to procreate, the need
to communicate, the need to belong, etc., etc., etc. These needs
are not sinful but the way in which we decide to meet our needs
can be sinful. Sin is the meeting of our needs in an unlawful way.
For instance, the need to procreate is to be satisfied in 'marriage',
to satisfy that need outside of 'marriage' is sin. The desire to
procreate is 'natural' and not sinful, the means by which we satisfy
that desire can be sinful. We do not have a 'sin nature' that forces
us to meet our legitimate desires in an unlawful way. You continued:
'As Creator, God is entitled to total subservience
and obedience by His creatures, regardless of ability or lack thereof.
Man, in Adam was given the opportunity to live perfectly and in
holiness but failed. Man has been cursed/punished and you don't
like the judgment cast upon you. God is justified in His works,
but you are not in your indictment of Him and it. Here you turn personal and I really don’t mind but it
does seem a bit presumptuous on your part. I have no indictment
against God at all. Your doctrine that teaches that I sin because
it is my nature to sin and that I cannot help but sin would be rather
comforting and I can see why you want to hold to it, it removes
any moral responsibility. Instead of 'the devil made me do it' you
have 'my sin nature made me do it' the first 'the devil made me
do it' is more Scriptural than the notion that we must sin because
we cannot help but sin. That simply removes any and all moral responsibility,
it makes sin meaningless. Sin without free will is not sin it is
'necessity.' I wrote: 'I do not believe
that a person has any part at all in their own salvation.' You ask: 'Do you really believe
this? REALLY? that man has no part whatsoever? YES, I REALLY
believe that man has NO PART WHATSOEVER in his salvation. Truly that is what I believe. Jesus
Christ is the Saviour, He saves, we have no part in it, that is
His work and His work alone. We can take nothing away from it and
we can add nothing to it. Jesus Saves, He certainly does not need
our permission to do so! Free will has absolutely nothing to do
with salvation. You refer to Rom. 3:10 and say that '…no one CAN or DOES even seek after God…' But this passage of Scripture does not say that no one
CAN seek after God, it is simply saying that no one or was seeking
after God and when Paul says 'it is written' he is referring to
certain and various Old Testament passages of Scripture and if we
take the context, using verses 2 and 9 we could even come to the
conclusion that Paul is here speaking of the Jew in proof that they
do not have an advantage over the Gentiles. Showing that even though
the Jews had the advantage of the Scriptures it gave them no advantage
over the Gentiles. YOU WROTE: 'What man can argue that he sins out
of a compulsion that overwhelms his will? Do not men sin willfully?
It is in this sense that men are 'free'; they only do that which
they desire to do most at any given moment.' Again, our desires
are legitimate. Yes, people willfully sin, but they also willfully
resist temptation, they do not have to sin. At any 'given moment'
we are seeking to meet some need or other, how we meet that need
determines whether we are sinning or not. We choose, and in choosing
we are responsible. I do not understand how you can hold to your
doctrine of an 'inherited sin nature' that forces people to sin
'naturally' and makes it so that they cannot not sin without doing
away with sin itself! And if the sin nature makes us sin 'naturally'
would not the 'new nature' the 'righteous nature' cause us to 'naturally'
be righteous, not sin? Is the 'sin nature' so much more powerful
than the 'new nature' that we cannot live righteously, naturally?
This whole concept of an inherited sin nature does damage to God’s
Word, it is not a Scriptural doctrine. If you remove free will then
you remove any and all responsibility. We are no more than animals
living by our inborn natures. We only do that which is 'natural'
and since sin is 'natural' all we can do is sin. If that’s the case
then there simply is no such thing as moral responsibility, the
law is meaningless, sin does not exist, we are not accountable.
I would really like to know how you reconcile this, I cannot understand
how you can have sin without free will, I really can’t. Sincerely,
ShowMe
Subject: Re: Sin without free will? From: Tom To: ShowMe Date Posted: Tues, Feb 15, 2000 at 13:38:31 (PST) Email Address:ahardy@rapidnet.net
Message:
ShowMe I only have a minute, so I will not try to give you a complete
answer. Perhaps someone else will do so. You seem to think we have
a free will. But really we don't, we have free agency to do what
our nature's desire. But the sin nature will not choose what is
contrary to it, because it is at emnity against God. This does not
mean that because of the sin nature the unsaved will nessasarily
become a Hitler or a Charles Manson. Indeed, many people who are
not saved, do things that are commendable. However, only those whom
God chooses and saves, have a new nature that although still fights
against the old nature, will do the things of the Spirit, and therefore
will not habitually sin, because we now want to please our God,
rather than our flesh (sin nature). Tom Tom
Subject: Re: Sin without free will? From: ShowMe To: Tom Date Posted: Tues, Feb 15, 2000 at 17:03:26 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Tom, You wrote: 'But really we don't, we
have free agency to do what our nature's desire. But the sin nature
will not choose what is contrary to it, because it is at emnity
against God.' From your post I do not
think that you understand the problem, or my question. Here you
introduce the term 'free agency' as a replacement for 'free will.'
Apparently you define this 'free agency' as the freedom to act according
to one’s nature and then teach that since people only have a 'sin
nature' then they are only free to sin. You really have done nothing
to solve the problem. You are still left with an inherited 'sin
nature' that is passed on to man that makes it impossible for him
to not sin. That means that he is not morally responsible for his
actions, he is still just doing what comes naturally. If a person
must sin and cannot not sin then they cannot be held accountable,
they are not morally responsible, they are no more than an animal
living my their natural instincts. 'Free Agency' is a theological
term introduced in order to try and hide this very real problem,
without the ability to not sin you do away with moral responsibility
and thereby do away with sin itself, or at the very least make it
meaningless. Since, as you say '…the sin
nature will not choose what is contrary to it…' then, since all choice is necessitated by an inherited
sin nature, a 'totally depraved' nature, its difficult for me to
understand why you call this 'free' agency. I guess that your reasoning
is that it’s 'free' agency because the person is 'free' to choose
what he or she desires, but in reality the person is not 'free'
to choose differently than their desires, and are not 'free' to
desire differently. All is necessitated by inherited nature before
any choice is actually made, and so they are not 'free' at all.
If you blame sin on a inherited sin nature then the person that
chooses to steal, or chooses to practice homosexuality, has no alternative
but to so choose. The choice was necessitated by the desire, and
the desire was necessitated by their inherited sin nature. It might
just as well be a sin to have blue eyes as to commit the most evil
act since both are just a result of ones heredity. You wrote: 'This does not mean that because of the sin nature
the unsaved will nessasarily become a Hitler or a Charles Manson.
Indeed, many people who are not saved, do things that are commendable.' Here you introduce a different problem, you now have
degrees of sin, are you saying that Hitler and Charles Manson inherited
a stronger sin nature than the rest of us? That there are varying
degrees of 'sin natures'? Is that how you explain the fact that
some don’t sin as greatly as others? This simply is not Scriptural,
we sin when we make wrong choices, we are responsible for our actions,
we have no excuse. We can’t excuse ourselves by proclaiming that
we are sinners because we were born with a sin nature and cannot
help but sin. This whole idea does away with sin, or makes it so
that only those that, as you say; '… only
those whom God chooses and saves, have a new nature that although
still fights against the old nature, will do the things of the Spirit,
and therefore will not habitually sin,…'
your statement would mean that only those that have a 'new nature'
can choose not to sin, therefore that would make them the only ones
that can sin. Under this doctrine only Christians, only those with
a 'new nature,' can sin. Sincerely, ShowMe
Subject: It seems you should change your handle to... From: Rod To: ShowMe Date Posted: Tues, Feb 15,
2000 at 19:44:07 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: 'I'm too stubborn to be shown!' It's a very curious
thing that you always write, quoting the author of the post, ignoring
that Scripture is being cited. Please show us how God erred in writing
these things: Rom.6:20: 'For when you were slaves of sin, you were
free in regard to righteousness.' (NASB) When I quoted that verse
for you in the KJV above in the post, 'Sin is from a will free from
righteousness,' you said this: Show me--'You really have done nothing
to solve the problem. You are still left with an inherited 'sin
nature' that is passed on to man that makes it impossible for him
to not sin. That means that he is not morally responsible for his
actions, he is still just doing what comes naturally. If a person
must sin and cannot not sin then they cannot be held accountable,
they are not morally responsible, they are no more than an animal
living my their natural instincts.' It would seem from that statement
that you don't believe God or His Word. You attributed to me what
God said and then said He erred! God said these things and He says
them definitely, the word translated 'servants' in the KJV, being
translated more properly 'slaves' in the NASB. The word 'free' signifies
'liberty,' the person being at 'liberty' or 'free' from the effects
or influence of righteousness. But, you audaciously proclaim that
God is not only mistaken in saying that, but you actually assign
Him moral responsibility for man's sin! If you believe the Bible
is God's Word and that He is absolutely righteous, you cannot find
fault for His 'conclud[ing] all under sin' (Rom. 11:32), which is
underscored by God's Spirit in Gal. 3:22: 'But the scripture hath
concluded all under sin, that the promise
by faith of Jesus Christ might be given to them that believe.' That verse not only says God did it, but He did it
in order that He might save people and show them, not 'fairness,'
not 'justice' (justice would send all to hell), but mercy in His
bountiful grace to believers. Paul, under inspiration of God, writes
to you, 'Show Me,' in Rom. 9:18-24. In effect, you are questioning the Potter, saying, 'Why hast thou made [us]
thus?' You have ignored the truth in the above verses and in Rom.
8:6-9, as well as 1 Cor. 2:14. May I request that you deal, not
with my 'opinions,' as you perceive my quotation of God's Word,
but specifically and exclusively with the Scritpures cited. I'd
be very interested in how you answer Him.
Subject: Sin without free will??? From: ShowMe To: Rod Date Posted: Tues, Feb 15, 2000 at 21:07:43 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Rod, You wrote: 'Please show us how God
erred in writing these things:' God certainly
did not err in writing the Scriptures, but you, being dominated
by the sin nature that you inherited, a sin nature that is apparently
much stronger than the new righteous nature that you profess to
have received, do err in your understanding of His Word. How could
you not? Since your dominate nature is one ruled by sin? I will
certainly comment on Romans 6:20, if you like. No problem at all.
Rom.6:20 For when ye were the servants of sin, ye were free from
righteousness. A literal translation is: 'For when bondsmen you
were of sin, free you were as to righteousness.' 'Ye were free from
righteousness.' While servants of sin they did not serve righteousness
at all. I don’t understand what your problem is, common sense will
tell you that while you are sinning you are not serving righteousness.
This verse has nothing at all to do with some inherited sin nature
that makes people sin. Rom.6:21 What fruit had ye then in those
things whereof ye are now ashamed? for the end of those things is
death. This passage of Scripture has to do with the fruits of sinful
acts versus the fruits of righteous ones. Rom.6:22 But now being
made free from sin, and become servants to God, ye have your fruit
unto holiness, and the end everlasting life. If you use verse 20
in the way that you are trying to then you must be saying that you
are 'free from sin,' that you no longer sin? That you no longer
submit to your 'sin nature'? If you are not saying that then you
cannot use verse 20 in the way that you are trying to use it. If
you are using verse 20 to show that people must sin because of some
kind of inherited 'sin nature' then you must also proclaim that
you no longer sin because you have been 'made free from sin' free
from that 'sin nature.' You Wrote: 'Rom.6:20:
'For when you were slaves of sin, you were free from salvation.'
(NASB) When I quoted that verse for you in the KJV above in the
post, 'Sin is from a will free from righteousness,' you said this:
' And you wrote: '
It would seem from that statement that you don't believe God or
His Word. You attributed to me what God said and then said He erred!' 'Sin is from a will free from righteousness' is not God’s
word! It’s something that you have made up and yet you rebuke me
for not accepting it as Scripture! Me thinks you think to highly
of yourself :o) Here you accuse me of assigning to God the moral
responsibility for man’s sin: 'God said
these things and He says them definitely, the word translated 'servants'
in the KJV, being translated more properly 'slaves' in the NASB.
The word 'free' signifies 'liberty,' the person being at 'liberty'
or 'free' from the effects or influence of righteousness. But, you
audaciously proclaim that God is not only mistaken in saying that,
but you actually assign Him moral responsibility for man's sin!' When in fact I’m the one making man morally responsible
for his sins! Your doctrine of an inherited sin nature removes all
moral responsibility from man. People are no more than animals living
my their instincts, there sin natures. Under your system they are
blameless for there is no moral responsibility and without moral
responsibility there is no sin. In reality you are the one placing
the blame for man’s sin on God, not me. You wrote: 'If
you believe the Bible is God's Word and that He is absolutely righteous,
you cannot find fault for His 'conclud[ing] all under sin' (Rom.
11:32), which is underscored by God's Spirit in Gal. 3:22: 'But
the scripture hath concluded all under sin, that the promise by
faith of Jesus Christ might be given to them that believe.' That
verse not only says God did it, but He did it in order that He might
save people and show them, not 'fairness,' not 'justice' (justice
would send all to hell), but mercy in His bountiful grace to believers.' The fact that God has concluded all under sin does not
mean that people sin because of an inherited sin nature. You seem
to be grasping at straws. The potter here is talking about two household
vessels, one a vessel of honor, perhaps one that is used to serve
a very fine wine, the other a vessel of dishonor, probably a chamber
pot but both vessels serve their purpose. It really has little to
do with salvation and nothing to do with some inherited 'sin nature'
that causes people to sin. You ask about Romans 8:6: Rom 8:6 For
to be carnally minded is death; but to be spiritually minded is
life and peace. Rom 8:7 Because the carnal mind is enmity against
God: for it is not subject to the law of God, neither indeed can
be. Rom 8:8 So then they that are in the flesh cannot please God.
Rom 8: 9 But ye are not in the flesh, but in the Spirit, if so be
that the Spirit of God dwell in you. Now if any man have not the
Spirit of Christ, he is none of his. Again this passage of Scripture
has nothing to do with some inherited sin nature that relieves people
from any moral responsibility. Again if you try to use it in the
way that you do you are left with having to proclaim that you are
now sinless, that you are no longer in the flesh if by flesh you
mean your 'sin nature.' You tell me that I ignored the truth of
1 Cor. 2:14: 1Co 2:14 But the natural man receiveth not the things
of the Spirit of God: for they are foolishness unto him: neither
can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned. Again,
nothing here about some sort of inherited sin nature, if you want
to show me in any of the verses that you say I’m ignoring just how
you arrive at the doctrine of an inherited sin nature that makes
people sin, and makes it so that people cannot not sin, please do
and I will be happy to discuss them with you. Sincerely, ShowMe
Subject: That's some of the most 'creative' exegesis I've ever
heard! From:
Rod To:
ShowMe Date Posted: Tues, Feb 15, 2000 at 22:40:59 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: I won't bother to answer all your post, as I'm really
not writing to you so much as to others, (it appears you're bullet
proof to these truths) just this part, concerning Rom. 9. Then you
can take all the 'shots' you want about my salvation and anything
else about me or my character you want. What if God, willing to
show his wrath and to make his power known, endured wtih longsuffering
the vessels of wrath, fitted to destruction; and that he might make known the riches of his mercy,
which he had before prepared unto glory, even us, whom he hath called,
not of the Jews only, but also of the Gentiles?' (verses 22-24).
Note that the saved are 'the called,' the effectually 'called' of
Romans 8:28-30, the ones whom He has promised to bring ultimately
to 'glorification' based solely on His grace. It is clear to everyone
honestly reading that section that God has, as He said in 1 Cor.
15, determined that 'in Adam all die' (see verses 21-22) precisely
and exactly because they are 'in Adam,' sharing his nature, imputed
to every one of his offspring. I won't cite all the Scriptural evidence
for this, but only a little, including: 'even so in Christ shall
all [who are in Him] be made alive.' They are so, alive, because
they were dead, dead to God in trespasses and sins (see Rom. 8:7;
Eph. 2:1-3, 5) because of Adam's sin and their/our being in Adam's
loins when he sinned representatively, just as Levi was in Abraham's
when he representatively (federally) paid tithes for his descendants
(Heb. 7:9-10). The Lord Jesus Christ said, 'Marvel not that I said
unto thee, Ye must be born again' (John 3:7) for the very simple
fact that Nicodemus and all the rest of us have been born dead,
the physical birth not only insufficient for our having the ability
to enter the kingdom, but also the direct cause of of that inability.
We are 'stillborn' spiritually even as we are born physically, as
God repeatedly states: 'What then? Are we better than they? No,
in no way, for we have before [chapter 1:18-3:8] proved that they
are all under sin; as it is written, [here he cites several OT verses]
there is none righteous, no not one [but you say Paul and God are
either liars or mistaken]; there is none that understandeth; there
is none that seeketh after God [because they can't, being spiritually
dead]. They are all gone out of the way, they are together become unprofitable; there is none
that doeth good, no, not one' (Rom. 3:9-12,
please see through verse 20). Now, when I read 'none righteous'
in God's Word, I believe it--it's the state of all mankind outside
Christ and it's because, as God declares by this same Apostle, 'in
Adam all die' by their natures of sin. When God says, 'there is
none that seeketh after God,' well, I believe that too. I invite
you to also. 'But God [God, not man], who is rich in mercy, for
his great love with which he loved us, even when we
were dead in sins hath made us alive together
with Christ (by grace ye are saved)' (Eph. 2:4-5). The phrase, 'together
with Christ' is very significant, particularly so if one compares
2 Cor. 5:21 and what is emphatically stated in Rom. 8:9: 'But ye
are not in the flesh [dead to God], but in the Spirit, if so be
that the Spirit of God dwell in you. Now if any man have not the
Spirit of Christ [exactly the same Spirit of God referred to just
previously], he is none of his.' One has to have the Sprit of Christ
(be regenerated, 'born again by water and the Spirit,' as John 3:5-6
says most definitely) before He can be Christ's. The 'new birth
from above,' the being 'born again,' a spiritual regeneration, precedes
salvation, making it possible for saving faith to take place because
'ye are saved by grace' (Eph. 2:5) and 'By grace are ye saved through
faith, and that not of yourselves...'(verse 8; cp. Rom. 3:24 and
26, where again grace makes faith possible). You probably thought
it was faith which caused grace, as the Arminians all do, but that
is contrary to God's express and precise pronouncement. I'd be interested
in how you make the determination about one's salvation. I make
it on the sincere confession that Jesus Christ, the Lord, is 'my
Lord and my God' (John 20:28), my personal belief and confession.
Apparently your standard concerning determining salvation is opposed
to God's, as well as your interpretation of His Word elsewhere.
Have you ever read 1 Cor. 12:3? Fire away, this is merely fruitless
debate and I haven't anything else to say.
Subject: Sin without free will????? From: ShowMe To: Rod Date Posted: Wed, Feb 16, 2000 at 08:46:53 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Hello Rod, You wrote:' Then you can take
all the 'shots' you want about my salvation and anything else about
me or my character you want. I’m truly
sorry if I have come across as attacking you or your character,
I most humbly apologize, it was not my intention. My intention was
to show that if you profess to be ruled or at the very least to
be influenced to the point of sinning by a sin nature that you have
inherited that can overcome the new nature that you also have then
I’m not sure just which nature is at work in your posts. For example:
In this post you say 'it appears you're bullet proof to these truths'
I certainly don’t believe that is a fair statement, nor do I believe
that it comes from a new nature. In your last post to me you suggested
that I change my handle to ''I'm too stubborn to be shown!'' in
that same post you tell me that I do not believe God and His Word,
and that I accuse God. All personal attacks on a person that you
do not even know. If you feel that I repaid in kind, again, I’m
truly sorry, I have no excuse, no sin nature that made me do it
:o) You wrote: 'It is clear to everyone honestly reading that section
that God has, as He said in 1 Cor. 15, determined that 'in Adam
all die' (see verses 21-22) precisely and exactly because they are
'in Adam,' sharing his nature, imputed to every one of his offspring.
This certainly does not prove that Adam had a sin nature but it
does make me wonder how you explain away Enoch, I’m pretty sure
that I know how, but perhaps you have a new twist. Enoch was the
offspring of Cain, you certainly would think that if anyone inherited
a 'sin nature' it would be Enoch, but we are told in Gen. 5:24 'And
Enoch walked with God: and he was not; for God took him.' The only
person before Enoch that we are told 'walked with God' is Adam,
in the Garden, before he sinned. You wrote: 'You
probably thought it was faith which caused grace, as the Arminians
all do, but that is contrary to God's express and precise pronouncement.' You apparently have not read my other posts, I have already
stated that I do not believe that free will has any part in salvation,
I’m certainly not Arminian in that respect, here, I will paste what
I have already posted on this subject: To Laz I wrote:'I do not believe that a human being plays any part
at all in their salvation. Salvation implies that one is unable
to save themselves. If a lifeguard jumps into the water to save
a drowning man he may even have to knock the person unconscious
in order to keep them from fighting, so that they can be saved.' To Pilgrim I wrote: ': 'I
do not believe that a person has any part at all in their own salvation.'
and 'YES,
I REALLY believe that man has NO PART WHATSOEVER in his salvation.
Truly that is what I believe. Jesus Christ is the Saviour, He saves,
we have no part in it, that is His work and His work alone. We can
take nothing away from it and we can add nothing to it. Jesus Saves,
He certainly does not need our permission to do so! Free will has
absolutely nothing to do with salvation.
You ask: 'I'd be interested in how you
make the determination about one's salvation. I make it on the sincere
confession that Jesus Christ, the Lord, is 'my Lord and my God'
(John 20:28), my personal belief and confession. Apparently your
standard concerning determining salvation is opposed to God's, as
well as your interpretation of His Word elsewhere. Have you ever
read 1 Cor. 12:3?' I really don’t know
how you come to the conclusion that my 'standard concerning salvation
is opposed to God’s.' My confession is that Jesus Christ has saved
me, pure and simple. I could not do anything at all to save myself.
I honestly don’t believe that you know what you are talking about.
You certainly don’t seem to understand my original question. You
seem to think that original sin and an inherited sin nature is the
same thing and you try to make Scriptures that support the doctrine
of original sin conform to your notion that we have an inherited
sin nature that gives us an excuse for our sin. It must be very
comforting to be able to say 'my sin nature made me do it' or 'I
have a new righteous nature, but my old sin nature takes over every
now and then and I sin.' Well, that’s not Bible. And, yes I have
read 1 Cor.12:3. You wrote at the beginning of you post: 'I won't bother to answer all your post, as I'm really
not writing to you so much as to others…' Well,
I’ll let you get back on your soap box, I honestly do not believe
that you understand the problem that I’m having with this doctrine
of an inherited sin nature. Sincerely, ShowMe
Subject: Re: Sin without free will????? From: Tom To: ShowMe Date Posted: Wed, Feb 16, 2000 at 13:19:19 (PST) Email Address:ahardy@rapidnet.net
Message:
ShowMe Can you read Romans chapters 7 & 8 and explain how it
is not talking about the sin nature verses the new nature? Tom
Subject: Re: Sin without free will????? From: ShowMe To: Tom Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 17, 2000 at 15:04:02 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
ShowMe Can you read Romans chapters 7 & 8 and explain how it
is not talking about the sin nature verses the new nature? Tom
--- Tom, I’m sure that your question is sincere, but I don’t
think that you realize that you are asking me to accept that there
is an inherited sin nature and then to disprove it :o) There is
no inherited sin nature in Romans 7 and 8, nor anywhere else in
God’s word for that matter. The 'flesh' is not some inherited sin
nature. Christians do not have two natures, one inherited from Adam
and the other directly created by God, where sometimes one is in
control and then at other times the other is in control. We are
not split personalities! Original sin and the so-called 'sin nature'
are not the same things. Thank you for your posts but I think that
it is pointless to continue this dialogue, it seems that the people
on this forum are totally set in this doctrine even though they
don’t seem to understand just why they believe as they do, I think
that it is probably more tradition than anything else. Sincerely,
ShowMe
Subject: Re: Sin without free will????? From: Pilgrim To: ShowMe Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 17, 2000 at 18:00:49 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
ShowMe, Nice try, but bare assertions and negations aren't sufficient
to justify your view. Original Sin and the sin nature ARE in fact
inseparable, for Original Sin is the curse which God put on Adam
and its results were death; physical, spiritual and eternal. Why
don't you offer something more than empty rhetoric either by way
of disproving the doctrine of total depravity or positively by giving
us your own personal view? Pilgrim
Subject: Re: Sin without free will????? From: Tom To: Pilgrim Date Posted: Fri, Feb 18, 2000 at 01:08:06 (PST) Email Address:ahardy@rapidnet.net
Message:
Pilgrim, you know what surprises me most about ShowMe's answer?
Even in my Arminian roots, I was taught about the sin nature and
the new nature. I have always thought that this was one teaching
that all Protestant's shared(perhaps I was mistaken?), whether Arminian
or Calvinist. This makes me wonder where ShowMe is coming from.
Tom
Subject: Re: Sin without free will????? From: Pilgrim To: Tom Date Posted: Fri, Feb 18, 2000 at 17:36:19 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Pilgrim, you know what surprises me most about ShowMe's answer?
Even in my Arminian roots, I was taught about the sin nature and
the new nature. I have always thought that this was one teaching
that all Protestant's shared(perhaps I was mistaken?), whether Arminian
or Calvinist. This makes me wonder where ShowMe is coming from.
Tom --- Tom,
You are correct on this 'O Great
One'! :-) Arminians have always affirmed the truth that all men
are born with a sin nature. A quick reading of the Remonstrants
of 1618 will confirm this. However, while Arminians affirm a sin
nature, they deny that it is 'total', in the sense that it influences
every facet of man to the point that all aspects of that nature
are polluted and render only sin. They propose that there is still
a measure of 'good' within every man that makes it possible for
him to believe on Christ. But it was Pelagius and his followers
from his time onward who deny that man is born with a sin nature.
They would say that man is born basically 'good'. Arminians would
say that man is born 'basically' evil. And Calvinists, following
Scripture say that man is born wholly wicked, although he is not
as wicked as he could be and is therefore capable of deprovement.
The 'Total' in Total Depravity simply means that a man's nature
is 'infected' in all its parts and therefore men are disposed and
a slave to sin. Charles Finney was highly influenced by Pelagius'
heresies, and he was very effective in spreading it throughout the
church throughout his life. There are many who embrace these heresies
unbeknown to themselves, because they are taught as being orthodox
and Christian today.
In the beginning,
God made man in His own image. And ever since that time, man
has been trying to return the favor.'
In His Precious Blood,
Pilgrim
Subject: Re: Sin without free will????? From:
Tom To: Pilgrim Date
Posted: Sat, Feb 19, 2000
at 00:36:42 (PST) Email
Address:ahardy@rapidnet.net
Message: Pilgrim I agree except I don't think
we can lump all Arminians in the same boat. There are Arminians
that hold to some of the doctrines in TULIP. I believe an example
of this is Hank Hanegraaff, I think he holds to the first three,
maybe four, points of TULIP. Tom
Subject: Hey, brothers,... From: na To:
Pilgrim Date Posted: Fri, Feb 18, 2000 at 18:50:21 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: ...It occurs to me that one who, 'gets himself saved,'
because he has it within himself to come to God on his own, is a
'self-made man.' Of what value is that going to be when he stands
before a holy and just God? God's own are 'his workmanship, created
in Christ Jesus...' (Eph. 2:10). A 'self-made man' must be grotesque
in God's sight beside that standard of purity and holiness!
Subject: Re: Sin without free will? From: Diaconeo To: ShowMe Date Posted: Sun, Feb 13, 2000 at 10:43:17 (PST) Email Address:bigleow_ml@yahoo.com
Message:
ShowMe, I would not say that our sin nature necessarily makes us
sin. Our sin nature merely lends us toward sin. It proves that we
are sinners. If we did not have a sin nature, even as Christ did
not have a sin natures, then we could go through life sinless. However,
the sin natures gives us the tendancy toward sin, and thusly, we
choose to sin, for we do not willing choose the things of God, but
rather the things of this world. It cannot be said that we then
have an excuse for our sinning, and thus we are beyond reproach
for sinning. Paul explains this clearly in Rom. 1:19-21. I believe
that this is why the Bible was written, and the one of the reasons
for the Millenial Kingdom. The fact that sin can continue in a Kingdom
of Righteousness just proves that man, giving a perfect setting,
still chooses the things of the world and Satan. I do not hold to
the Ultra-Calvinistic view of the denial of mans free will. I would
be classified as a moderate Calvinist, though I will admit that
Calvinists would actually label me an Armenian. Ultimately it does
come down the the point of choice. Will I choose to do good, or
evil (ie, sin). Adam, I will have to confess, is truly the only
man that had true free will. All mankind after him have been slaves
to sin. In Christ, however, we have freedom from the bonds of sin,
and we should in fact the slaves to Christ. Does man have the free
will to sin. Yes, but it is not gree will as most would think of
free will. Man chooses to sin, the unsaved because that is all he
has, and the saved because it is in our nature to sin. But this
is no excuse to sin, rather it should be the rare occasion that
a believer sins. We cannot be perfect, but we are commanded to exude
the charactor of Christ. In Christ Matthew
Subject: Re: Sin without free will? From: Tom To: Diaconeo Date Posted: Mon, Feb 14, 2000 at 13:05:20 (PST) Email Address:ahardy@rapidnet.net
Message:
Matthew You said: If we did not have a sin nature, even as Christ
did not have a sin natures, then we could go through life sinless.
Actually you are wrong in this statement. If you didn't have a sinful
nature, it would mean that it would be possible to go through life
sinless, even as our Lord went through life sinless. However we
must remember that Adam was born without a sinless nature, never
the less he did sin. Tom
Subject: Re: Sin without free will? From: Diaconeo To: Tom Date Posted: Tues, Feb 15, 2000 at 07:22:16 (PST) Email Address:bigelow_ml@yahoo.com
Message:
Tom, I don't really see the significance of the difference in our
two statements. If there is the possibility of being able to go
through life without sin, then we also have the capability of doing
so (hence could). Yes, i am fully aware that Adam was created without
a sin nature and still sinned, and yet he could have lived with
out sin, and we don't know how long of a time period in which he
did live without sin. It may have been days, months or years, we
aren't told. The fact that Adam did sin just proves how reprobate
we are. Adam had it all, a perfect place, perfect help-mate, perfect
communion with God, he was in fact in a perfect world. All of his
needs and more were taken care of. But he chose to deliberately
disobey God. Such is being human. It is the basic underlying theme
of the Bible. It is my deepest belief that this is also the underlying
theme that we see in the Millenial Kingdom: that man, given a perfect
environment will still choose against God and Righteousness. And
yet, in spite of this, inspite of the fact that God knew that man would disobey
and choose Satan as thier father, He allowed it to happen in order
to display His Love, Mercy and Grace toward us. In Christ, Matthew
Subject: Re: Sin without free will? From: Tom To: Diaconeo Date Posted: Tues, Feb 15, 2000 at 13:15:03 (PST) Email Address:ahardy@rapidnet.net
Message:
Matthew I am sorry, somehow when I read what you said, I saw the
word 'could' but interpreted it to mean 'would'. I will try to read
yours and other posters messages, more carefully. Please accept
my apology. In Christ Tom
Subject: Apology accepted (nt) From: Diaconeo To: Tom Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 17, 2000 at 12:27:56 (PST) Email Address:mlbigelow@freewwweb.com
Message:
Subject: Sin is from a will 'free from righteousness.' From: AHMNOTEAR To: Diaconeo Date Posted: Sun, Feb 13,
2000 at 14:58:20 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: The idea has been summarized thus: 'You're not a
sinner because you sin--You sin because you are a sinner.' Meaning that the nature of man, since Adam
and without the Lord Jesus Christ, is, as Romans 6:20 says, 'For
when ye were the servants of sin, ye were free from righteousness.' That is, there is
no righteousness whatsoever in the lost person; he is totally in
sin and dead-to-God. He has a will which is totally free to do what
ever it wants and what it wants is to sin against God, being absorbed
with enmity against Him and His precepts. 'Because the carnal mind
is enmity against God; for it is not subject to the law of God,
neither, indeed, can be. So then they that are in the flesh cannot please God'
(Rom. 8:8-9; cp. Rom. 5:12-21; 1 Cor. 2:14; 15:21-22; 45-50; Heb.
11:6, particularly the first clause).
Subject: Re: Sin is from a will 'free from righteousness.' From: Diaconeo
To: AHMNOTEAR
Date Posted:
Mon, Feb 14, 2000 at 12:33:36 (PST) Email
Address:mlbigelow@freewwweb.com
Message:
YES!! Thank you for your words. In Christ, Matthew
Subject: Re: Sin is from a will 'free from righteousness.' From: ShowMe
To: AHMNOTEAR
Date Posted:
Sun, Feb 13, 2000 at 19:42:33 (PST) Email
Address:Not Provided
Message: You wrote: 'The idea has been summarized thus: 'You're not a sinner
because you sin--You sin because you are a sinner.' That’s the whole point! If a person does that which they
must do then they are not free. If a person sins because they must
sin then they are not morally responsible. The only way that a person
can be responsible for their actions is if there is the possibility
that they could act differently. You remove that possibility and
in removing that possibility you remove any moral responsibility
and without moral responsibility sin does not exist. You wrote:
Meaning that the nature of man, since Adam
and without the Lord Jesus Christ, is, as Romans 6:20 says, 'For
when ye were the servants of sin, ye were free from righteousness.'
That is, there is no righteousness whatsoever in the lost person;
he is totally in sin and dead-to-God. If
that were the case then the 'lost person' would bear no responsibility
for their actions and would therefore be wrongly condemned. That
would be like telling a tiger that it was wrong to kill a man and
then condemning the tiger for doing that which is natural. It reminds
me of the story of the man who found a frozen viper and brought
it into his house, thawed it, cared for it, brought it back to health,
then when the viper bit him the man asked 'why did you bite me,
I cared for you, brought you back to life,' and the viper replied
'but you knew that I was a viper when you brought me into your house.'
The viper is blameless because it was just doing that which was
according to its nature. Under your system of theology the sinner
is blameless because he is just doing that which is according to
his nature and he cannot do differently, he is no more than an animal
living by his instincts. The person that must sin because of a sin
nature is just doing that which is according to their nature, there
is no sin, there is no blame and there can be no condemnation. Sincerely,
ShowMe
Subject: Re: Sin is from a will 'free from righteousness.' From: Tom To: ShowMe Date Posted:
Mon, Feb 14, 2000 at 13:53:45 (PST) Email
Address:ahardy@rapidnet.net
Message:
ShowMe Look at Romans 8:1 'There is therefore now no comdemnation
to them which are in Christ Jesus, who walk not after the flesh,
but after the Spirit. Galatians 5:16 'This I say then, walk in the
Spirit and ye shall not fulfill the lust of the flesh.' First of
all the word 'flesh' represents our sin natures, only those who
are in Christ Jesus (who are true Christians) will walk after the
Spirit. With that in mind look at John 6:44-45 'No man can come
to me, except the Father which hath sent me draw him; and I will
raise him up in the last day. It is written in the prophets, And
they shall be taught of God. Every man therefore that hath heard,
and hath learned of the Father, cometh to me.' Notice that in verse
43 of John 6 that Jesus is talking to those who were doubting Jesus's
claims, and then telling them that only those who God draws can
come to Him. Why is that? It is because their sinful natures will
not allow them to, unless the Father enables them to. I think it
is safe to say that we can come to the conclusion that those who
are true Christian are those who walk in the Spirit. Those who do
not walk in their sin natures, but walk in the Spirit, are those
that have drawn and enabled by the father to become believers, cf.
Jn.6:37&65. You might also want to read Romans 9 particularly
verses 12-33. Tom
Subject: Re: Sin is from a will 'free from righteousness.' From: Scott To: ShowMe Date Posted:
Tues, Feb 15, 2000 at 22:25:39 (PST) Email
Address:slavetotheking@mindspring.com
Message:
Subject: Re: Sin is from a will 'free from righteousness.' From: a monitor
To: AHMNOTEAR
Date Posted:
Sun, Feb 13, 2000 at 17:03:43 (PST) Email
Address:Not Provided
Message: The idea has
been summarized thus: 'You're not a sinner because you sin--You
sin because you are
a sinner.' Meaning that the nature of man, since Adam and without
the Lord Jesus Christ, is, as Romans 6:20 says, 'For when ye were
the servants of sin,
ye were free from righteousness.' That is, there is no righteousness
whatsoever in the lost person; he is totally in sin and dead-to-God.
He has a will which is totally free to do what ever it wants and
what it wants is to sin against God, being absorbed with enmity
against Him and His precepts. 'Because the carnal mind is enmity
against God; for it is not subject to the law of God, neither, indeed, can be.
So then they that are in the flesh cannot please God' (Rom. 8:8-9;
cp. Rom. 5:12-21; 1 Cor. 2:14; 15:21-22; 45-50; Heb. 11:6, particularly
the first clause). --- Amen! ...glad you decided to grace
us with your presence...again. ;-) In Him, monitor
Subject: Thank you sincerely, monitor From: AHMNOTEAR To: a monitor Date Posted: Sun, Feb 13, 2000 at 18:29:59 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: I came by to read the excellent ART- ICKEL on the
atonement by A. W. Pink and dropped over to see what was happening.
I couldn't resist this question. May our great and gracious God
preserve us in His care. Rod
Subject: Re: Sin without free will? From: ShowMe To: Diaconeo Date Posted: Sun, Feb 13, 2000 at 11:43:08 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
ShowMe, I would not say that our sin nature necessarily makes us
sin. Our sin nature merely lends us toward sin. It proves that we
are sinners. If we did not have a sin nature, even as Christ did
not have a sin natures, then we could go through life sinless. However,
the sin natures gives us the tendancy toward sin, and thusly, we
choose to sin, for we do not willing choose the things of God, but
rather the things of this world. It cannot be said that we then
have an excuse for our sinning, and thus we are beyond reproach
for sinning. Paul explains this clearly in Rom. 1:19-21. I believe
that this is why the Bible was written, and the one of the reasons
for the Millenial Kingdom. The fact that sin can continue in a Kingdom
of Righteousness just proves that man, giving a perfect setting,
still chooses the things of the world and Satan. I do not hold to
the Ultra-Calvinistic view of the denial of mans free will. I would
be classified as a moderate Calvinist, though I will admit that
Calvinists would actually label me an Armenian. Ultimately it does
come down the the point of choice. Will I choose to do good, or
evil (ie, sin). Adam, I will have to confess, is truly the only
man that had true free will. All mankind after him have been slaves
to sin. In Christ, however, we have freedom from the bonds of sin,
and we should in fact the slaves to Christ. Does man have the free
will to sin. Yes, but it is not gree will as most would think of
free will. Man chooses to sin, the unsaved because that is all he
has, and the saved because it is in our nature to sin. But this
is no excuse to sin, rather it should be the rare occasion that
a believer sins. We cannot be perfect, but we are commanded to exude
the charactor of Christ. In Christ Matthew --- Hello Diaconeo/Matthew,
You said: 'I would not say that our sin
nature necessarily makes us sin.' Then
you must believe that we do not have to sin? That we have a free
will and choose to sin, if that is the case then people are morally
responsible because they choose to sin when they could refrain from
sinning. That is not the Calvinist position as I understand it.
You wrote: 'If we did not have a sin nature,
even as Christ did not have a sin natures, then we could go through
life sinless.' Adam had no sin nature
yet he sinned. The lack of a sin nature does not insure a sinless
life. James 1:13 Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted
of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he
any man: James 1:14 But every man is tempted, when he is drawn away
of his own lust, and enticed. James 1:15 Then when lust hath conceived,
it bringeth forth sin: and sin, when it is finished, bringeth forth
death. If I see something that I want I can get it by working for
it, earning it, or I can steal it. If my sin nature is that of a
thief, well then, I will attempt to steal, I will do according to
my nature, I could not go against my nature. Calvinism seems to
agree with Skinners behaviorism. No one has a free will, everyone
acts according to their environment and their heredity. Therefore
homosexuality is a condition of a persons nature, its natural for
them, they cannot NOT be homosexual. The thief steal because it
is his nature to steal, he cannot NOT steal. This takes away any
moral responsibility. This negates any notion of sin. You Wrote:
Does man have the free will to sin. Yes,
but it is not gree will as most would think of free will. Man chooses
to sin, the unsaved because that is all he has, and the saved because
it is in our nature to sin. Here you say
that man has the 'free will to sin' and then you say that 'man choose
to sin…because that is all he has.' I’m sorry but this makes no
sense to me. It seems as though you are saying that man has a free
will but that he must sin, which of course contradict the statement
that man has a free will. I have no problem accepting that all people
will sin, or that all people suffer the result of Adam’s sin but
I cannot understand how Calvinists teach that all people must sin
because of an inherited sin nature and yet are to be held as morally
responsible. You cannot have total depravity and moral responsibility.
People must have free will in order to be held accountable for their
sins. 1. If all men must sin, because of an inherited nature, and
therefore cannot NOT sin; 2. If they must sin because of their nature
then it’s no different than any other inherited factor. Having blue
eyes could just as easily be considered a sin. 3. If this is the
case then no one can be morally responsible for their sin. Morally
ceases to exist. This whole idea of total depravity and an inherited
sin nature seems to me to do away with any moral responsibility,
it takes humanity from the position of the crown of creation and
lowers them to the lowest of animals, living by no more than instincts.
If there is no free will, then there is no moral responsibility
and if there is no moral responsibility then there is no sin. I
cannot see how your system of theology can reconcile this. ShowMe
Subject: Re: Sin without free will? From: Scott To: ShowMe Date Posted: Tues, Feb 15, 2000 at 22:29:04 (PST) Email Address:slavetotheking@mindspring.com
Message:
>>You remove that possibility and in removing that possibility
you remove any moral responsibility and without moral responsibility
sin does not exist. -ShowMe Wrong. You err in this statement, ShowMe.
Sin exists with or without moral responsibility. This is the crux
of the problem in your fallitic argumentation. -Scott
Subject: Re: Sin without free will? From: laz To: ShowMe Date Posted: Sun, Feb 13, 2000 at 16:52:35 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Dear Show Me - no Calvinist in his/her right mind would even try
to reconcile God's absolute sovereignty (to include unconditional
election whereby some are chosen and others not for no other reason
than it pleases Him) and that men are held responsible for their
moral choices. (Act 2:23) The Bible clearly maintains both ...so
we believe it...charges of being illogical, contradictory, etc notwithstanding.
;-) We submit 'our reason' to the authority of Scripture....God's
thoughts and ways NOT being ours. If Adam does not represent his
people (i.e., all of mankind as our 'federal head'), then Christ
can not represent His people (i.e., the Elect whom He came to die
for). This airtight parallel is clear in Romans 5. In Adam all die...'in
Christ' the many shall live. Rom 5:15 But
not as the offence, so also is the free gift. For if through the
offence of one many be dead, much more the grace of God, and the
gift by grace, which is by one man, Jesus Christ, hath abounded
unto many. 16 And not as it was by one that sinned, so is the gift:
for the judgment was by one to condemnation, but the free gift is
of many offences unto justification. 17 For if by one man's offence
death reigned by one; much more they which receive abundance of
grace and of the gift of righteousness shall reign in life by one,
Jesus Christ.) 18 Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came
upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one
the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life. 19 For
as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience
of one shall many be made righteous. blessings,
laz p.s. 'original sin' and total depravity is orthodox/historic
Christianity....unless one is of the pelagian persuasion. p.p.s.
compared to God Almighty...relatively speaking, we are but one molecule
above the animals.... also, I stopped supporting the beloved James
Dobson of FoF on account of his Skinnerian approach to child rearing....
Subject: Re: Sin without free will? From: ShowMe To: laz Date Posted: Sun, Feb 13, 2000 at 19:46:27 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Laz, You wrote: 'The Bible clearly maintains
both ...so we believe it...charges of being illogical, contradictory,
etc notwithstanding. ;-) We submit 'our reason' to the authority
of Scripture....God's thoughts and ways NOT being ours.' The Bible does not teach the contradictions that you
hold to, but if you have truly abandoned your reason to some system
of theology then there is nothing that I can say that will make
any sense to you. You profess to being unreasonable except in regard
to the system of theology that you hold to which makes it impossible
to reach you with any logical argument that might differ from your
system. It seems that you have abandoned your reason to a religious
system and will not accept any logical argument that opposes your
system of theology. A great number of people have done that and
as long as it gives them comfort I suppose there is no harm in it
but it makes any meaningful dialogue near impossible. You quote
Romans 5:15-19 in defense of your position but it does not speak
of some sin nature that forces people to sin. As I have said in
another post, I have no problem accepting the fact that all people
sin, or that all people suffer for the sin of Adam, but I do not
believe that it is scriptural to do away with sin by teaching that
man cannot refrain from sinning because of his sin nature. You wrote:
'p.s. 'original sin' and total depravity
is orthodox/historic Christianity....unless one is of the pelagian
persuasion.' Original sin and total depravity
are not the same things and total depravity is not a part of historic
Christianity unless you begin historic Christianity with Calvin.
You wrote: 'p.p.s. compared to God Almighty...relatively
speaking, we are but one molecule above the animals.... ' I am certainly most glad that God has a higher opinion
of humanity than you do! Sincerely, ShowMe
Subject: Re: Sin without free will? From: Pilgrim To: ShowMe Date Posted: Mon, Feb 14, 2000 at 13:17:52 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Consider these words in respect to man's estate before God:
Job 25:6 'How much less man, that
is a worm? and the son of man, which is a worm?'
Subject: Re: Sin without free will? From:
laz To: ShowMe Date
Posted: Mon, Feb 14, 2000
at 07:26:33 (PST) Email
Address:Not Provided
Message: Show ME - I mean no disrespect but Anne's
response shows the fundamental difference btwn Calvinism and everything
else. I wish only to bow to the Scriptures (which clearly shows
the tension btwn sovereignty and responsibility as well as other
'mysteries') thus ELEVATING God to His rightful place as best we
can understand - while you would have reason dictate what's true
(and not God's Word) thereby elevating man. Do you consider Process
Theology viable? As for the doctrine of depravity orignating with
Calvin...I don't think so....I'm sure you've heard of the Council
of Orange of 529 ad? As for my low view of man....look, compared
to my neighbor, I'm rich .... but compared to Bill Gates, I'm but
a peasant. So it is with God, man and animals...relatively speaking,
how can finite man compare to an infinite God. You do the math!
;-) laz
Subject: Re: Sin without free will? From: ShowMe To: laz Date Posted: Mon, Feb 14, 2000 at 11:15:56 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Laz, You wrote: 'I mean no disrespect but
Anne's response shows the fundamental difference btwn Calvinism
and everything else. I wish only to bow to the Scriptures (which
clearly shows the tension btwn sovereignty and responsibility as
well as other 'mysteries') thus ELEVATING God to His rightful place
as best we can understand - while you would have reason dictate
what's true (and not God's Word) thereby elevating man.' Las, I truly mean no disrespect either, but it seems
to me as if you are bowing to a system of theology and not to the
Scriptures. God wrote the Bible, the fact that He has given us the
written word is more than enough proof that He expects us to use
our God given reasoning abilities. There are rules or laws of logic,
and because God has given us His Book we can be assured that we
are to use those laws of logic to understand His Word. If your beliefs
do not conform to reason and logic then you should question your
beliefs. God’s Word was written to be understood and to understand
we must use logic and reason otherwise He would not have given us
His Book, He would have continued to use prophets with signs and
wonders. You ask: 'Do you consider Process
Theology viable?' By 'Process Theology'
I assume that you are referring to a world view which asserts that
basic reality is constantly in a process of flux and change and
that includes theology and our understanding of God and His ways.
If so, my answer is no :o) I tend to believe that reality is spiritual
and that this physical realm is but a shadow. But this is another
subject for another time. You wrote: 'As for the doctrine of depravity
orignating with Calvin...I don't think so....I'm sure you've heard
of the Council of Orange of 529 ad? You are correct, I am familiar
with the Council of Orange. It was an outgrowth of the controversy
between Augustine and Pelagius. The controversy had to do with the
degree to which a human being is responsible for his or her own
salvation, and the role of the grace of God in bringing about salvation.
I do not believe that a human being plays any part at all in their
salvation. Salvation implies that one is unable to save themselves.
If a lifeguard jumps into the water to save a drowning man he may
even have to knock the person unconscious in order to keep them
from fighting, so that they can be saved. From the Council of Orange:
CANON 2. If anyone asserts that Adam's
sin affected him alone and not his descendants also, or at least
if he declares that it is only the death of the body which is the
punishment for sin, and not also that sin, which is the death of
the soul, passed through one man to the whole human race, he does
injustice to God and contradicts the Apostle, who says, 'Therefore
as sin came into the world through one man and death through sin,
and so death spread to all men because all men sinned' (Rom. 5:12). I certainly do not deny that Adam’s sin affected all
of humanity, it was the means whereby death entered. CANON 7. If anyone affirms that we can form any right opinion
or make any right choice which relates
to the salvation of eternal life,
as is expedient for us, or that we can be saved, that is, assent
to the preaching of the gospel through our natural powers without
the illumination and inspiration of the Holy Spirit, who makes all
men gladly assent to and believe in the truth, he is led astray
by a heretical spirit, and does not understand the voice of God
who says in the Gospel, 'For apart from me you can do nothing' (John
15:5), and the word of the Apostle, 'Not that we are competent of
ourselves to claim anything as coming from us; our competence is
from God' (2 Cor. 3:5). The fact that
they made sure to limit what they were speaking about to salvation
shows that the Council of Orange was not referring to some 'sin
nature' that relieves people from any moral responsibility. They
certainly did not mean that we have to sin and can do nothing but
sin. CANON 13. Concerning the restoration
of free will. The freedom of will that was destroyed in the first
man can be restored only by the grace of baptism, for what is lost
can be returned only by the one who was able to give it. Hence the
Truth itself declares: 'So if the Son makes you free, you will be
free indeed' (John 8:36). If you want
to base your religious beliefs on the Council Of Orange then you
must accept Canon 13 and accept that you, if you are a Christian,
are now in possession of a 'free will.' Therefore you are now responsible
for you actions, you now have the power not to sin, you sin nature
no longer rules. Unlike the natural man who is totally ruled by
his inherited sin nature, you can now sin. If you hold to this Canon
then you must admit that only Christians can sin! Or, to take it
more literally, only the baptized can sin. You wrote: 'As for my low view of man....look, compared to my
neighbor, I'm rich .... but compared to Bill Gates, I'm but a peasant.
So it is with God, man and animals...relatively speaking, how can
finite man compare to an infinite God. You do the math! ;-)' The comparison was not between God and man, but as to
the worth of humanity to God. The Bible says that God so loved the
world that He gave His only begotten Son. Now I know what you must
do to the word 'world' in this verse to make it conform to you system
of theology but the Greek word used here is kosmos, and so this
verse could very easily be translated as 'God so loved His Creation
that He gave His only begotten Son…' Regardless, He thought enough
of humanity to die for them. He paid a great redemption price, I
therefore cannot belittle that which God has esteemed so highly,
I do not see man as no more than an animal that must live according
to an inherited 'sin nature'. Sincerely, ShowMe
Subject: Re: Sin without free will? From: Tom To: ShowMe Date Posted: Mon, Feb 14, 2000 at 14:04:25 (PST) Email Address:ahardy@rapidnet.net
Message:
ShowMe See my above post on this subject. Tom
Subject: Re: Sin without free will? From: Hesed To: ShowMe Date Posted: Sun, Feb 13, 2000 at 20:01:40 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Hi Showme, You said,'I have no problem accepting the fact that all
people sin, or that all people suffer for the sin of Adam, but I
do not believe that it is scriptural to do away with sin by teaching
that man cannot refrain from sinning because of his sin nature.'
I am curious of what your understanding of the sin/freewill issue
being discussed is? And how does it differ from that which you percieve
calvinists to believe? Thanks, Hesed
Subject: Re: Sin without free will? From: Anne To: laz Date Posted: Sun, Feb 13, 2000 at 18:21:50 (PST) Email Address:anneivy@home.com
Message: p.p.s. compared to God Almighty...relatively speaking,
we are but one molecule above the animals.... This
is something that I think we frequently overlook, Laz. . . . . you
are quite right in pointing this out. The truth is, I believe, is
that we are far closer in kind to the ants we gleefully spray and
kill, than we are to the Lord our God. Yes, we are indeed 'made
in His image', but that does not mean that we are on anything approaching
His level in holiness, understanding, etc. Well, heck, I can look
in a mirror and see an image of myself, or take a Polaroid picture
and have an image of myself, but those objects are in no wise akin
to me. Humans are closer to God than any others of His earthly critters,
but we seem to be convinced, in our arrogance, that we are just
a leetle lower
than the angels, and that the angels are just a leetle lower than God. Therefore, we aren't that much different from God, runs our vain thought processes.
And when we can't figure out how two disparate notions can be reconciled,
then it is Scripture that is wrong, not us who have too little information,
probably because we couldn't understand it, anyhow. I can't quite
figure out how a computer works, yet I am supposed to be able to
fathom the intricacies of the Lord's ways? Programming the VCR is
beyond me, but unless I can grasp how God's sovereignty melds and
merges with man's responsiblilty, then they don't? We's a vainglorius
bunch, are we not? Anne
Subject: But... From: AHMNOTEAR To: Anne Date Posted: Sun, Feb 13, 2000 at 18:40:37 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: Anne, 'Beloved, now we are the children of God [better
than Adam's being made in His image!], and it doth not yet appear
what we shall be, but we know that, when he shall appear, we shall
be like him for we shall see him as he is' (1 John 3:2). Thank God
that 'whom he did foreknow, he did also predestinate to be conformed
to the image of his Son' (Rom. 8;29). Ain't grace terrific? (I'm
really not here. I'm sorta like the chicken in Campbell's Chicken
Noodle--I just 'waded through' as Arthur Godfrey [WHO?] used to
say on his radio show.) In Christ Jesus, Rod, fading to black....
Subject: Answers for PILGRIM From: scott lewis To: Pilgrim Date Posted: Sat, Feb 12, 2000 at 20:43:41 (PST) Email Address:navyrdc1@megsinet.net
Message:
HI Pilgrim, As per your questions... The Levitical system, all 613
law is now fulfilled in Christ.... all men are condemned in Adam
then the law came several thousand years laters and increased transgressions...
the Law itself was exclusively for Israel until Messiah came...
Galatians and Romans make this clear as well as other places...
Hebrews shows the superiority of Christ over angels, Moses, the
Law, the Levitical Priesthood, the temple, the sacrifices, etc...
all of which Jews/and others were going back to (the temple not
yet destroyed until 70AD) and not seeing correctly the New Priesthood,
which is not Levitical, Christ is of Judah and the Melchizedek Priesthood
under the New Covenant... while it is true most all OT sacrifices,
even other things predating the Law have typology, everything somehow
points to Christ and His Work on the Cross... this is significant...
even our taking communion indicates as such.... but they are types
and not salvific that is 'none of these things have saving value'
at all!!!!!... Ezekiel 40-48, the Mil Temple and sacrificial system
is not 'Levitical at all'... it may look as if but if you read it
carefully Levites are lower ranking as servers and that is it!!!!..
contrare to actual Levitical law and system... so this is not a
re-institution of any Levitical system... alllllzoooooo... there
is no saving significance in the new system either... only under
the New Covenant and His blood as it has always been.... Israel
will be the priests they were supposed to be originally.... and
man will be restored in the Son of Man... Adam as the Image of God
restored... Satan bound (who has been god of this world for almost
6,000 years)... Gentiles will have to be in this new system also
as if you read the last chapter of Zechariah if Egypt does not go
to the Feast of Tabernacles (not required for nations under Levitical
Law) but required in the new order, rain will not be given to them...
that is how Zechariah ends too.... interesting.... Levitical system
and law is fulfilled in Christ!!!!.. this does not mean God ends
everything and cannot institute a new system for 1000 years!!!..
everything with the blood esp. in the NC system will point back
as antitype (original) to the cross as the OT Levitical system were
types also pointing to the future to the antitype, the cross and
His Work and blood... only His Righteousness from the cross saves
anyway... all the rest was pointing to Him and His work past and
future... The specific purpose of the sacrifices in Mil???? easy..
they point to Jesus Christ who will reign on the planet and His
great work at Calvary!!.. the amil basically sees nothing in it
and that is it heresy!!!... kinda foolish... the Word is clear on
this issue... As per question 3... alllllll covenants are with the
Jew..!!!... none with the Gentile exclusively or at all.... unless
you consider the Noahic but that is with all people and animals
too... He will not destroy the planet with H20.. but that does not
eliminate fire... among other things... Ro 9,10, 11... past, present,
future Israel... Israel is not cast away at all... all covenants
must be fulfilled in that Nation... Abrahamic, Davidic, New, Palestinian
or Land... (Mosaic is with Israel exclusively but fulfilled in Christ)
exclusively... the church is not Israel... you don't become a Jew
or a child of Jacob... you do become a seed of Abraham but that
does not make you Israel or Jewish... These covenants all grossly
abused by most and not even learned.... our amil friends just seem
to put them in second class places to their covenants of Work, Grace,
and Redemption which you cannot find and don't exist anyway... I
can quote the others directly and do!!!!.. Hebrews 8,... the NC!!!!!..
Jer. 31:31-34 word for word... study carefully the end of Romans
11 esp. (the whole chapter) 11:25-32.... Romans 11:25-32 25 For
I do not want you, brethren, to be uninformed of this mystery, lest
you be wise in your own estimation, that a partial hardening has
happened to Israel until the fulness of the Gentiles has come in;26
and thus all Israel will be saved; just as it is written,“The Deliverer
will come from Zion, He will remove ungodliness from Jacob.” 27
“And this is My covenant with them, When I take away their sins.”
28 From the standpoint of the gospel they are enemies for your sake,
but from the standpoint of God’s choice they are beloved for the
sake of the fathers;29 for the gifts and the calling of God are
irrevocable.30 For just as you once were disobedient to God, but
now have been shown mercy because of their disobedience,31 so these
also now have been disobedient, in order that because of the mercy
shown to you they also may now be shown mercy.32 For God has shut
up all in disobedience that He might show mercy to all. Israel will
be born again as a nation.... Is. 66:8 Isaiah 66:8 8 “Who has heard
such a thing? Who has seen such things? Can a land be born in one
day? Can a nation be brought forth all at once? As soon as Zion
travailed, she also brought forth her sons. Israel will be born
one day!!!!... the nation will turn to Jesus... Revelation!!!!...
infact He won't come back until when??? They have to say, Israel
has to say... Blessed is He Who comes in Name of the LORD!!. Matthew
23:37-38 37 “O Jerusalem, Jerusalem, who kills the prophets and
stones those who are sent to her! How often I wanted to gather your
children together, the way a hen gathers her chicks under her wings,
and you were unwilling.38 “Behold, your house is being left to you
desolate! Israel will pray for His return only after they are regenerated
as a Nation... has not happened yet... quite obvious... it will...!!!!!...
bet ya bippy!!. As per your last question the 'church' is His Body...
His Bride.. made up of Jew Gentile on an equal basis...not possible
under any previous system esp. Levitical... totally new.. and you
as some may call it a parenthesis until the last person comes into
His Body... Israel was and is never the Bride of Christ Jesus!!!!!..
Israel is referred to as divorced from God!!!!.. the Church is many
nations... Israel is one nation... and He is and will be King over
Israel as He is.... and He will reign on this planet as man was
supposed to do originally...
Subject: Scripture agrees, why can't we? From: john hampshire To: All Date Posted: Fri, Feb 11, 2000 at 22:38:42 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Let’s discuss the rapture some more. The rapture of the believers
will occur at the end of time. It is the same time that Jesus comes
to Judge the world. It will come right at the time when the universe
begins its collapse, at the end of the tribulation period. It will
be the end of the time line of history. 1 Cor 15:51-53 says 'We
shall not all sleep, but we shall all be changed, in a moment, in
the twinkling of an eye, at the LAST TRUMP: for the trumpet shall
sound, and the dead shall be raised incorruptible….' 1. The changing
of bodies to new spiritual bodies, the resurrection of the dead
occurs at the last trump. This is a time clue. Rev 11:15-18 says
'…And the seventh angel sounded, …and thy wrath is come, and the
time of the dead, that they should be judged, and that thou shouldest
give reward unto the servants the prophets, and to the saints, and
them that fear thy name, small and great; and shouldest destroy
them which destroy the earth' 1. At the seventh or last trumpet:
The time has come for the dead to be judged. The time for rewarding
the saints has come. The time for destroying the destroyers has
come. 2. In other words, the sounding of the last trump, the seventh
trumpet, signals that judgment day has come. 3. From 1 Cor 15:51
we saw that the rapture of believers occurs at the last trumpet,
combined with Rev 11 where we have judgment day, we can know therefore
that the rapture is an event that occurs simultaneously with Judgment
Day. Luk 17:28:37 says, '…but the same day that Lot went out of
Sodom it rained fire and brimstone from heaven, and destroyed them
all. Even thus shall it be in the day when the Son of Man is revealed'……..'I
tell you, in that night there shall be two men in one bed; the one
shall be taken, and the other shall be left' 1. Here the destruction
of Sodom is a type of the judgment of the last day. Saving Lot from
this judgment is a type of the rapture. Just before the destruction
of Sodom God sent heavenly messengers to rescue the family of Lot
(Gen 19), then immediately as they were rescued God’s wrath was
poured upon the wicked of Sodom. As we see, 'even thus shall it
be in the day when the Son of man is revealed'. Thus Christ links
the destruction of Sodom to Judgment Day. 2. Parallel to the Sodom
destruction, the believers are rescued from God’s wrath upon the
wicked by the rapture event. Two men in one bed, one taken the other
left refers to this rapture of the believers prior to judgment day,
just as 1 Thes 4:17 teaches. Matt 24:37-41, 'But as the days of
Noah were, so shall also the coming of the Son of man be…Noah entered
the ark, and knew not until the flood came, and took them all away;
so shall also the coming of the Son of man be.' 1. Again parallel
language between the flood and Jesus’ return, the flood being a
figure of Judgment Day. We see the same thing in 2 Ptr 3:3-7, '…there
shall come in the last days …willingly ignorant…..whereby the world
that then was, being overflowed with water, perished'. 2. God pictures
the world during the last days as like Noah’s day, just prior to
its destruction the family of Noah were rescued from God’s wrath.
Note Matt 24 continues with 'then two shall be in the field the
one shall be taken, and the other left' Sound familiar? It is a
reference to the rapture again, speaking of the saving of the believers
at the coming of the Son of man from God’s wrath. In 1 Thes 4:14-17
we find, 'For the Lord himself shall descend from heaven with a
shout, with the voice of the archangel, and with the trump of God:
and the dead in Christ shall rise first: then we which are alive
and remain shall be caught up together with them…' 1. Notice the
rapture occurs simultaneously with the resurrection of our bodies.
God indicates that at His coming He will bring with Him those who
have fallen asleep. At a Christians death they go to be with Christ
in their spirit, they all return with Christ on that last day, then
their bodies are resurrected. Next, the believers who remain, that
is, have not died, are given their resurrected bodies and caught
up to be with Christ and their fellow believers who came with Christ.
Only the unregenerate are left to face the wrath of God. 2. When
do the believers get a resurrected body, the Bible tells us. John
6:19, '…but should raise it up at the last day' (See John 6:40,
6:44, 6:54). The phrase 'last day' is significant. John 12:48 clearly
says, 'He that rejecteth Me, and receivth not my words, hath one
that judgeth him: the word that I have spoken, the same shall judge
him in the last day'. The wicked are judged on the last day. 3.
As we can see, the wicked are judged on the last day, the resurrection
of the believers bodies occurs on the last day, the gathering of
the believers occurs with the resurrection of the bodies. We know
there is not another resurrection for John 5:28-29 clearly says
'…ALL that are in the graves shall hear His voice, and shall come
forth…'. All the bodies, wicked and believers alike are resurrected
'on that hour'. For the believer it is a 'resurrection of life',
but for the wicked it is a 'resurrection of damnation'. There can
be no further resurrections, ALL have been brought back and their
destination is either life with Christ or judgment and God’s wrath.
Some objections to the simple truth that the rapture occurs immediately
after the tribulation and simultaneously with the resurrection and
judgment day upon Christ’s return on the last day. Luke 21:36 says
the believer will escape all these things that will take place,
thus the believers must be raptured prior to the tribulation. The
verse said '…praying in order that you may have strength to escape…'.
The verse translated correctly says: '…that you may be accounted
worthy to escape all these things…'. The word translated as 'accounted
worthy' is found in Luke 20:35 where Jesus explains to the Sadducces
that 'those who are considered worthy to attain to that age and
the resurrection from the dead, neither marry, nor given in marriage'.
Besides the obvious information that after the resurrection believers
do not marry, the next detail to see is that those who are 'accounted
worthy' are the believers, as vs 37 says 'and are sons of God, being
sons of the resurrection'. We are worthy not of ourselves, but because
Christ was worthy. You can see Luke 21:36 is saying that we should
pray to be accounted worthy, that is, be part of the sons of God,
to have Christ as our redeemer. This is how we escape those things
which are about to take place. What are those things? Vs 34 says
'…that day come on you unawares like a sudden trap'. The believer
will escape that trap, and what is that trap that is sudden destruction
for those whose hearts are not right? Is it the tribulation period?
No! 1Th 5:3 it is 'sudden destruction cometh upon them' it is like
a 'thief in the night', it is 'the day of the Lord'. That isn’t
the tribulation period, it is judgment day when God’s wrath is poured
out on the wicked. This is why we pray for salvation, to be 'accounted
worthy', that is our escape, 'for God has not destined us for wrath,
but for obtaining salvation through our Lord Jesus Christ' (1Th
5:9). To escape God’s wrath we put on the 'helmet of the hope of
salvation'. That is how we can 'stand before the Son of Man' (Luke
21:36) as in Rev 7:9, wearing the robes of Christ’s righteousness.
The wicked stand before Christ for judgment, but not the believer!
The 'day of the Lord' is spoken of in Isaiah 13:9 'Behold the day
of the Lord is coming, cruel, with fury and burning anger, to make
the land a desolation and he will exterminate its sinners from it'.
In a type of judgment day, Babylon an evil kingdom representing
the world is found guilty and overthrown by the Medes. Rev 17:5
continues to use Babylon to picture all the wicked of the earth.
This sudden destruction we have seen is God’s wrath being poured
out upon the wicked. Vs 12 of Isaiah 13 says, 'I will make a man
more precious than fine gold; even a man than the golden wedge of
Ophir'. What does this mean considering God is saying He will utterly
destroy Babylon, but says a man will be more precious than fine
gold too? He is speaking of those who are not destroyed, those that
are spared from God’s wrath are more precious than fine gold. Who
are they? 'And there will be a highway from Assyria, for the remnant
of His people who will be left' and 'For although Thou wast angry
with me, Thine anger is turned away' (Isa 11:16, 12:1). God is calling
his elect as precious, a remnant, 'and He has become my salvation
(vs2). The believer is spared the destruction of the world, 'praise
the Lord in song, for He has done excellent things' (vs 5). Yes,
He provided for the salvation of His elect from the day of the Lord.
The main problem that Pilgrim has already identified, is the failure
to understand that Israel was used by God to be a type of the body
of believers, a type of God’s church. To miss this is to fail utterly
in understanding God’s use of types. When Dan 9:27 says 'and He
will make a firm covenant with the many for one week'. The covenant
was not for national Israel but for rather for the Israel of God.
It is because of this covenant of redemption for Israel (His elect)
that 'the Messiah will be cut off' (Vs 26). It was Christ’s death
in the middle of the seventh (3.5 years from beginning of Christ
receiving Holy Spirit to being and the cross) that He 'will put
a stop to sacrifice'. Christ was the acceptable sacrifice. Then
comes the 'abominations who makes desolate', that is Satan is released
during the final trib period blinding the world to truth, then a
decreed end comes 'a complete destruction is poured out' upon Satan.
(vs 27). In case we wonder about the other 69 weeks, it is an amazing
truth. In 458 BC Ezra began to rebuild establish the law in Jerusalem,
he built a city by bringing the gospel. 70 sevens have been given
to get this done, to make the city of God with precious stones,
each representing God’s elect. 70x 7 = 490 years. From 458 BC when
Ezra began to build the city (Ezra 7:10) we go 490 years to 33AD.
In 33AD the real builder of an eternal city dies on the cross to
establish His church. At that time Christ 'finished transgression,
made an end of sin, made an atonement for iniquity, brought in an
everlasting righteousness…'. What about Israel the nation, doesn’t
Joel 3:1-3 promise Judah and Jerusalem will be restored? Notice,
for reference, Joel 2:28, 'And it will come about after this that
I will pour out My Spirit on all mankind', 'I will pour out My Spirit
in those days' (Vs 29), 'the sun will be turned into darkness, and
the moon into blood', 'before the great and awesome day of the Lord
comes'. When did that happen? Acts 2:17 says that Joel was being
fulfilled on that day of Pentecost. In Acts we find God pouring
out His spirit, and people being saved. When did the sun turn dark
and the moon blood? None other than when Christ hung on the cross
40 days earlier. So because of Christ’s death God can pour out His
Spirit to begin to build His spiritual church composed of all His
elect. Notice Vs 32, 'and it will come about that whoever calls
on the name of the Lord will be saved'. But then we read, 'For on
Mount Zion and in Jerusalem there will be those who escape, as the
Lord has said, even among the survivors whom the Lord calls'. What
does it mean that there will be those that escape? Is it not the
wrath of God, which we have seen we are saved from. Who are Jerusalem
then that are spared God’s wrath, is it the nation of Israel? What
does Heb 12:22 say concerning the believer, we have 'come to Mount
Zion and to the city of the living God, the heavenly Jerusalem',
as believers we are Jerusalem, we are part of the city of God as
building stones, we are among the 'myriads of messengers' of which
we become when regenerated, a messenger of Christ. Rev 3:12 speaks
of those that overcome as a 'pillar in the temple of God', the believers
have 'the name of God' written upon them, and 'the name of the city
of my God which is new Jerusalem'. Believers ARE Jerusalem. Jerusalem
means, a 'double peace' or 'city of peace' in which believers are
at peace with God. Rev 21:2 says Jerusalem is prepared as a bride
for her husband, believers are the bride of Christ. The city of
Jerusalem is the type where Israel lived, but God is emphasizing
here that it is a type of believers one and all. So when Joel 3:1
says concerning the salvation of God as it is fulfilled in Acts
with the salvation of all the nations 'For behold, in those days
and at that time, when I save the fortunes of Judah and Jerusalem'.
What does God mean? It was at the time of Acts 2 that God began
to save the fortunes of Judah and Jerusalem, it was the salvation
of His elect, the body of believers and city of God, represented
by Jerusalem and Judah. I know many want national Israel to be saved
as a nation and Christ to reign from Jerusalem on earth. But as
we have seen again, and again, there is no room for it. Israel is
a nation that rejects Christ, they are not God’s concern, He loves
His elect, those are the true city of God, they will be delivered,
they will escape the wrath of God. After the tribulation period,
as we have seen, there is no time for anything, immediately after
the tribulation comes the Son of Man, the resurrection, the rapture,
the judgment of the wicked, and the destruction of all things by
fire. It is really time, no beyond the proper time, for those who
hold to some special dispensation for the nation of Israel to face
Scripture squarely. It is not any nation that God loves, IT IS HIS
ELECT, this truth being so obvious that one wonders how anyone can
arrive at these impossible dispensational distortions. Even in Israel’s
day, when they were used by God to show His character, it was ALWAYS
the ELECT, a remnant within the evil nation that God loved and cared
for. NEVER NEVER does God love any nation, it is always a love shown
toward the Father’s choice, the apple of His eye, those precious
stones, those who God protects, saves, and will glorify—it is His
elected ones, the body of believers. Israel as a nation never mattered
except as a type of that body and a lesson for those who would come
after their destruction. Please see this if you have spiritual eyes
to see. john
Subject: Re: Scripture agrees, why can't we? From: Gene To: john hampshire Date Posted: Sat, Feb 12,
2000 at 05:37:55 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: In 33AD the real builder of an eternal city dies
on the cross to establish His church. At that time Christ 'finished
transgression, made an end of sin, made an atonement for iniquity,
brought in an everlasting righteousness…'. Some people will go to
any length to make the 'math' work. Jesus could not have died in
'33AD' because Herod (the ruler at the time Jesus was a baby) died
in 4 BC.
Subject: Re: Scripture agrees, why can't we? From: Brother Bret To: Gene Date Posted: Sat, Feb 12,
2000 at 13:16:43 (PST) Email Address:Lovitz5@aol.com
Message: Well hello stranger. Was there more than one 'Herod?'
And if it wasn't A.D.33, than when was it? BB
Subject: Re: Scripture agrees, why can't we? From: Gene To: Brother Bret Date Posted: Sat, Feb 12,
2000 at 17:16:40 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Hello yourself BB! :) Yes, there was more than one
Herod but history proves that THIS Herod was the one who ordered
the killing of the 2 year and younger males. Well...you do the math.
If this Herod died in circa 4 BC and Jesus was on the earth ABOUT
33 years then he was crucified circa 29 AD. I know I know, this
puts the ole stick in the spokes when it comes to the numbers in
Daniel. But then again, when was Daniel written?!?!?!
Subject: Re: Scripture agrees, why can't we? From: john hampshire To: all Date Posted:
Sat, Feb 12, 2000 at 19:19:36 (PST) Email
Address:Not Provided
Message: Herod the Great
was governor of Galilee from 47-4BC. Herod was sick and almost 70,
he met with the Magi. He died in the spring of 4BC. Remember, Jesus
was born in the fall of 7BC, the Magi did not arrive for several
years after the birth. That is why the male babies 2 years and younger
were killed (Jesus was about 2 then). Because Herod had made six
wills, the last change just 5 days before his death, there was dispute
as to who should replace him. It was decided by Augustus that Archelaus
would rule over Idumea, Judea, and Samaria. Antipas was made tetrarch
over Galilee and Perea, and Phillip was made tetrarch of other areas
too. Archelaus was the son of Herod the Great and named to be his
successor just before Herod's death. Mat 2:22 states that Archelaus
was ruling over Judea, so Joseph went to Galilee where Antipas was
ruling, he was the younger brother of Archelaus. After Archelaus
was removed to Gaul in 6AD, Antipas ruled and carried the title:
Herod. Antipas built cities, he rebuilt Sepphoris in Galilee, the
temporary capital of his domain in 8-10 AD. Joseph and Jesus may
have worked on the city as a carpenters, Nazareth was only four
miles SSW of Sepphoris. Matt 14 relates of Herod the tetrarch, which
was Antipas, and how Antipas had married his brother Philip's wife.
It was Heroidias who tricked Antipas at his birthday to have John
the Baptist killed, around AD 31-32. It was Antipas who wondered
if Jesus might be John the Baptist resurrected (Mat 14:1, Mark 6:14,
Luke 9:7). Some 3.5 years later, as Jesus returns to Jerusalem,
the Pharisees warn Jesus that he better go away from Antipas' territory
because he wanted Jesus dead (Luke 13:31). Jesus calls Antipas a
'fox' ( a weak animal that is cunning nonetheless). In AD33, Jesus
was about 40 years old and Jesus was tried by Antipas (Luke 23:6).
When Tiberius died in March AD37, Caligula became ruler. Antipas
ended up banished to France in AD 39 and Agrippa gained tetrarchy
and property of Antipas. Agrippa was kind to Claudius when in Rome,
when Caligula was murdered Claudius ascended the throne, and made
Agrippa ruler of also Judea and Samaria, he now equaled his grandfather's
rule, Herod the Great. Agrippa persecuted the early church, he killed
James of Zebedee, imprisoned Peter. Agrippa died in 44AD in Caesarea
after God smote him, he became sick with severe stomach pains (says
Josephus) and died five days later. Agrippa II, his son, ruled.
Agrippa tried to stop the revolt that led to the War of 66-70AD,
though he sided with the Romans. Nero committed suicide on 9 Jun
68AD, then Galba the new Emperor was killed and Vespasian was selected
Emperor. Titus executed the war, Agrippa watched the conquest of
Jerusalem on 5 Aug 70AD when the Roman army burned the city. Agrippa
died in AD 100 or so, and with his death, for he had no children,
ended the Herodian dynasty. Hope this helps remove any sticks from
the spokes, so to speak. Jesus indeed was born in the fall (Sep,
early Oct) of 7BC, probably on the Feast of Atonement which was
Oct 4, 7BC. He as baptized by John during the Feast of Trumpets
on September 28, 29AD. He was indeed killed on Friday April 3, 33AD
and His Spirit poured out on Pentecost Sunday, May 24, 33AD. For
that matter creation began on Sunday 11,013BC. The flood in Noah's
day occurred in 4990BC, and Israel entered Canaan 1407BC. Well,
that's all for now, unless someone has a question. john
Subject: Re: Scripture agrees, why can't we? From: Gene To: john hampshire Date Posted: Sun, Feb 13,
2000 at 03:22:55 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: John, Thanks for the timeline! You wrote: Jesus indeed
was born in the fall (Sep, early Oct) of 7BC, probably on the Feast
of Atonement which was Oct 4, 7BC. He as baptized by John during
the Feast of Trumpets on September 28, 29AD. He was indeed killed
on Friday April 3, 33AD and His Spirit poured out on Pentecost Sunday,
May 24, 33AD. For that matter creation began on Sunday 11,013BC.
The flood in Noah's day occurred in 4990BC, and Israel entered Canaan
1407BC. Luke says he was 'about 30' when Jesus began His ministry.
John has 3 passovers listed (if my memory serves me right)that Jesus
attended with the last one ending with his crucifiction. This would
indicate Jesus had a 3 year ministry. You have him about 40 years
old with your timeline! Now, tell me again where the date of the
creation and the flood came from?
Subject: Re: Scripture agrees, why can't we? From: Five Sola To: john hampshire Date Posted: Sat, Feb 12,
2000 at 20:11:43 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: John I do hope your joking with all the 'exact dates',
especially the old testament period. I don't think there is enough
information in scripture and even extra-scriptural to give an exact
date, including month and day. Those kind of things are given and
then when proven false because of additional information or clarity
on older information, the Bible itself is doubted and 'marred' because
of extra-biblical info. I truly hope it was in jest, but even so
be careful. Make sure to indicate you jokes with a smile or comment
so no there is no confusion. Five Sola
Subject: Re: Scripture agrees, why can't we? From: john hampshire To: Five Sola
Date Posted:
Sun, Feb 13, 2000 at 01:35:17 (PST) Email
Address:Not Provided
Message: Five Sola, Sorry,
no joke intended. Those dates are not extra-Biblical but er, inter-Biblical.
No the Bible doesn't have the date of Christ's death, creation,
flood, etc., written plainly, but it is there nonetheless. Not much
the Bible has to say lays there bare, it is for those who go a searching,
if you are the searching kind. : ) ...and yes I am aware most people
are unaware of these things and it causes nice people to wag their
heads in dismay. But I have found these things to be true, what
can I do? I cannot dismiss truth. Thanks for the concern. john
Subject: Re: Scripture agrees, why can't we? From: Five Sola To: john hampshire Date Posted: Sun, Feb 13,
2000 at 18:48:27 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: John, I am aware of the counting dates found within
scripture,using geneologies, wars, etc., but unfortunately those
dates vary depending on who the person counting is :-). For example,
Usher 'found out' that the earth was created in 4004 BC by using
the genealogies in scriptures. I don't want to get into a debate
about this but just to show you that someone also using 'inter-biblical'
info came up with a date too (different then yours). I do believe
Usher was incorrect due to some inconsistencies in the geneologies
that seem to suggest not each and every generation was included.
I'm not saying don't use these dates, for sometimes they maybe good
extra information but when things like this that are derived by
sinful human intelligence, I fret for people to take dogmatic stands
on it. The Bible Code is also supposed to be a authentic biblical
code found in God's text but it is just a parlor trick that is disgraceful
to the scripture. Five Sola
Subject: Re: Scripture agrees, why can't we? From: Tom To: john hampshire Date Posted: Sun, Feb 13,
2000 at 09:48:20 (PST) Email Address:ahardy@rapidnet.net
Message: John Are you saying that our Lord Jesus died on the
cross, when he was about 40 years old, not 33? I have done a lot
of reading on this subject and I have never heard (until now) anybody
say that. Almost everyone, believes that our Lord was 33 at the
time of His death on the cross. Tom
Subject: Re: Scripture agrees, why can't we? From: john hampshire To: Tom Date Posted:
Mon, Feb 14, 2000 at 01:33:35 (PST) Email
Address:Not Provided
Message: Tom, Precisely!
Jesus was about 40 years old, somewhere near 39 when He died. 7BC
+ 33AD (-1 for no year zero) = 39. As John 8:57 says of the Pharisees
who beheld Jesus that 'Thou art not yet fifty years old...? It wasn't
meant to be an exact age, just that Jesus wasn't old enough to have
seen Abraham. But Jesus was at the end of His ministry and about
39 years old. In Luke 3:23 we find that Jesus was in His early 30's,
'And Jesus Himself began to be about thirty years...'. This was
in 29AD when He was baptized by John, at that time He was 7 + 29
-1 = 35. He wasn't exactly 30, He was about 30, with God making
the emphasis on 30 for different reasons (Joseph began to rule when
he was 30). To explain why the world was created in 11,013 BC would
take too much energy. I would say that few have taken a serious
look at Biblical genealogies, and Arch Bishop Ussher did not do
a good job. He added some numbers that he had to get 4004BC as the
creation date. What is amazing is that such erroneous work was used
in Bibles and is STILL quoted as if it were some scholarly work.
It was a simple deduction on Ussher's part, based on a bad assumption,
but why his error has to be repeated, I don't know. Even a creation
science organization uses it to try and make a guess at the age
of the earth. Just plain dumb. I suppose the 11013BC date could
be in error, but I haven't found it. A key to understanding genealogies
in the Bible is the phrase, 'called his name', as in 'Seth called
his name Enosh' (Gen 4:26). In Gen 5:6 we find 'Seth begat Enosh'.
If we check the Bible we find the phrase 'called his name' is a
parent-child relationship, something assumed by most. But not every
relationship is parent-child, Gen 5 and 11 are not necessarily this
type of relationship. The genealogies are a calendar, a time reference
that uses the life of certain patriarchs to be calendar markers.
It works something like this: Creation: 11013BC Birth of Seth. Adam
was 130 when Seth was born 10883 Birth of Enosh. Seth was 105 when
Enosh was born 10778 End of Enosh's period 905 years after his birth,
9873 Kenan born, this begins his period. End of Kenan's period 910
years after his birth, 8963 Mahaleel born, this begins his period
End of Mahaleel's period 895 years after his birth, 8068 Jared born
that year, begins his period End of Jared's period 962 years after
his birth, 7106 Enoch born and begins his period End of Enoch period
365 years after his birth, 6741 Methuselah born and begins his period
End of Methuselah's period 969 after his birth, 5772 Lamech born
and begins his period Birth of Noah, Lamech was 182 when Noah was
born 5590 The flood. Noah was 600 when the flood came 4990 I won't
go any further, but you can see that these individuals were listed
because they are what is called the calendar reference patriarch.
To pinpoint a date we could say, 'you remember how it rained in
the 256 year of Jared, it was just like the rain in the 600 year
of Noah', just made that up to demonstrate the use of reference
patriarchs. The birth year of the next patriarch was in the death
year of the previous, and they were in the same blood line, but
the important thing is they were not immediate descendants. Well
this is bound to be boring. If you get nothing else, I hope you
get a hint that God has supplied the information within the Bible.
If you have never heard about this, then you have been searching
in the wrong places : ) Keep searching... john
Subject: Re: Scripture agrees, why can't we? From: Tom To: john hampshire Date Posted: Tues, Feb 15,
2000 at 00:40:03 (PST) Email Address:ahardy@rapidnet.net
Message: Thats all pretty interesting, I am not saying you
are wrong, but do you know of any theologians that agree with you
on these points? Tom
Subject: [ no ] nt From: john hampshire To: Tom Date Posted: Tues, Feb 15, 2000 at 05:07:18 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Subject: Re: [ no ] nt From: Tom To: john hampshire Date Posted: Tues, Feb 15, 2000 at 13:49:22 (PST) Email Address:ahardy@rapidnet.net
Message:
John Since you said 'no' you don't know of any theologians that
would agree with you on these points. Don't you think, by believing
it, you are trying to re-invent the wheel? If my understanding of
scripture conflicted with everyone elses I knew of, I would be very
suspiscious that it was me that was in error, and I would be searching
to find out what that error was. Tom
Subject: PhD vs hot O2 From: john hampshire To: Tom Date Posted: Wed, Feb 16, 2000 at 05:40:08 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
I don't know any theologians who agree, and I don't know any theologians
who disagree. I don't know any theologians. I do know, that I am
not influenced by group thinking, or the 'approved' way of thinking
that the church has wrapped itself in like a protective shield.
The only thing that interests me is a correct interpretation of
Scripture, and in this regard I have not found anything wanting.
By the way, I found most theologians to be puffed up bags of hot
air. Truth is not bought at a university, it is revealed to babes
in spirit. The most knowledgeable man I have ever known, who has
an amazing understanding of the Bible and actually lived his whole
life in a God honoring fashion, never attended a university for
theology training. On the other hand, I am amazed and shocked (but
no longer) at the inept handling of Scripture by supposed theologians
and seminary graduates, most simply regurgitate the nonsense they
were forced-fed in school. If you find theologians to be the standard
of truth, so be it, I do not. There are probably a few good ones
out there, but its a needle in a haystack (or manure pile). john
Subject: Re: PhD vs hot O2 From: Pilgrim To: john hampshire Date Posted: Wed, Feb 16, 2000 at 08:36:27 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
John,
Thanks for the compliment? but
no thanks... I don't live or exist in a 'manure pile'. And I don't
'regurgitate the [alleged] nonsense I was [allegedly] force-fed
in school' This is sheer arrogance on your part both in your summary
judgment of any and all who have ever attended an institution of
higher learning and all those who have been raised of God throughout
history to be teachers of us sheep. It is unfortunate but no less
surprising that you would do this I suppose. This is evidently an
area where you have failed to grow and perhaps need to be humbled.
I pray God will do this for you as you progress in your sanctification.
Theoretically, it is possible that NO ONE but John Hampshire has
the truth concerning these dates you preen yourself as having discovered
by yourself (with the Spirit's leading of course!!). Which conclusions
you openly admit are held by no one but yourself (as best one can
know, I am assuming). I think Tom has offered you some good advice
which he shared actually as his own personal advice. If one finds
himself at odds with the entire church and its teachings throughout
history; a history that includes men and women of various theological
persuasions and who didn't always agree on every jot and tittle,
then this SHOULD cause one to examine that 'truth' carefully. One
thing is certain here! You think far too highly of yourself and
far too little of the church of the Lord Christ which is His body;
composed of various parts which are complementary and not mutually
exclusive of each other. If sectarianism is your thing, I pray that
it won't be so on judgment day, ie, you find yourself outside the
body of the Lord Christ, holding on to some 'unique truths' which
the 'inept theologians' of this world all got wrong! :-)
In His Precious Blood, Pilgrim
Subject: I must agree From: mebaser To: Pilgrim Date Posted: Wed, Feb 16, 2000 at 23:07:45 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Well said brother Pilgrim, I too must voice my disappointment with
our brother John Hampshire in this regard. He has not met the godly
men who I had the blessed privilege to study under, nor the ones
whom you or anyone else has studied under. To make a blanket statement
that the vast majority of them are to be compared to a manure pile
is to offend the majority of the men whom God has sovereignly placed
in their teaching positions. In Christ, mebaser
Subject: Re: [ no ] nt From: laz To: john hampshire Date Posted: Tues, Feb 15, 2000 at 08:21:26 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Subject: Re: Scripture agrees, why can't we? From: mebaser To: john hampshire Date Posted: Sat, Feb 12,
2000 at 01:56:12 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Hi John, I was wondering how long it would take me
to enter into this heated debate. I thought I could resist, but
it seems, as Pilgrim, I cannot go on with at least asking questions.
I will not defend my eschatological views here, as they will only
fall upon deaf ears, but I will ask questions of you and perhaps
others of the Amill persuasion. First, you talk about the 'last
trump.' You automatically equate the 'last trumpet' of 1 Cor. 15:52
(which is the same trumpet of 1 Thess. 4:16) with the 7th trumpet
of Rev. 11:15. Well we agree that the last trumpet of 1 Cor. 15
is the rapture, but look again at Rev. 11:15. It says that at the
blowing of the 7th trumpet, the voices in heaven declared that 'the
kingdom of the world has become the kingdom of our Lord, and of
His Christ; and He will reign forever and ever.' In the amillennial
view, when did the kingdom of God (Christ's reign forever and ever)
begin? Second, you bring up the issue that on the 'last day' we
will get our resurrected bodies. You give references in John 6:39,
40, 44, 54 to back up you claim. But again, if the 'last day' is
the day the 7th trumpet is blown, then the 'last day' is the day
when 'the kingdom of the world has become the kingdom of our Lord,
and of His Christ; and He will reign forever and ever.' Third, you
bring up Luke 21:36, where you go on to show that the 'escaping'
in that passage is an escaping of God's judgment. But the passage
in Luke 21:36 is talking about the period immediately prior to the
coming of God's kingdom (v. 31 - 'Even so you, too, when you see
these things happening, recognize that the kingdom of God is near.')
So then does this escaping from judgment occur immediately prior
to the establishment of God's kingdom as the passage in question
says it does? Ponder on these questions, as all indications seem
to point out that the timing of the rapture in your estimation is
at the beginning of the establishment of Christ's kingdom. In Christ,
mebaser
Subject: Re: Scripture agrees, why can't we? From: john hampshire To: mebaser Date Posted:
Sat, Feb 12, 2000 at 17:32:01 (PST) Email
Address:Not Provided
Message: Hello Mebaser,
What? An intelligent, thought-out question? Can it be true? (hehe).
I hoped someone would respond by thinking out these things, comparing
Scripture to see if they can be true, and searching Scripture if
it does not. I think it is possible to discuss end-time events rationally,
it is no different than any other Biblical doctrine, no? Well, since
you are the only one to ask, I'll answer. Rev 11 concerns God's
salvation program and the plan to evangelize, spreading the gospel
to the nations as God redeems His elect. When the believers testimony
is finished it is God's plan to have Satan become dominant, to have
the churches become apostate, to have God's truth ignored and false
gospels taught in its stead. Satan appears to win. It is at this
time that God's church, like the OT church that ran after Baal worship,
is happy and feeling safe. Then after the death of the gospel, the
tribulation is finished, the witnesses (representing the believers)
are raptured as the wicked remain and fear. And in that hour comes
Judgment Day. The wicked are killed, and the remnant (believers)
give glory to God for His salvation. That is the second woe in a
nut-shell. But it is not over, the third woe follows quickly, or
immediately—Judgment. The kingdom of Satan, of this world, has been
defeated by Christ, the believers have completed their salvation
(body and spirit joined to be with Christ). Their is one thing more
-- judgment of the wicked. The 24 elders representing all the believers,
worship God for He has begun to reign over the wicked -- the scales
will finally be balanced. So the spiritually dead are judged, while
the believers receive their reward (eternal life). Chapter 12 goes
back to the first coming of Christ. Chapter 13 visits Satan's rule
and the tribulation period. Chapter 14 speaks of the triumph of
the cross, and judgment day is coming. Revelation, in case you missed
the point, is not a chronological detail of end-time events. Your
question on Rev 11:15 was: In the amillennial view, when did the
kingdom of God (Christ's reign forever and ever) begin? Of course
Christ reigns always, but Rev 11:17 has the believers giving thanks,
because God Almighty 'thou hast take to thee thy great power and
[indeed] hast reigned'. God always had the sword and the power to
do battle and slay the wicked, but now He has indeed taken His power
and begun to reign over the wicked. For some time the wicked and
Satan had seemed to gain victory over Christ, but now Christ returns;
Satan will be defeated along with the wicked. We’ll get to the kingdom
of God in a moment. Second question: If the 'last day' is the day
the 7th trumpet is blown, then the 'last day' is the day when 'the
kingdom of the world has become the kingdom of our Lord, and of
His Christ; and He will reign forever and ever.' If you are looking
for an earthly kingdom here, then I can see your problem. But the
kingdom of our Lord is not earthly, it is composed of all that are
His at His coming, that is, all the elect. When anyone is regenerated,
they enter into the kingdom of God. As Rev 12:10 says, 'Now the
salvation, and the power, and the kingdom of our God and the authority
of His Christ have come, for the accuser of our brethren has been
thrown down...'. This is not speaking of judgment day at the end
of the world, it is speaking of the cross, where Satan received
his death blow by Christ. Yet the language is similar, for Satan
was defeated at the cross, and Christ's kingdom was at hand. On
the feast of Pentecost, Christ indeed began to fill the kingdom
of heaven and build His church. Vs 15 is making it clear that Christ
is the Supreme ruler of all, even Satan's kingdom, and thus, Satan
is defeated by a greater kingdom, and that rule will never end (the
wicked will never rise again). Question 3: Luke 21:31 'Even so you,
too, when you see these things happening, recognize that the kingdom
of God is near.’ So then does this escaping from judgment occur
immediately prior to the establishment of God's kingdom as the passage
in question says it does? What, again, is the kingdom of God? Is
it some reign on earth for 1000 years? Remember what John the Washer
(hehe) said, 'Repent, for the kingdom of heaven has come near'.
John wasn't talking about an earthly rule of Christ, he was speaking
of God's salvation in Christ. But he was also speaking of the day
when God's Kingdom would put down Satan's. Notice how John goes
on to say, 'And His winnowing fork is in His hands', speaking of
Christ, 'He will gather His wheat into the barn' speaking of the
rapture at His second coming, 'but He will burn up the chaff with
unquenchable fire', which is the final part God's salvation program.
When the wicked are destroyed, then the victory is complete; Satan's
kingdom has become God's kingdom. God will rule uncontested. We
escape judgment and are gathered to be with Christ in the air. But
all these things are just the completing of God's plan. In Rev 19
the believers, a great multitude shout 'Hallelujah!, Salvation and
glory and power belong to our God', why is this? 'because His judgments
are true and righteous; for He has Judged the great harlot...and
He has avenged the blood of His bond-servants on her'. Then read
the end of Vs 6 'Hallelujah! For the Lord our God, the Almighty,
reigns'. Of course God always reigns, but now He has put down the
opposition. We must understand that God views Satan and the wicked
as at war with Him. If even one wicked person should escape judgment,
then God will have lost, and if one of God's elect fall to Satan,
then God has lost. It is a battle between evil and good, when God
has won then He reigns supreme. But His reign is not on this earth.
It is in the new heavens and new earth where righteousness dwell.
This world is destroyed by fire, there is nothing left. There is
NEVER a time that Christ will reign on earth, if you don’t' believe
me, believe Jesus, 'Jesus answered, My Kingdom is not of this world:
if my kingdom were of this world then would my servants fight...:
but now is my kingdom not from hence [this side]. (John 18:36) In
other words, Jesus' kingdom is not physical, it is not fought for
on the earth, it is spiritual and the fight is spiritual. Likewise,
the victory is spiritual, when wickedness is defeated (see Rev 19:17-21).
Hope this helps, but I think there is a vast difference in what
we think God's purpose is, and where His kingdom is. john
Subject: Re: Scripture agrees, why can't we? From: mebaser To: john hampshire Date Posted: Sat, Feb 12,
2000 at 23:56:38 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Dear John Hampshire, O.k. so then this is your statement
regarding Rev. 11:15, 'God always had the sword and the power to
do battle and slay the wicked, but now He has indeed taken His power
and begun to reign over the wicked.' So then when Rev. 11:15 says,
'The kingdom of the world has become the kingdom of our Lord, and
of His Christ; and He will reign forever and ever' it is actually
speaking of a reign and a kingdom that begins at the end of this
age rather than proceeding Christ's death and resurrection, right?
Next are your comments regarding Rev. 11:15 referring to the 'last
day.' If I am reading you correctly, then Rev. 11:15 refers to Judgment
day, while Rev. 12:10 refers to the cross. So then when the kingdom
of the world becomes Christ's kingdom in which He will reign forever
and ever is not the same time as when salvation, power, and the
kingdom of our God and the authority of His Christ have come, right?
Also, in your interpretation, John tells about the coming of Christ's
everlasting kingdom at judgment day (Rev. 11:15), and then he goes
backwards in time and tells us about the coming of Christ's kingdom
at the cross (Rev. 12:10). But as you believe, Revelation is not
a book about chronological events, but it jumps around throughout
history, so that takes care of that in your view, right? As for
question 3 that I asked, I was getting at something that I don't
know if you got. But based on your answers to the first two questions,
I can deduce an answer. In your original post, you attempt to show
that the 'escaping these things' in Luke 21:36 is an escaping from
final judgment at the end of time (as opposed to a tribulation period).
Hence, the reference to the coming of the kingdom, which is 'at
hand' in Luke 21:31, would be in your view the coming of Christ's
rule defeating Satan's rule at judgment day, as opposed to the coming
of Christ's kingdom at the cross (cf. Rev. 12:10). So then, in summary,
the coming of Christ's kingdom in Luke 21:31 and Rev. 11:15 are
the coming of Christ's defeat of Satan's rule of the world, but
the coming of Christ's kingdom in Rev. 12:10 is at the cross, and
not a direct reference to Christ's defeat of Satan's rule (like
Rev. 11:15 and Luke 21:31 are). Is this what you are saying? In
Christ, mebaser
Subject: Re: Scripture agrees, why can't we? From: Pilgrim To: mebaser Date Posted: Sun, Feb 13,
2000 at 11:47:28 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Mebaser, I am not trying to get involved here at
all.... lol! I'm not that foolish :-) But as per the chronological
timeline subject re: the Book of Revelation, Dr. William Hendriksen's
masterful work, More Than Conquerors is certainly worth reading and considering. He, I believe
rightly, discerns that Revelation is 'cyclical', ie., chronological
BUT not linear. If you have already read his work, which I presume
you have, then perhaps a second look as a refresher would be beneficial.
In His Precious Blood, Pilgrim
Subject: Re: Scripture agrees, why can't we? From: john hampshire To: mebaser Date Posted:
Sun, Feb 13, 2000 at 02:49:25 (PST) Email
Address:Not Provided
Message: Hello mebaser,
>>>>>O.k. so then this is your statement regarding
Rev. 11:15, 'The kingdom of the world has become the kingdom of
our Lord, and of His Christ; and He will reign forever and ever'
it is actually speaking of a reign and a kingdom that begins at
the end of this age rather than proceeding Christ's death and resurrection,
right? It simply is saying that Christ's kingdom is reigning victorious
over what was Satan's kingdom. Satan and this evil generation that
began with Adam has been defeated. The death blow to Satan was given
by Christ at the cross, but it is not until the second coming that
Satan is utterly vanquished. >>>If I am reading you correctly,
then Rev. 11:15 refers to Judgment day, while Rev. 12:10 refers
to the cross. Rev 11:15 refers to the summation of all things. Rev
12:10 refers to the dawning of salvation made possible by Christ's
death. >>>>>So then when the kingdom of the world
becomes Christ's kingdom in which He will reign forever and ever
is not the same time as when salvation, power, and the kingdom of
our God and the authority of His Christ have come, right? Is the
first coming of Christ the same as the second coming? They both
dealt with victory over Satan, both complete our salvation. The
second coming is the summation of all those things begun on the
first coming. But as you believe, Revelation is not a book about
chronological events, but it jumps around throughout history, so
that takes care of that in your view, right? I don't have anything
needing 'taking care of', it merely is a fact that God wrote Rev
in this manner. It describes aspects of God's salvation, the tribulation,
the rapture, judgment day, God's glory, Christ's redemption, but
each event is not ordered beyond a general flowing toward the end.
It is descriptions and highlightings of different aspects of Christ's
kingdom or Satan's. I know this chronological order belief is taught
by many, oh well. >>>> Luke 21:36 is an escaping from
final judgment at the end of time (as opposed to a tribulation period).
True! The rapture is upon the return of Christ, after the tribulation,
where the world has been readied for judgment. >>>>>>>Hence,
the reference to the coming of the kingdom, which is 'at hand' in
Luke 21:31, would be in your view the coming of Christ's rule defeating
Satan's rule at judgment day, as opposed to the coming of Christ's
kingdom at the cross (cf. Rev. 12:10). There is only one kingdom
of God, it is composed of all those who have believed, and it is
ruled by God the Father through the Son. The kingdom is near when
its King is near. Entry into the kingdom was near on Christ’s first
coming, and the completing of the kingdom will be anticipated by
the believers prior to His second coming. \ At His first coming
the kingdom was at hand, for Christ the King was opening entry into
that kingdom. At the second return of Christ, this world is destroyed
and ONLY one Kingdom remains, and the completion of this is not
afar off, for it begins when the King returns. So as we creep toward
the end, we can know by certain signs given, that the Kingdom of
God will soon be made manifest to all. john
Subject: My Questions to Dispies! :-) From: Pilgrim To: All Date Posted: Fri, Feb 11, 2000 at 12:01:39 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Somehow this post has been 'overlooked'?
So here it is again! :-) Let's see if your 'psycho-statistical-mean'
hermeneutic will pass the test. :-) 1) Tell me, if you would please
about how the Levitical Priesthood and related sacrificial system
is to be understood? I.e, were they permanent or were they types
and shadows as the writer of Hebrews specifically and the entire
N.T. testifies? 2) If the latter, and the former has passed away/been
fulfilled; then what is the purpose of their reinstitution during
this alleged 'millennial reign' of a literal and earthly 1000 years?
3) How do the Lord Christ's words to the Pharisees fit in with your
contention that the earthly appearance of the Lord Christ will bring
about the mass conversion of the Jewish nation?:
Luke 16:27 'Then
he said, I pray thee therefore, father, that thou wouldest send
him to my father's house: 28 For I have five brethren; that
he may testify unto them, lest they also come into this place
of torment. 29 Abraham saith unto him, They
have Moses and the prophets; let them hear them.If they hear not Moses and the prophets, neither
will they be persuaded, though one rose from the dead.'
I am perplexed on this issue as
it is held by Dispensationalists, for when Christ walked among the
Jews and the witness of His resurrection was at it's strongest in
history, the majority of the Jews rejected Him and the gospel? 4)
Was the 'Church' a 'parenthesis/plan B/makeup plan' which God had
to devise due to the 'unexpected rejection' of the Lord Christ by
the Jews? or was it the progressive fulfillment of O.T. prophesy?
(cf. Acts 7:38). That's enough for now. :-) In His Precious Blood,
Pilgrim
Subject: Re: And yet more flack!!!!!!!!! ;-) From: dispie light To: Pilgrim Date Posted: Fri, Feb 11,
2000 at 17:05:46 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Against me better judgment I will respond - not sure
why - maybe I just love punishment :-p Don't recall seeing thisen
afore, and it seems to be important so here goes nothing. (Am sure
someone will avail themselves of that comment for the using of it
for a pun soon :-) Ifen we is dispies is youuns refories - do you
do basket ball or football? 'Let's see if your 'psycho-statistical-mean'
hermeneutic will pass the test. :-) ' And what does this mean? Never
heard of it - must be something new maybe? Or maybe something that
has been reformed - I don't know ;-) At any rate I don't do that
sort of Hermentick so guess I don't have to pass your test. 1. First
off they were real but do picture things as Hebrews indicates. Actually
they might be more the image of what the real priest Christ was
to be like - along with the real holy of holies which Hebrews makes
clear was the model for the earthly one. 2. Maybe for memorial,
maybe for some unrevealed reason, maybe to allow you to ask questions
;-) 3. Luke relates to truth of Jews of Christ's day not believing
- even if one came back from the dead to tell them. You imply that
no Jew in all of time can believe by using this verse in this way,
yet many do today. Sides, efen they in the end time is elect .......
4. Twud seem ya don't think a dispie can believe in a soveriegn
God - it wasn't a surprise party - He knew - He planned - He decreed
- all that stuff ;-) He was big enough to work out all them thar
details - He had eternity past to work it all out ;-) stan
Subject: Re: And yet more flack!!!!!!!!! ;-) From: Pilgrim To: dispie light Date Posted: Fri, Feb 11,
2000 at 19:18:11 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Stan,
Get Learnt!
Pilgrim
Subject: Re: ;-) From: stan To: Pilgrim Date
Posted: Fri, Feb 11, 2000
at 19:48:30 (PST) Email
Address:Not Provided
Message: I try, but thinking is so painful at
my age ;-) Keep up the good work - appreciate this place a lot!
stan
Subject: Only the Jews had God's permission From: LetsObeyChrist Lk.6:46 Mt To: All Date Posted: Fri, Feb 11, 2000 at 04:13:25 (PST) Email Address:alpersso@letsobeychrist.com
Message:
It is written: Rom 3:1 WHAT advantage then
hath the Jew, or what is the profit of circumcision? Rom 3:2 Much
every way. First indeed, because the words of God were committed
to them.-Douay Rheims Rom 3:1 Then what advantage has the Jew? Or
what is the value of circumcision? Rom 3:2 Much, in every way. For
in the first place the Jews were entrusted with the oracles of God.-nrsv
Rom 3:1 What advantage then has the Jew, or what is the profit of
circumcision? Rom 3:2 Much in every way! Chiefly because to them
were committed the oracles of God.-nkjv
'Were committed' Gr., episteutheesan (4100) 'pass[ive] as committed
to someone be entrusted with RO 3:2.'-Friberg Lexicon. This verb is indicative aorist
passive 'were entrusted' (Wuest), the tense is definitely meant
when Greek verbs are in the indicative. God does not take back what
He Himself has granted (past tense): Rom
11:29 For the gifts and the calling of God are without repentance.-Douay
Rheims Rom 11:29 for the gifts and the calling of God are irrevocable.-nrsv That this entrusting involves delivering God's official
Word to men is seen in Stephen's words to the Sanhedrin (Ac 6:12ff)
about Moses receiving then delivering God's words to us: Acts 7:38 This is he that was in the church in the
wilderness, with the angel who spoke to him on mount Sina, and with
our fathers; who received the words of life to give unto us.-Douay
Rheims Acts 738 He is the one who was in the congregation in the
wilderness with the angel who spoke to him at Mount Sinai, and with
our ancestors; and he received living oracles to give to us.-nrsvPaul's words in context makes\
impossible any and all claims that the Jews alone did not have God
given authority to define the OT Canon.
God's faithfulness is NOT impacted by their unfaithfulness: Rom
3:1 WHAT advantage then hath the Jew, or what is the profit of circumcision?
Rom 3:2 Much every way. First indeed, because the words of God were
committed to them. Rom 3:3 For what if
some of them have not believed? shall their unbelief make the faith
of God without effect? God forbid. Rom
3:4 But God is true; and every man a liar, as it is written, That
thou mayest be justified in thy words, and mayest overcome when
thou art judged.-Douay Rheims Rom 3:1 Then what advantage has the
Jew? Or what is the value of circumcision? Rom 3:2 Much, in every
way. For in the first place the Jews were entrusted with the oracles
of God. Rom 3:3 What if some were unfaithful?
Will their faithlessness nullify the faithfulness of God? Rom 3:4
By no means! Although everyone is a liar,
let God be proved true, as it is written, “So that you may be justified
in your words, and prevail in your judging.'-nrsv. Furthermore it
is the express teaching of Christ that: Mat
23:2 Saying, The scribes and the Pharisees sit in Moses' seat: Mat
23:3 All therefore whatsoever they bid you observe, that observe
and do; but do not ye after their works: for they say, and do not.-kjv As Christ Himself rejected the authority of their oral
tradition (Mt 15:2ff; Mk 7:6ff;) as did Paul (Col 2:8) and whereas
Rabbinic rejection of Christ as Messiah validated the secession
from them and the formation of the Christian Church at Pentecost
(Mt 23:38; Ac 2:1ff), the only remaining application of these words
of Christ is to their authority to set the OT canon. Perhaps it
was from this Paul drew the his teaching to the One Holy Apostolic
Church found in the New Testament that confirmed the Jews alone
had God granted authority to set the OT canon (Rm 3:1-2). Therefore
it was presumptuous rebellion against the revealed will of God for
any to add to the OT canon known to the Jews even before the days
of Christ and which manifestly was accepted by both Christ and His
real Apostles. That neither Christ or His real apostles thought
the deuterocanonical books were inspired is definitely evidenced
by the fact these are never quoted from for anything. This deduction
becomes incontrovertible when it is realized these books were readily
available to them in their Greek (LXX) Bibles. They easily could
have quoted from them if they wanted to. Not doing so is obvious
rejection of them as inspired of God. Moreover, the internal evidence
of these books--myth and doctrinal error in direct contradiction
to the certain words of God, testify against their being anything
but books of straw fit to be burned. It is written to those who
would change to oracles of God: John 4:22
Ye worship ye know not what: we know what we worship: for salvation is of the Jews.-kjv Salvation is of the
Jews precisely because they were entrusted (past tense) with delivering
the words of God to mankind (Rm 3:1-2) and these testified of Christ
(Jn 5:39ff; Lk 24:27; 1 Cor 15:3-4) and from the Jews was Christ
(Dt 18:18f). LetsObeyChrist and follow Him in NOT using deuterocanonical
books filled with myth and lie: 1 John
2:20 But ye have an unction from the Holy One, and ye know all things.
1 John 2:21 I have not written unto you because ye know not the
truth, but because ye know it, and that no lie is of the truth.-kjv
Subject: Re: Only the Jews had God's permission From: Christopher To: LetsObeyChrist Lk.6:46
Mt Date Posted:
Sat, Feb 12, 2000 at 10:06:26 (PST) Email
Address:Not Provided
Message: >>>>>This
deduction becomes incontrovertible when it is realized these books
were readily available to them in their Greek (LXX) Bibles. They
easily could have quoted from them if they wanted to. Not doing
so is obvious rejection of them as inspired of God. Moreover, the
internal evidence of these books--myth and doctrinal error in direct
contradiction to the certain words of God, testify against their
being anything but books of straw fit to be burned.<<<<
Would anyone care to expand on what, specifically, is contained
in these books that is offensive? Also, is there any other criteria
by which the deuterocanonical books are rejected other than the
fact that they are not quoted in the NT? This standard would seem
to eliminate some books that are accepted in the OT canon. And what is made of the reference
by Jude to Enoch? Lastly, does anyone know when these books were
rejected? Prior to or during the Reformation? I've seen evidence
the problem was wrestled with in the west as far back as Augustine--he
seems to have had some difficulty with where to place the LXX (even
though he believed it was inspired) as how it was complied differed
from how Jerome went about putting together the Vulgate. Thanks,
Christopher
Subject: Pilgrim, little help? nt From: Christopher To: Christopher Date Posted: Sun, Feb 13, 2000 at 17:18:30 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Subject: deuterocanonical books From: mebaser To: All Date Posted: Sat, Feb 12, 2000 at 00:42:09 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
To all: For the record, the deuterocanonical books mentioned in
the last post refer to any books outside of the Old Testament canon
from Genesis to Malachi. mebaser
Subject: Sin From: Tom To: All Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 10, 2000 at 13:13:12 (PST) Email Address:ahardy@rapidnet.net
Message:
Hi I have been studying the Epistles of John, and have some questions
that although I think I know the answers to, I want to make sure
that I am not mistaken. One of the passages that concerns me is
1 John 3:6-8. For the sake of time I will not write the passage
out. In verse 6 it tells us that '...:whoever sinneth hath not seen
him, neither known him.' Here is my question, from reading other
scriptures and knowing that all Christians,(King David as an example)
myself included do sin, but when we do, are repentant. How does
this scripture passage make sence in light of that? It seems to
be saying that a true Christian will not sin. Not that a Christian
will be repentant, when they do sin. Neither does it seem to be
saying a Christian will not habitually sin. Tom
Subject: Re: Sin From: Brother Bret To: Tom Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 10, 2000 at 19:11:54 (PST) Email Address:Lovitz5@aol.com
Message: Hi Tom: My understanding
of such passages as that and verse 9 which says: 'Whosoever is born
of God doth not commit sin; for His seed remaineth in him, and he
cannot sin, because he is born of God' is that it is referring to
someone who 'sins as a way of life.' Habitually as you said. Their
life is characterized by a sinful lifestyle. The NASB uses the word
'practice' instead of 'commit.' Yet 1Jn.1:8 and 10 says that people
who think we have not sinned (the acts) and have no sin (the nature),
is deceived and the truth is not in them. For the one is has been
born of God, sin is the exception rather than the rule. As you said,
such person will be convicted by that sin that will lead to repentence.
1Cor. 6:9-10 has something to say about these things. The passage
is not saying that if a Christian commits an act of these sins that
they will not enter the kingom of God. But that if their life is
characterized by these sins (the words are linear/continuous in
the Greek). That's where some of our friends that believe in multiple
salvations and apostasy's get crossed up. Some think that this passage
and others like it means that if a Christian commits 'an act' of
one of these sins, they are lost. The other thing that I have been
thinking on lately is the issue of 'irresistible grace.' Certainly
these passages mentioned and others reflect that God's grace is
irresistible during the salvation process (sanctification) as well
as just prior to justification. If God's grace is irresistible,
it is at all times! I think some of us 'Calvinists' have a tendency
to think that we cannot resist His drawing, quickening, regenerating
grace prior to salvation, but can resist it during our walk with
Him. No room for easy believism, easy livism, easy servism and easy
evangelism for those who have been truly born again, and the 'true
Calvinist view.' :^ ) That's my take on it anyway, brother! BB
Subject: Born Again is the only condition From: jh To:
All Date Posted:
Thurs, Feb 10, 2000 at 13:01:41 (PST) Email
Address:Not Provided
Message: Scott Lewis,
Some things you said makes me want to clarify and see if you agree.
You said: 'Here we have another condition given to those who are
alive at the time of the Rapture. Those who remain are those who
are still remaining in Christ and have kept their faith.' Still
remainning in Christ? That sounds like you could be in Christ at
one time, and then not remain in Him at another time. That is impossible.
Do you agree? All who are in Christ at one point can never be outside
of Him ever again. Scott said: 'At the time of the Rapture, if you
are separated from sin, Jesus will receive you unto Himself! ' In
other words, those who have been born again. Anyone who has been
born again can never become UNbornagain. That means once saved always
saved. Do you agree? My point is... There is not multiple conditions
to be raptured. There is only one - and that condition is regeneration.
Anyone who has been born again will surely receive all the benefits
of being a child of God. Since salvation is by grace, there cannot
be any condition on man's part to perform. The only condition is
God's part to perform. Did He make me a new creature in Christ.
Do you agree? jh
Subject: apology's From: scott lewis To: jh Date Posted: Fri, Feb 11, 2000 at 12:01:47 (PST) Email Address:navyrdc1@megsinet.net
Message:
Still remainning in Christ? That sounds like you could be in Christ
at one time, and then not remain in Him at another time. That is
impossible. Do you agree? YES All who are in Christ at one point
can never be outside of Him ever again. I AGREE WITH YOU Scott said:
'At the time of the Rapture, if you are separated from sin, Jesus
will receive you unto Himself! ' In other words, those who have
been born again. Anyone who has been born again can never become
UNbornagain. That means once saved always saved. Do you agree? I
AGREE My point is... There is not multiple conditions to be raptured.
There is only one - and that condition is regeneration. Anyone who
has been born again will surely receive all the benefits of being
a child of God. Since salvation is by grace, there cannot be any
condition on man's part to perform. The only condition is God's
part to perform. Did He make me a new creature in Christ. Do you
agree? I AGREE Sorry for not explaining my self better in my original
post to you. When i say back-slidden it has a different meaning
to me than you i guess. I dont believe anyone can lose their salvation.
You can't be Saved one day and Lost the next. The people I'm talking
about are people who may have made a public profession of faith
for whatever reason, but who were never really saved. Matt. 7:21
21 Not every one that saith unto me, Lord, Lord, shall enter into
the kingdom of heaven; but he that doeth the will of my Father which
is in heaven. 22Many will say to me in that day, Lord, Lord, have
we not prophesied in thy name? and in thy name have cast out devils?
and in thy name done many wonderful works? 23And then will I profess
unto them, I never knew you: depart from me, ye that work iniquity.
The King James Version, (Cambridge: Cambridge) 1769. Sorry for not
being clear enough. scott lewis Those who have back-slid will not
be raptured
Subject: Re: apology's From: jh To:
scott lewis Date Posted: Fri, Feb 11, 2000 at 13:06:33 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Thanks for the clarification. ;-) jh
Subject: BB/Pilgrim, on baptism From: Christopher To: All Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 10, 2000 at 10:57:32 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: Do I understand from below that the Reformed have
a different understanding and practice of Baptism than Baptists?
I was raised Baptist (and, thus, believed that all good Christians
believed the same thing) and am interested in the Reformed view--why
infant baptism, etc. Either a brief explanation or a link would
be greatly appreciated. Thanks, Christopher
Subject: some articles From: Five Sola To: Christopher Date Posted: Sat, Feb 12, 2000 at 20:32:58 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Christopher, I don't know if anyone answered your request for links
and articles (I'm sure they did) but here is a link to my homepage,
article section. I have about 4 articles taken from the tabletalk
issue on baptism (including one from a former baptist who upon studying
his 'opponents' view of paedobaptism, changed his view also). Five
Sola http://home.flash.net/~wmnabors/Sacramentology/baptism.htm
home.flash.net/~wmnabors/Sacramentology/baptism.htm
Subject: Re: some articles From: Christopher To: Five Sola Date Posted: Sun, Feb 13, 2000 at 08:42:26 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Five Sola, Thanks very much. Your input on my post below regarding
the deuterocanonical books would also be welcome. Christopher
Subject: Re: BB/Pilgrim, on baptism From: Pilgrim To: Christopher Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 10, 2000 at 12:37:27 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Do I understand from below that the Reformed have a different understanding
and practice of Baptism than Baptists? I was raised Baptist (and,
thus, believed that all good Christians believed the same thing)
and am interested in the Reformed view--why infant baptism, etc.
Either a brief explanation or a link would be greatly appreciated.
Thanks, Christopher --- Christopher,
You asked for a 'brief explanation'
and thus this is what you shall have with a heavy emphasis on the
'brief'. We baptize infants because of their inclusion in the Covenant
of Grace. In the OT the sign and seal for inclusion was circumcision
(notice that only the elect infants grew into adulthood as or became
believers! The remainder perished in unbelief). I stress this point
because my Baptist brethren often misconstrue the Reformed Paedobaptist
position as teaching 'presumptive regeneration'. Indeed, there have
been some groups/denominations who have and do practice this, but
the majority of those in the Reformed faith did not and do not adhere
to this pernicious error. In the NT, the same Covenant of Grace
(God's promise to save all who will come to Christ in repentance
and faith) continues but the sign and seal has changed to reflect
the completed work of Christ. A discontinuity exists in that all
the types and shadows have been fulfilled in the Lord Christ and
the inclusion of the whole world as it is expressed in a new universality
and a new spirituality. A continuity exists in that the ONE Covenant
of Grace whereby the promise of God to save believers continues
and will until the end of the age.
Briefly yours, Pilgrim :-)
Subject: Re: BB/Pilgrim, on baptism From: Christopher To: Pilgrim Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 10, 2000 at 13:20:03 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Pilgrim, As usual, thank you for taking the time to respond. If
you don't mind my asking, does the child receive any sort of spiritual
'benefit' from baptism? Must they 'get saved' at some point when
they are older and acheive an 'age of accountability,' or must a
baptized child simply continue on the path which, it is assumed,
his parents have taught him? Thanks again, Christopher
Subject: Re: BB/Pilgrim, on baptism From: Pilgrim To: Christopher Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 10, 2000 at 18:50:45 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Pilgrim, As usual, thank you for taking the time to respond. If
you don't mind my asking, does the child receive any sort of spiritual
'benefit' from baptism? Must they 'get saved' at some point when
they are older and acheive an 'age of accountability,' or must a
baptized child simply continue on the path which, it is assumed,
his parents have taught him? Thanks again, Christopher ---
Christopher,
The children of believers may
or may not be REGENERATE. I prefer to speak of that which produces
instrumentally the salvation rather than people 'getting saved'!
:-) The elect are brought to faith according to God's determination,
which may be either in the womb (exception), as little children
or as adults. Thus the baptized infant's salvation should not be
'assumed/presumed'. They are to be exposed to their need of Christ
throughout their life, as is the case with all of us. Do they receive
any 'spiritual benefit' from baptism? Well, that all depends doesn't
it on whether or not they are regenerate or not. If they are, then
they are 'sealed' into the Covenant which God had foreordained that
they should. However, whether they are regenerate at the time of
baptism or not, there are myriad 'benefits' to be derived from being
members of their relationship to the covenant externally, some being,
but not exclusively limited to::
1) Attending the house
of God where the Word of God is faithfully preached and heard.
2) Exposed to the Scriptures within the home of godly parents.
3) The Word applied both in word and deed by their parents to
all of life. 4) Being the subject of the prayers of both their
parents and the church community. 5) Biblical instruction within
the church itself.
All these things and more are
biblically God's 'means of grace' which if they are elect, will
eventually and infallibly produce faith and the commensurate fruit
of the Spirit. Such Paul taught in Romans 9:4, 5 concerning the
'advantage' of the Jews over the Gentiles. I do not hold to any
'age of accountability', for the Lord is not bound in His salvation
according to a person's physical age. When and if the Spirit regenerates
one who was baptized as an infant, that individual will indeed make
a valid profession of faith before men.
In His Precious Blood, Pilgrim
Subject: Re: BB/Pilgrim, on baptism From: Tom To: Pilgrim Date Posted: Fri, Feb 11, 2000 at 00:54:55 (PST) Email Address:ahardy@rapidnet.net
Message:
Pilgrim This is for information sake only, I am no match for you
in a sword drill (yet)heehe. Unless I am mistaken, most Reformed
Baptists, would hold that it is possible for a baby or an unborn
baby to be regenerate. However they believe that the child should
be of an accountable age because they are able to give proof that
they are regenerate. Of course no one (except God) knows whether
or not they are truly regenerate. Tom
Subject: Re: BB/Pilgrim, on baptism From: Christopher To: Pilgrim Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 10, 2000 at 20:10:04 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Pilgrim, Wow. I certainly learned something new today. And I assume
you must have had some interesting discussions with your Baptist
friends over the years! If you would indulge me a bit further, I
would be grateful, as it appears I have assumed a little too much
about what 'Reformed' means as it relates to my Baptist upbringing.
I have seen the term 'application' used on this board as it relates
to the work of Christ and justification. How does this pertain to
what you term 'regeneration' and the 'valid profession of faith'
mentioned in your last post? I am a little confused as to what consitutes
a valid profession of faith, what the (eternal) status is of a baptized
child prior to the valid profession and how regeneration, baptism
and profession relate to one another. Then, the $64,000 question:
What happens when babies die? You've mentioned that, in Reformed
theology, there is no inherited stain of original sin, ala Augustine,
so I'm assuming you don't believe they go to hell or some kind of
limbo, and I'm also guessing that you don't think the baptism has
any effect on the eternal state of an infant who dies. Please correct
any additional misconceptions I may have... Also, when an adult
is baptized, is it an 'outward profession of faith,' as with the
Baptists, or is there a different understanding? Again, thanks very
much for taking the time to respond to my questions--I know I ask
many. Christopher
Subject: Re: BB/Pilgrim, on baptism From: Pilgrim To: Christopher Date Posted: Fri, Feb 11, 2000 at 11:44:44 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Christopher,
You asked: 1) 'I
am a little confused as to what constitutes a valid profession of
faith?' ANS: My understanding of Scripture
is that a 'valid profession of faith' includes not only a confession
of one's sin and sinfulness, a recognition of the Lord Christ's
atonement as being sufficient to reconcile one to God and to remit
sin and one is resting in Him, but also a demonstration of a repentant
faith whereby the person's life is consistent with their resting
in Christ. 2) 'what the (eternal) status
is of a baptized child prior to the valid profession?' ANS: Who is to know what the 'eternal state' of anyone
is outside of God Himself. The Church is able to only judge the
external manifestations that accompany a profession of faith and
to either include or exclude persons from communion according to
those mandates given to the Church by its Head, the Lord Jesus Christ
according to the Scriptures. The baptized child's relationship to
the Church and its community is one of acceptance as one who is
a 'candidate' for membership, having the myriad 'means of grace'
at his/her disposal as I enumerated briefly in my previous post.
The Church and the child's believing parents are to care and nurture
this child with a lively hope that God will indeed regenerate and/or
bring to fruition the seed of regeneration and thus the child will
bring forth a valid profession of faith. 3)'How
[do] regeneration, baptism and profession relate to one another?' ANS: To answer this fully would be out of the range of
both my available time and the format of this forum. However, briefly,
I will try and give a meaningful answer with some semblance of cogency.
Regeneration is that act of God whereby the Holy Spirit enlivens/quickens/resurrects
a spiritual dead soul; recreating a new nature which is inclined
to love God and to desire all that God commands for His glory. Baptism
is not directly related to regeneration, in that it neither produces
it or is it a means to preserve it. It is however a sign; i.e.,
a declaration in outward form of God's faithfulness and promise
to save all who, by repentance and faith trust in Christ and His
finished work; confessing that He is indeed LORD of all and the
Saviour of sinners, specifically they themselves being the 'chief
of sinners.' It is also a 'seal' in that it seals to us the promise
of the Gospel, namely, that of free grace He grants us the forgiveness
of sins and everlasting life for the sake of the one sacrifice of
Christ accomplished on the cross. (cf. Gen. 17:11; Rom. 4:11; Deut.
30:6; Heb. 9:8-9; Ezek. 20:12). As to 'profession', this is the
outward declaration of one who believes himself/herself to have
been the recipient of God's grace and thus by faith is trusting
in Christ Jesus and is endeavoring to walk in righteousness, true
holiness and wisdom (Eph 4:24; Col 3:10). 4) 'What
happens when babies die? You've mentioned that, in Reformed theology,
there is no inherited stain of original sin, ala Augustine, so I'm
assuming you don't believe they go to hell or some kind of limbo,
and I'm also guessing that you don't think the baptism has any effect
on the eternal state of an infant who dies.'
ANS: Let me take the second part of this question first, re: 'there
is no inherited stain of original sin . . .' This is certainly not
taught by ANY who adhere to Reformed Theology, including Augustine.
In fact it is the exact opposite of what Reformed Theology teaches.
It was Augustine, in his opposition to Pelagius, who denied this
tenet espoused by Pelagius and his followers and asserted that the
Scriptures teach that all men are born with both a corrupt nature
and inherit the guilt of Adam's transgression. The resulting debates
led to the writing and adoption of the Council of Orange (A.D. 529
[cf. Canons 1 & 2]). All subsequent Confessions have reiterated
the doctrine of original sin and that ALL are born with a depraved
nature, thus without God's sovereign work of regeneration no one
can be saved. All who remain in this state of depravity are subject
to the wrath of God and are destined to the Judgment and the torments
of eternal hell. 'What happens when babies
die?' I'll let the Westminster Confession
of Faith, chapter X speak to this issue:
III. Elect infants,
dying in infancy, are regenerated, and saved by Christ, through
the Spirit,[12] who worketh when, and where, and how he pleaseth:[13]
so also are all other elect persons who are incapable of being
outwardly called by the ministry of the Word.[14] 12. Gen. 17:7;
Luke 1:15; 18:15-16; Acts 2:39; John 3:3, 5; I John 5:12 13.
John 3:8 14. John 16:7-8; I John 5:12; Acts 4:12
Finally, as to baptism
and its affect on the eternal state of an infant. No, I do not believe that the sacrament of baptism is
efficacious in determining one's eternal state, whether infant of
adult. 5) 'When an adult is baptized, is
it an 'outward profession of faith,' as with the Baptists?' ANS: An adult will indeed make and must make an 'outward
profession of faith' to be baptized. But the baptism itself is not
that profession, nor an 'outward sign' of it, as most Baptists contend.
Baptism is rather a declaration/profession of God's faithfulness
to save all who are trusting in the Lord Christ with a true faith.
It is a declaration and reiteration of the promise of God in the
Covenant of Grace, whereby He assures us in baptism that He will
infallibly save all who are 'in Christ'.
In His Precious Blood, Pilgrim
Subject: Re: BB/Pilgrim, on baptism From: Christopher To: Pilgrim Date Posted: Fri, Feb 11, 2000 at 12:28:44 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Pilgrim, Thank you for your detailed reply--clear and helpful. Please
allow me just to clarify one point, as I may have been too general.
When I said 'ala Augustine,' I meant to allude to what the RC's
have referred to as the 'stain' of original guilt inherited via
lust--as described in Augustine's 'On Marriage and Concupisence'--which
they believe (or did believe, not sure of the current teaching)
is removed in baptism and without which the infant is condemned
to either hell, limbo or purgatory. (The other related doctrine
would be the immaculate conception of the Virgin Mary) My statement
was made only to differentiate your understanding of the topic from
the Roman Catholic teaching. Thanks again for taking the time. Christopher
Subject: Re: BB/Pilgrim, on baptism From: Brother Bret To: Pilgrim Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 10, 2000 at 19:21:13 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Us Baptists have something similar, only they don't get wet. It's
called a 'baby dedication' which really amounts to a Parent(s) dedication
to raise their child in the nurture and admonition of the Lord :^).
You also said; 'When and if the Spirit regenerates one who was baptized
as an infant, that individual will indeed make a valid profession
of faith before men.' I assume that in this statement, you are not
saying that God does not regenerate a child that was not baptized
as an infant :^ ) BB
Subject: Re: BB/Pilgrim, on baptism From: Pilgrim To: Brother Bret Date Posted: Fri, Feb 11, 2000 at 11:54:38 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Us Baptists have something similar, only they don't get wet. It's
called a 'baby dedication' which really amounts to a Parent(s) dedication
to raise their child in the nurture and admonition of the Lord :^).
You also said; 'When and if the Spirit regenerates one who was baptized
as an infant, that individual will indeed make a valid profession
of faith before men.' I assume that in this statement, you are not
saying that God does not regenerate a child that was not baptized
as an infant :^ ) BB --- Brother Bret,
From whence comes the mandate
to practice 'Infant Dedication'? :-) This 'rite' has little relationship
to infant baptism as I see it. See my post immediately above to
Christopher for a more detailed explanation. As to your question:
A child who was not baptized as an infant is in no way exempt from
regeneration. God's eternal decree is what determines the end of
all men, which includes the 'means' to that end, e.g, regeneration.
Again, see my reply to Christopher immediately above for further
clarification.
In His Precious Blood, Pilgrim
Subject: forgiveness for the believer? From: knowfear To: All Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 10, 2000 at 09:23:28 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Hi folks. I ran my question on another reformed forum but it appears
I forgot to put my deodorant on as people are staying away or else
it is (and more probable) the stupid question of the month OR I
am impatient and should wait a few more days. Anyways I thot of
you folks and would see if you could help. I am basically asking
in the muddle below if a Christian asks forgiveness or does he confess.
To me the ramifications are tremendous in the sense of 'freedom
in Christ'. I am an ex R.C. and was ingrained in that system for
32 yrs. And one thing I do know about Catholicism is that one cannot
know they are saved. 1 John 1:9 is in the context of John writing
so that we can KNOW we have eternal life. And so I believe (now)
and am certainly subject to correction; that a believer 'confesses'
rather than asks forgiveness as to ask forgiveness puts Christ back
on the Cross to do again what He already did and that is to put
away sin for His elect people forever. BUT what of the relational
aspect ie. if I have grieved the Spirit, even quenched the Spirit.
Do I confess here again or do I indeed ask forgiveness. I think
a proper understanding might go along way to a believer enjoying
the freedom he has in Christ, the peace he has in Christ. To continually
ask forgiveness suggests a defeated Christian or at least can imply
a defeated Christian. The Bible talks much of the boldness of a
Christian, not ****iness or arrogance, but boldness. So by practicing
faithfully confession from the heart I can rest in the fact that
I am forgiven and cleansed past, present and future am I not. What
say you. Perhaps I have explained myself more clearly as to what
I was getting at below but I'll paste it anyway to let you decide
for yourselves but I am interested in help here. Thank-you in advance.
kf. <> > <> > <>
> <>
Subject: Re: forgiveness for the believer? From: Anne To: knowfear Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 10, 2000 at 10:06:01 (PST) Email Address:anneivy@home.com
Message: I am also a
poster to the other message board, and saw your question, but didn't
feel equipped to deal with it there. Not much better equipped here, but I'll be glad to
give you my thought, as an ex-RC'er myself. ;-> I most assuredly
ask for our Lord's forgiveness for my sins and transgressions. Actually,
I am more enthusiastic in doing so now than I was then, since I
now understand that part of the grace we receive is the ability to follow His laws,
and obey Him. Living in obedience to His Word is
not the burden the world perceives it
to be, but is a privelege. Completely different POV. I don't know
if this addresses your question or not? Anne
Subject: Re: forgiveness for the believer? From: knowfear To: Anne Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 10, 2000 at 12:34:05 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Hi Anne and thank-you. I did a kind of mini search on the word forgive
and the only instance it comes up is in the instance of the Lord's
prayer I believe. And that seems to be the Lord telling me that
the assured forgiveness is always there AS I am in the practice
of forgiving others. So it seems to me one way of looking at that
passage is on full assurance and reliance rather than asking. In
the 1 John 1:9 passage it seems there to be admonishing us to confess
not ask forgiveness and trust again that the forgiveness is there
always and ever ONLY as we are in the practice of confessing our
sins. I think this can have serious ramifications in that to continually
go before the Father begging forgiveness is to possibly lend to
a defeated Christian aspect. We are called to be bold in going to
the thrown of grace; that is confident that as we confess we know
the forgiveness accomplished once and for all at the Cross is all
ie. forgave from Eph. 4 I believe. But I am offering this at this
pt. because of a good freind who has turned me onto this. It has
been a revelation of sorts for me because of problably my Roman
Catholic upbringing but I want to pursue this and get the thoughts
of my peers such as yourself. Thank-you. p.s. Remember John's words
that he writes us these things so that we can KNOW we have eternal
life. And one of the ways of knowing is to confess continually showing
we are in agreement with God that sin is wrong. And Jesus of course
precipitated this with the Lords prayer in saying you know your
have forgiveness AS you are in the habit of forgiving others. You
know Anne, no sooner than I fired this off I got a response from
John on that other list. Isn't that always the way. :-).
Subject: Latest Post In 'Timing of Rapture ' From: Brother Bret To: Pilgrim & All Date Posted:
Wed, Feb 09, 2000 at 20:29:07 (PST) Email
Address:Lovitz5@aol.com
Message: 'Well, that's
it for me. hehehe. I have no 'taste' for debates on Eschatology
as they are more often than not unfruitful. It's like discussing
baptism with Baptists! lol.... they are so ingrained with the idea
that unless an adult is immersed he/she hasn't been obedient and
faithful to Christ. Whereas their view is in error prima facie due
to the fact that they don't even have a valid definition of baptism
to begin with and can't seem to come up with one no matter how hard
they try. Dispensationalists are similar in that Israel is the 'all
and all' and to speak against 'it' is to be found in complete rebellion
against 'God's plan', in their eyes.' Ah, sarcasm will get you everywhere
my friend :^). My goal on here has only been to learn about eschatology,
baptism and covenant theology. The lack of responses has only made
me wonder if you and others didn't have very strong arguments in
these areas and therefore stayed out of it. I appreciate the clarification
(now I'm being sacastic...LOL). 'Most' Baptists are just being obedient
to the Scriptures such as in Acts 8,9,11,16 where believers were
baptized, just as you feel you are obeying the Scriptures to Baptize
infants as the new covenant sign for circumcision. At least you
don't believe it saves them. And you don't know if such infant is
of the elect or not. I wonder whether Infant Baptism is one of those
leftovers from the Catholic Church :^). I posted a sincere message
last week about the Rapture because I'm coming up on 1Th 4:13. You
didn't respond there, but you get your 'digs' in here and than take
off saying that you have no taste for discussing these things. Come
on brother, what gives? help me with the 'no man knows thwe day
or hour' language with the mentioning of specific times in Daniel
and Revelation for a Tribulation Period. Just trying to reconcile
the Scriptures. I haven't heard a good explanation for it yet :^).
As for Baptism? Well you guys aren't going to be right about everything,
LOL........Brother Bret
Subject: Re: Latest Post In 'Timing of Rapture ' From: knowfear To: Brother Bret Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 10,
2000 at 09:43:50 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Hi Bret. Forgive me for butting in and perhaps this
little thot does not even apply however I will throw caution to
the wind and offer this anyways. I have been on a theology list
for near a month now listening in how some pretty sharp guys argue
Eschatology and whether Christ's return is imminent or whether A.D.
70 was full judgement or partial, how Daniels 70th week plays out;
if the first 69 weeks are such and such why should the 70th be different
etc. etc.; discussion as to how the temple in Ezekiel plays a part
if it plays a part at all; are there prophecies that precede Christ's
return unfulfilled and if they are unfulfilled how can Christ's
return be said to be imminent; who and what exactly the abomination
of desolation ( is it an individual or is it a system) and on and
on and on it goes. And me who does not consider himself close to
being the sharpest knife in the drawer but also hopefully not the
dullest either is left with his head spinning as 15 (at least) sharp
guys cannot find full agreement on anything. So I am left wondering
if it (for me I speak here) not more profitable for me to be spending
time in other areas. So I have taken to deleting alot of posts.
This is just an observation from a lurker who is not schooled in
Greek, who is not 'schooled' in the Bible but is just an everyday
working Joe who loves the Lord and is trying to learn as much of
Him as I can to hopefully emulate Him as much as He would want me
to. This (the above) is not in anyway meant as a criticism but I
believe you responded to someone who pretty much said very curtly
what I have in a long winded way also put forth. Eschatology I think
must be approached with a very longsuffering, patient, humble (big
emphasis here) and sensitive spirit. My 2 cents anyway. Hope it
helps someone. kf.
Subject: Re: Latest Post In 'Timing of Rapture ' From: Tom To: knowfear Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 10,
2000 at 13:29:29 (PST) Email Address:ahardy@rapidnet.net
Message: knowfear Have you been reading my thoughts?(just
kidding) What you have summed up is where I am at on the subject
of Eschatology. There are a lot of people who I respect very much,
and are a lot sharper than I am. That disagree on this matter, but
who agree on matters that are more important, such as TULIP. Tom
Subject: Re: Latest Post In 'Timing of Rapture ' From: Pilgrim To: Brother Bret Date Posted: Wed, Feb 09,
2000 at 21:46:42 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Brother Bret,
Sorry you so terribly misinterpreted
my post which you partially quoted above. There was absolutely NO
sarcasm whatsoever on my part. Secondly, that post wasn't directed
at you personally, but more toward Scott and those who hold to the
more classical Dispensational view. If that be you too, then fine!
:-) If you would have read just a bit further down, you would have
seen that I posted a couple of more replies and questions on this
issue, which were done against my better judgment and for which
I shall suffer no doubt.. hahaha. As for understanding the OT texts
which speak in language which might lead one to try and speculate
on the exact or even relative time of Christ's return and the NT
texts where the Lord Christ says that 'no man knows the hour. .
. not even the Son of man. . .'; apply the most basic biblical hermeneutic
here and you've got your answer. :-) The NT always interprets the
OT. Thus if the Lord Christ Himself, who shall be the one to appear
on the clouds says that even He, in His yet unglorified state, didn't
know the hour of His own return, and that it will come about as
a 'thief in the night' where everyone will be doing what they normally
do, as it was in the days of Noah, etc., then I think that there
is no clear reference to the time of His return outside of those
general conditions which all generations experience in their own
day. And so, it would be foolish for anyone to suggest that we are
at the brink of the eschaton. Having said that, it is also true
that all generations should work while it is yet day, for the night
comes and we know not when. :-) There is also another post of mine
on the subject of Eschatology in the "it doesn't say on earth
. ." thread! :-) As for the baptism issue, maturity in the
Word will bring you there eventually! :-)
In His Precious Blood, Pilgrim
Subject: Re: Latest Post In 'Timing of Rapture ' From: Brother Bret To: Pilgrim Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 10,
2000 at 18:42:09 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: 'As for understanding the OT texts which speak in
language which might lead one to try and speculate on the exact
or even relative time of Christ's return and the NT texts where
the Lord Christ says that 'no man knows the hour. . . not even the
Son of man. . .'' No, no my brother. Not the exact pr aproximate
time of His return, but rather the extent of a/the Tribulation period.
Has the 70th week mentioned in Daniel occured yet? Is it literal?
If it is, and hasn't occurred yet, when? Will it be the 7 year Tribulation
Period when the Antichrist rules, that many Christian believe is
yet to happen? Is there any connection between that and the 42months/1260
days mentioned several times in Revelation? I agree with you on
the 'no man knoweth' language. That's why I think the two live or
die with each other (Tribulation and 'no man knoweth).If there is
a designated Tribulation Period, then perhaps it would necessitate
a pre-trib Rapture, otherwise we would be able to know the day or
hour. On the other hand, if there is no literal designated Tribulation
Period, it would not to damage to the Rapture and Second coming
being synonomous or simultaneous. I do agree somewhat with what
Knowfear and Tom are saying. But at the same time, I do not want
to be responsible for telling the small flock God has me serving,
something that just ain't so :^ ). I'll ignore your last baptism
comment...JK :^) Brother Bret
Subject: Let's avoid group think From: Vic Eagle To: Pilgrim Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 10, 2000 at 15:59:21 (PST) Email Address:roost7@hotmail.com
Message:
Pilgrim, I'm not affiliated with the Baptists and never have been.
Not to say that I never would, though. What you think 'the day'
refers to in this passage? Hebrews 10:23
Let us hold fast the profession of our faith without wavering; (for
he is faithful that promised;) Hebrews 10: 24 And let us consider
one another to provoke unto love and to good works: Hebrews 10:25
Not forsaking the assembling of ourselves together, as the manner
of some is; but exhorting one another: and so much the more, as
ye see the day approaching.
(KJV) In Jesus, Vic
Subject: Re: Let's avoid group think From:
john hampshire To: Vic Eagle Date Posted:
Thurs, Feb 10, 2000 at 21:57:27 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message:
....but exhorting one another: and so much the more, as ye see the
day approaching. As we progress toward the end, we must endure a
period of tribulation that entails the overthrow of the true gospel
to such a degree that the church is overrun with false gospels.
We are, during the sad but necessary time, as God prepares the wicked
for Judgment, to encourage each other with the truth. While details
concerning the end-times is debated, so is predestination, election,
and such things as baptism (I don't know why though). Just like
any other doctrine, if we don't handle Scripture correctly we end
up twisting in the wind unable to reconcile everything God intends
us to know. I have studied these things because I find it very interesting,
but also because I want to know (inquiring minds want to know).
I guess the fear and timidity that people seem to project over end-time
events is lost on me. I go where others fear to tread (and ignore
the indignant objections for doing so). Perhaps I'm the ignorant
one here, but I find the Bible's information from Genesis, Daniel,
Ezekiel, Matthew, to Revelation, all of it really speaks the same
language, but says it in a slightly different way, yet is all paints
the same picture. It makes sense to me, I would like to discuss
these things to see if someone has insight to build on the framework.
The last thing we should do is shrink away from Scripture, especially
on such an important topic, so important that Jesus bothered to
warn believers ahead of time. If we don't shrink from truth, then
gird up thy loins and start comparing Scripture with Scripture and
work out this mystery for yourself. john
Subject: If you miss the Ratpure From: Vic Eagle To: john hampshire Date Posted: Mon, Feb 14, 2000 at 15:53:42 (PST) Email Address:roost7@hotmail.com
Message:
john, I've already worked out that mystery for myself, I was only
asking rhetorically. If you really don't want to be Raptured before
the Tribulation, then maybe you won't. After all, God doesn't force
us to do things we don't want to do. In that case, I suggest you
read the article, 'What to do if you miss the Rapture' at the link
below. http://www.thekingiscoming.com/what_to_do_if_you_miss_the_rapture.html
In Jesus, Vic
Subject: Re: If you miss the Ratpure From: lurkerjr To: Vic Eagle Date Posted: Tues, Feb 15, 2000 at 08:44:40 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Vic - so you believe Hal Linsay, Grant Jefferies, etc...when they
speak this pretrib rapture stuff? How can anyone believe 'teachers'
who fail to grasp (acutally they reject it) even the most basic
teachings of our treasured faith? If they err regarding the perpescious
(sp?) nature of redemption/salvation as clearly taught for 2000
yrs (and still clear if we read the Bible with an 'open' Spirit-wrought
mind) ....how can they possibly understand the intricacies of apocalyptic
language...especially when they've clearly embraced all of the paradigmatic
trappings of our perverted age? They guys are simply goofy and ought
not be taken seriously. The Roman Catholics have their Mariology,
pergatory, etc...protestants have their goofy pretrib sensationalists
who couldn't exegete their way out of a wet paper sack. lj
Subject: Re: If you miss the Ratpure From: mebaser To: lurkerjr Date Posted: Tues, Feb 15, 2000 at 14:45:22 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Vic - so you believe Hal Linsay, Grant Jefferies, etc...when they
speak this pretrib rapture stuff? How can anyone believe 'teachers'
who fail to grasp (acutally they reject it) even the most basic
teachings of our treasured faith? If they err regarding the perpescious
(sp?) nature of redemption/salvation as clearly taught for 2000
yrs (and still clear if we read the Bible with an 'open' Spirit-wrought
mind) ....how can they possibly understand the intricacies of apocalyptic
language...especially when they've clearly embraced all of the paradigmatic
trappings of our perverted age? They guys are simply goofy and ought
not be taken seriously. The Roman Catholics have their Mariology,
pergatory, etc...protestants have their goofy pretrib sensationalists
who couldn't exegete their way out of a wet paper sack. lj
--- Dear lurkerjr, Have you ever heard of John F. MacArthur,
John Piper, Walt Kaiser Jr., Charles Lee Feinberg, Archibald Thomas
Robertson (known as A. T. Robertson), or Alva J. McClain? The list
goes on of many GODLY men who are premill and pretrib, who have
nailed down the essential elements of the faith including salvation
by grace through faith alone. There are whackos in every theological
camp, including yours you know. In Christ, mebaser
Subject: Re: If you miss the Ratpure From: lj To:
mebaser Date Posted: Tues, Feb 15, 2000 at 20:57:32 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
MEbaser - so you don't think Hal, VanImpe, JEfferies are 'sensationalistic'
and 'goofy'? Are you going to see that new movie about the second
coming being promoted within evangelical circles? Can't recall the
name but I don't think any of the 'great minds ' you listed would
pay to go see such dribble. That's just my opinion of course. YEs,
we all have wackos, but I was talking about those within the pretrib
camp. If you want, you can start a new thread on amil/postmil wackos.
LOL
Subject: Re: If you miss the Ratpure From: mebaser To: lj Date Posted: Wed, Feb 16, 2000 at 00:12:28 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
MEbaser - so you don't think Hal, VanImpe, JEfferies are 'sensationalistic'
and 'goofy'? Are you going to see that new movie about the second
coming being promoted within evangelical circles? Can't recall the
name but I don't think any of the 'great minds ' you listed would
pay to go see such dribble. That's just my opinion of course. YEs,
we all have wackos, but I was talking about those within the pretrib
camp. If you want, you can start a new thread on amil/postmil wackos.
LOL --- I guess you missed my point. When I said that we
all have wackos in our camps, I was referring to H. Lindsey, Van
Impe, etc... with respect to the premill/pretrib camp. I was trying
to make a point against your (if you are the same lurkerjr who I
responded to originally) overstatement that since Lindsey and company
are off base regarding the essentials, then thier eschatological
views MUST by default be even more off base. I was merely pointing
out that the premill/pretrib view is not at all off base merely
because certain unlearned men support it. According to your logic,
if there are men who do hold to sound theology regarding the essential
elements of the faith, then their eschatology may be worth considering
rather than flat out considering it a 'wacko's' view. mebaser
Subject: I'm not sure what you mean From: Vic Eagle To: lurkerjr Date Posted: Tues, Feb 15, 2000 at 13:03:35 (PST) Email Address:roost7@hotmail.com
Message:
lurkerjr, For the most part I consider Hal Lindsey, David Breese,
and Zola Levitt to be credible endtime/Rapture expositors for the
layman. Grant Jeffrey is a superfluous sensationalist. For a more
scholarly perspective, I suggest the works of Dr. John F. Walvoord.
Please be more specific when you say they fail to grasp the most
basic teachings of the Christian faith and have embraced 'paradigmatic
trappings of our perverted age.' I'm familiar with most of their
theology but have not found that to be the case. Are you insinuating
that they fail to grasp Calvinistic predestination? Hal Lindsey
apparently believes in it, according to one of his books (I can't
remember which), but otherwise I agree with him. In Jesus, Vic
Subject: Logic From: CyberFish To: All Date Posted: Wed, Feb 09, 2000 at 07:25:54 (PST) Email Address:Cyberfish8@aol.com
Message:
Hi everyone, Cyberfish is back on the net! My question is: Is logic
created by God, or is logic always been a part of God. I mean, if
God created logic, then before he created it, he would not have
been able to think logically, which seems illogical. ..CF
Subject: Re:Logic From: Joel H To: CyberFish Date Posted: Wed, Feb 09, 2000 at 13:18:05 (PST) Email Address:jh6@muw.edu
Message: God is a logical
Being by His eternal nature. You can see proof of this by the intelligent
design of creation (unless your heart is hardened by the sin nature)
Joel H
Subject: Husband From: Simone To: All Date Posted: Mon, Feb 07, 2000 at 09:07:50 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
I was encouraged by Vernon's story. Some of you know my background,
but right now my situation is, my husband doesn't go to church,
has his own beliefs about God, and has leftme free reign to train
the children as I desire in matters of religion. We are presently
attending a small OPC church and I am pleased with the progress
in my children's lives. Recently, however, because of some work
we are doing (I am omitting details), we were asked to all attend
church at least once a month as a family. He doesn't want to attend
the same church as I do (too small, bad schedule), so we will probably
attend a large church nearby. We tried it one week and I must confess
that I reacted quite poorly to the experience. Apart from the fact
that I now comparatively dislike the showmanship most churches seem
to have adopted, I was put off by the sleepy, annoyed reaction of
my older sons (who usually stay home with their father), and the
sarcastic attitude of my husband. I very unwisely voiced it to him,
saying that I believe that going to church on those terms was a
waste of time. I know that we don't really need to go to church
together if we don't think it's right, the whole idea was a suggestion
rather than an instruction, but what is right? On one hand I feel
it's useless, that my husband's heart will be moved by the Holy
Spirit only. On the other hand I am reminded of the Scripture, 'How
will they hear if there is no one preaching?' (my paraphrase, I
don't remember it exactly). Could it be that the Holy Spirit can
use ANY church and any preacher to speak to my husband and sons'
hearts, and that attending ANY church is better than staying home
and watching TV? Should I take it as an opportunity that the Lord
has given us for His own purposes, or scratch it off because of
the apparent uselessness and hypocrisy involved (going just because
we have to)? Thanks for the support. Love in Christ, Simone
Subject: Re: Husband From: john hampshire To: Simone Date Posted: Wed, Feb 09, 2000 at 04:19:06 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Simone, Since the spiritual head of the household is trying to be
spiritual, I would accept his attempt and follow along. Though it
be a false gospel church, perhaps after the service you could ask
him to teach you about the message (just to get him thinking), and
you could humbly offer your understanding (in a non-demanding sort
of way) or just keep asking leading questions. The wife is a help-mate
(or is that hell-mate). A husband usually will listen (understanding
is another story) to anything an honorable wife will say, IF (big
if), it is said firmly and with no emotional energy (no attitude,
no preaching, no faked humility). The first instance of pride puffing
up in the wife, and the husband will react to shut off the conversation.
Your husband is a test to you as much as you are a test to him.
Perhaps you can attend a later service at a different church and
still go with your husband and sons. It might be good to remember
that your husband and children are as much testing YOU as they are
looking for a church. How you react as a Christian says more than
denominations. You represent truth, Christ, religion... every preconceived
notion of Christianity is wrapped up in anyone claiming to 'believe',
it can be dumped on you to see if you are for real. If you are 'for
real' then all your dealings must be calm, humble, and softly spoken.
Your soft demeanor will win your husband's loyalty, respect, and
perhaps he will see Christ through you! As it should be. john
Subject: Re: Husband From: E.V. To: Simone Date Posted: Mon, Feb 07, 2000 at 17:51:57 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Hi Simone, I am in sort of the same situation with my wife. She
is a believer, but wanted to stay in an A/G 'seeker sensitive' type
church, where very little gospel was preached. Because God has appointed
men to be the spiritual leaders in the home, I made the tough decision
to switch churches in order to find a place where my family could
here the gospel preached. This has caused many tears and hurt feelings
between my wife and I, but I beleive that God will reward my obediance.
I think you should try and go along with your husband for quite
a while. You need to trust God, He is sovereign, He can use anything,
even poor theology and preaching to reach into someones heart. Trust
God, not man. Your husband has been given the role of spiritual
leader, now if he abrogates, you have no choice but to take the
role, but if he is trying to exercise leadership, you must be willing
to let him lead, at least to a point. Read through some of the NT
passages about men and women's roles, and how you are to behave
when you have an unbelieving husband. Treat him like Christ, submit
yourself to him, as unto the Lord. Who knows how things will end
up. What better witness to the love of Christ than your encouragement
and repsect of your husband. Remember, there is nothing you can
do to change your husbands heart, God must do that, and he doesn't
need perfect theology to do so, because if that were the case, nobody
would be saved. He acts in spite of man's efforts, and not because
of them for the most part. I will be praying for you. In Christ,
E.V.
Subject: Re: Husband From: george To: Simone Date Posted: Mon, Feb 07, 2000 at 16:26:45 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Simone, I attend a Presbyterian USA Church, where I am a minority
in respect to being a Calvinist (The Arminian theology has permiated
my denomination). Yet, I stay, because the Church is so accepting
of my two children with Down Syndrome and my wife and I have developed
some genuine relationships with some of the older members who care
about us. Though we seldom here the pure gospel, there still is
real believers who love the Lord there. I am teaching a Sunday school
class for adults, and all present understand that I adhere to Reform
theology in my teaching. So, maybe, even if the theology is not
so hot, you could still none the less, make a difference in this
church and your family (husband)could hear the preached Word, upon
a regenerate heart by the Holy Spirit. In His Grip, george
Subject: Re: Husband From: Simone To: george Date Posted: Wed, Feb 09, 2000 at 14:07:03 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Thanks to everyone for the wonderful counsel. I am digesting it
slowly and seeing how to apply it in my life. I have already experienced
first-hand the power of a silent Christian influence (whenever I
manage to attain it). As Paul said, 'without the Word'... God bless
you all and thanks for your prayers. Simone
Subject: News of Personal Portent! From: Anne To: All Date Posted: Sun, Feb 06, 2000 at 08:24:08 (PST) Email Address:anneivy@home.com
Message: First grandbaby
born at 5:41 this morning! Bethany Anne . . . . all fingers and
toes present and accounted for . . . . her mother (my daughter -
what a wierd thought!) is doing great. Son-in-law is passing out
cigars right and left (he is a traditionalist, as you can tell).
You know, if God bestows any more blessings on me, it's gonna start to be embarrassing.
;-> From a full and grateful heart, Anne
Subject: Re: News of Personal Portent! From: laz To: Anne Date Posted: Sun, Feb 06, 2000 at 19:38:53 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
anne - i have recently been hearing so much about being a grandparent...you
must be excited! blessings and congratulations to you and yours.
laz
Subject: Congratulation Anne and Daughter,NT From: george To: Anne Date Posted: Sun, Feb 06,
2000 at 19:10:21 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message:
Subject: Re: News of Personal Portent! From: Theo To: Anne Date Posted: Sun, Feb 06, 2000 at 11:46:24 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Anne, Congratulations on the birth of your first grandchild!! I
know that the first grandchild is always special, and we pray that
the Lord will bless the new baby and her parents, giving them all
good health. And may He grant wisdom and discernment to all of you
in bringing up this child. Thanks for sharing the great news, and
may God bless-- Theo
Subject: Wife From: Vernon To: Ann/ALL Date Posted: Sun, Feb 06, 2000 at 07:01:05 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Hello Ann, You took the time to share with me when I was hurting
and I would like to thank you and ALL who did so wit me. My wife
is home and we both are going to therapy. You where very right,
'My wife needed the breath of air.' She is still going through pains
of confussing thoughts. I guess you would expect this after 12 years
of a over demmanding sick mother. Just in one trip to the therapists
I have found that my wife does not want to end her marriage and
she is at the gate way of being clincial depressed. I also learned
that I need some changes in my own ways as well. Just wanted to
thank you for your advise and help In Christ Vern
Subject: Re: Amen! great to hear nt From: stan To: Vernon Date Posted: Sun, Feb 06, 2000 at 08:53:34 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Subject: Re: Wife From: Anne To: Vernon Date Posted: Sun, Feb 06, 2000 at 08:16:33 (PST) Email Address:anneivy@home.com
Message: Vern, what excellent
news! Well, that y'all are together again and working the problem
. . . . . not the clinical depression, the poor lamb! They have
gotten really good at treating that these days, God be praised,
so I expect we'll hear a positive update about that before too long.
About you needing to change a way or two of your own: don't we all!
;-> Most of us are too flat stubborn to admit it, however. I'm
please, pleased, pleased to hear that things are looking up for you two! Thank
you for keeping us posted. Anne
Subject: Re: Wife From: clark To: Vernon Date Posted: Sun, Feb 06, 2000 at 08:07:44 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Vernon-- So glad things are looking up for you and your wife. Maybe
you could share with us some of the ways you are dealing with this
situation, also. It could be helpful down the road for another who
has found themselves in this difficult situation. (Even some of
the mistakes, so that another could see and avoid some. I know about
the mistakes because I could go into great detail of all they way
I would have handled it better.)
Subject: Re: Wife From: Vern To: clark Date Posted: Sun, Feb 06, 2000 at 17:17:47 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Hello Clark, I will share this with you.... I was shown my fait
by the Lord. I failed. I was jumping like a fish out of water. I
ask God to forgive me in my failure. Even as I failed God had all
secure in hand and assured me of His love. Clark, what did I do,
I cried and prayed, cried and prayed for God to speak to me and
He did..... Ps 37:1-7. I also called for as many Christians to pray
for my wife and me. I still ask that you all keep praying that God
will defeat this thing and bring my wife fully back to me. Plus
I met with my pastor and had him involved in this matter Also, I
had my children to call my wife in TN. I had her friend to call
her. Not to talk in my behalf, but to just talk to her about what
ever she wanted to talk about. Then when she returned I had a Christian
councilor already to go to talk with us. We still have a long ways
to go,but I trust God in this and He has told me to love my wife
as He loved the church. This is hard, but in His strength I will
do it. Clark, I am not sure in how this will end, but I am sure
it will end just as God wants it to be. My wife right now is very
distant and empty toward me. This is hard to face but I love her
and I will go the mile and half if it will retool my marriage. It
hurts, but God is with me and I must wait upon Him. My wife during
our council openly said she did not want for us to divorce but told
a friend that she loved me for all the good things I have done for
her in life by standing with her but the love she had was not like
a wife. I can only hope God will turn this all around for His glory
and to my wife and I's good. For sure, in a few weeks the truth
will be know. I will know if she is my wife or by her decesion has
made herself not be my wife. In any case I will love her even as
this decesion is being made. I must until she makes the last call.
Subject: Re: Wife From: clark To: Vern Date Posted: Mon, Feb 07, 2000 at 05:45:25 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Vernon-- Thank you for sharing. And again I will say that being
on your wife's end of the situation, I somewhat know the difficulties
she is going through. I was lucky in that my time ended with death,
so that I was actually released from my duty. It takes time but
after 7 years I can say time does heal the wounds and the hurts.
Plus, the experience taught me so many great lessons. I haven't
looked at an older person the same. Before an older person was just
that someone old. Now, I have great compassion for the elders. I
also have an awareness of how I want to be when I get to that stage
of my life. Even though it was the worse time in my life it was
the time in which I learned a great many lessons. Keep up the good
work and your faith that God will bring you and your wife through.
It does get better with time. And if your wife has a hard time visiting
her mother, encourage short visits, it will lessen her guilt of
abandoning her mother. I had 6 months where my mother-in-law was
in a nursing home, even though I dreaded it I visited two or three
times a week (always with the kids). It became easier the more I
visited. Don't make her go along until she feels she can handle
it. While it is hard it will lessen the feeling of abandoning her
mother. (Hopefully, she lives close enough to do this, otherwise
telephone her on a regular basis). I realize I don't know your wife,
I am just giving you a suggestion based on what I did to cope. It
helped me, so I am passing it along. clark
Subject: Re: Wife From: Vernon To: clark Date Posted: Mon, Feb 07, 2000 at 06:50:05 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Hello Thank you for the kind advise. It is love like yours that
truly helps people like me who have never been there. YES, it is
hard for me, but even worse for my wife. She is also hurting and
in a stage of acute depression. She is so mixed up right now that
she one minute wants to run out and the next be her self. She is
also going through the change of life.She going through a very rough
time. Thank You, Vernon
Subject: Reformed Confessions Update From: Pilgrim To: All Date Posted: Sat, Feb 05, 2000 at 20:14:44 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
As some of you know, The Highway
web site offers a free download of 'Refcon2'. This is a compilation
of the historic Evangelical Creeds and Reformed Confessions, designed
as a help file. This program allows not only a person to have a
full copy of all the documents included but also to do a search
for key words and phrases. I have personally enjoyed using this
program and value it as a worthwhile resource. The creator of this
program has just issued Version 3 for distribution. You may download
your copy here: Reformed Confessions 3. If this link doesn't work for you, just go to the home
page and scroll down until you see the "Reformed Confessions
Download" and click on the link there. The following is a short
introduction by Mr. Bossman:
'Version 3.0 contains
all the documents version 2.0 had, plus the Savoy Declaration,
London Confession of Baptist Faith, Thirty-nine Articles of
Religion, Lausanne Covenant, Manila Manifesto, and the Chicago
Statement on Biblical Inerrancy. As before, it is freeware,
so you can freely distribute it to friends, family, etc. I hope
you enjoy it and find it useful.'
In His Precious Blood, Pilgrim
Subject: Pre-trib rapture won't fly From: john hampshire To: All Date Posted: Fri, Feb 04, 2000 at 19:28:42 (PST) Email Address:hampshij@ppp.kornet.net
Message:
Some replies to the pre-trib scriptures references, if you are interested....
I suppose this is not going to convince you or anyone of their belief
in 2 end-time raptures, but let’s discuss it anyway, just for grins.
You said of Matthew 24:31: >>>>But the Tribulation and
Rapture mentioned in verses 38,40,41,42-51 can not describe the
same events described in verses 29-31, since they come as a surprise
upon a world going on with normal day-to-day activities. This would
be impossible if Tribulation had already begun. First off, the idea
that the nature of the tribulation will be some physical catastrophe
that signals the end is unwarranted. Much of Mat 24, especially
up to Vs 7 is not the tribulation, but things that precede it 'but
all these things are the beginning of birth pangs'. Too much talk
has been made of disasters that are supposed to happen during the
tribulation, but that is not the nature of the tribulation. The
tribulation is described after these birth pangs as: 'many will
fall away', 'hate one another', 'false prophets will arise', 'mislead
many', 'gospel is preached as a witness', 'false Christ’s and false
prophets arise', 'signs and wonders to mislead'. Behold I have told
you in advance, says Jesus. Told of what? Y2K, computer chip implants,
ozone holes, global warming, one world government??? NO, Jesus told
you the nature of the tribulation period! It is a time of apostasy,
of hatred toward truth, of hatred of the elect, of signs and wonders,
of false prophets. Why would the elect be 'hated by all nations
on account of My name', why?, because the elect are ambassadors
of Christ, they bring the truth. Yet the world hates the truth,
they don’t want a true gospel, they have their false gospels and
their false prophets with a manifestation of signs and wonders.
OK, so can we have the church overrun with false gospels that is
a world-wide deception by Satan so that it is like 'the abomination
of desolation (Satan) is standing in the holy place', that is Satan
rules the churches. Why would not Christ’s return in judgment completely
surprise the wicked? It is exactly what we would expect, they are
unaware of the truth, they believe in 'peace and safety', they think
they are secure in their salvation, but they are not![just as the
people in Noah’s day thought they were beyond God’s wrath]. By the
way, this is a good time to understand exactly what Noah’s flood
was foreshadowing. It was not a ‘rapture’ of Noah’s family out of
a tribulation. It was God’s wrath poured out on mankind, it was
death and destruction for all but God’s elect, it foreshadowed the
safety that is in Christ, and the horror that awaits those who are
outside the ark of safety. It foreshadowed Judgment Day, for the
next destruction will not be by water but by fire!! [i.e. the lake
of fire]. So forget that reference to Noah as speaking of a rapture
type event, it is speaking of Judgment Day, if there be any typification.
You said>>>> So Matthew 24:1-35 primarily address Israel
during the Tribulation, and verses 32 ff. primarily address Christians
living just before the Tribulation. Where do we get that Jesus was
talking about things concerning the Nation of Israel? Jesus was
asked a question '…what will be the sign of Your coming, and the
end of the age?', it says nothing about Israel. You said>>>>>There
are 2 different raptures described in Matthew 24, one for Christians
before the Tribulation (the Rapture, verse 40-41), and the other
for those who have become Christians during the Tribulation (verse
31). How many floods were there if you like to think the flood is
typifying the rapture, just one [actually just one Judgment Day
is being taught]. But anyway, both descriptions of Vs 31 and Vs
40 are speaking of the same event. Notice Vs29, it is IMMEDIATELY
after the tribulation of those days (spoken of earlier as a falling
away of many and a great deception) that the universe is crumbling,
the powers of heaven are shaken and Christ appears on the clouds
of the sky with power and great glory. What next? He sends forth
His messengers to gather the elect. What does Vs 40 say, 'so shall
the coming of the Son of Man be', talking again about His coming
that 'two men in the field one will be taken, and one will be left'.
This reference is simply more information about the gathering of
the elect from the four winds [universality]. I suppose you can
get a third rapture from Vs 45 onward where we hear of the sensible
slave who is doing good when his master comes, a reference to yet
another rapture, no doubt (hehe). But seriously, it is all the same
event, the good slave, the worker taken, the gathering of the elect:
all the same rapture. The worker left behind, the slave cut to pieces
and put in a place with hypocrites with weeping and gnashing (Vs
51), all the same event for the wicked. Just one coming of Christ,
one rapture, one judgment day, and one assignment to the lake of
fire. You said, >>>>Luke 12:35-40 says it will be 'good,'
not bad, for those servants watching and ready when their master
returns, and that he'll even serve them at the table. Verses 39-40
mirror those statements in 1 Thessalonians 5 about Jesus' coming
and the Rapture. This, of course, is the same parable used in part
in Mat 24 concerning the good slave and the wicked slave. The good
slave is watching for his Master’s return and is ready. The wicked
slave is consumed with self and is shocked when the Master returns.
Remember, the believer is never said to be shocked by the return
of the Master, the Son of Man, only the wicked. You said>>>>Again,
Luke 17:26-37 compares the Rapture with Noah's escape in the ark,
and Lot's evacuation from Sodom. Hope not to bore you, but this
is not describing the rapture, it is describing JUDGMENT DAY. Vs
37 speaks of the vultures gathered, it is because it is the language
of Judgment Day. As Mat 24:28 says, 'wherever the corpse is, there
the vultures will gather', same imagery used in Rev 19 17-21 to
describe the destruction of the beast, the false prophet and the
wicked [have the beast’s mark]. Just to be sure, Rev 20:10 describes
the same war again, with Satan going in to the lake of fire, and
a great white thrown judgment. This is why the vultures are gathered,
it is Judgment Day, one continuous event from the gathering of the
elect to the throwing of the wicked into the lake of fire, one continuous
chain of events. >>>>>>Luke 21:36 says that we
can escape all the Tribulation judgments. Again, this is not an
‘escape’ by rapture. It is speaking of 'having strength', which
should be 'accounted worthy' to escape God’s wrath, that is, pray
that you are indeed saved, for that is the only way you can 'stand
before the Son of Man' and be worthy. If you are not saved, then
that day will fall upon you like 'a sudden trap', as we saw this
applies for the wicked only, not the believer. >>>>>>Isaiah
13:10-12: 'The day of the Lord' here describes punishment of humanity
in a way that has never been fulfilled. Your supposed never fulfilled
prophecy? This verse in Isaiah says first 'Behold, the day of the
Lord is coming' (vs 9), what does that tell you? It is not some
horrible tribulation punishment, 'I will punish the world for its
evil, and the wicked for their iniquity' (vs 11), what is that but
Judgment Day! This speaks of the 'fury of the Lord of Hosts in the
day of His burning anger', it is imagery of Judgment Day not the
tribulation period. If you still doubt, vs 13 says 'Therefore I
will make the heavens tremble, and the earth will be shaken from
its place'. Read Mat 29 again, same event 'the powers of the heavens
will be shaken', all this of course occurs IMMEDIATELY AFTER the
tribulation of those days, so again, this cannot also be speaking
in Isaiah of the tribulation period. >>>>>>>>>>>.You
said, Ezekiel 30:3-5: This passage about 'the day of the Lord' (God's
wrath) which is simultaneously inflicted upon Ethiopia, Put, Lud,
all Arabia, Libya, and 'the people of the land that is in league.'
This has never happened in known history. I haven’t the energy to
try and explain how God uses figurative language and spiritual imagery.
But, what ever, just for fun, Vs 2-3 of Ezekiel 30 says 'Wail alas
for the Day!, For the Day is near, Even the Day of the Lord is near,
it will be a day of clouds, a time of doom for the nations'. This
is speaking of Judgment Day and using historical references to do
it. If that doesn’t make sense then I cannot do more than this.
'And a sword will come upon Egypt' (vs 4), remember in Rev 1:7,
'Behold, He is coming with the clouds, and every eye shall see Him…and
all the tribes of the earth shall mourn over Him'. Same imagery
used by God in Ezekiel. Remember Rev 1:16 speaking of Christ, 'He
held seven stars, and out of His mouth came a sharp two-edged sword,
and Rev 19:15 'from His mouth comes a sharp sword, so that with
it He may smite the nations' This is language of Judgment Day. Egypt
is a picture of an evil nation, an evil people who will be subject
to God’s wrath. It is spiritual imagery. That is how God wrote the
Bible. >>>>>>>>Daniel 9:27: No such 7-year
covenant has yet been confirmed with Israel in history. It is a
shame that you cannot see how far off you really are. It was Christ
who made a firm covenant with the many, His elect, it was Christ’s
death 'the Messiah will be cut off' on the cross as Vs 26 says,
it a covenant with Himself to redeem His elect. Christ is the sacrifice
that stops the other sacrifices and grain offerings of Vs 27. That
is why there are 70 7’s to 'finish the transgression, to make an
end of sin, to make atonement for iniquity, to bring in everlasting
righteousness…' of Vs 24, that was Christ’s duty. >>>>>>>>>>>>Joel
3:1-3: No such battle in the valley of Jehoshaphat has ever occurred.
Again, this is spiritual truths and you are looking for earthly
things. This is speaking of Christ’s death upon the cross 'when
I redeem the fortunes of Judah and Jerusalem' [types of all God’s
chosen]. 'I will gather all the nations, and bring them down to
the valley of Jeoshaphat'. The believers are gathered to be figuratively
with Christ as He goes to the valley of Jeoshaphat. Jehoshaphat
had a tremendous victory over his enemy by God’s power, a picture
of Christ getting victory of Satan at the cross. It was at the cross
that Christ 'enter into judgment with them there, on behalf of My
people and My inheritance, Israel'. Remember, all Israel is not
of Israel, it is speaking of the Israel of God composed of all God’s
elect here. >>>>>>>>Revelation 3:10 'Because
you have kept the word of My perseverance, I also will keep you
from the hour of testing, that hour which is about to come upon
the whole world, to test those who dwell on the earth. (NASB) Lastly,
for what it is worth, Rev 3:10 speaks of the 'hour of testing',
that is, again, not the tribulation period. The testing in view
is to see if the wicked, as they stand for judgment, are worthy
[they are not]. The trial is a great judgment of God in which the
wicked are on trial for their many offenses toward God. In 2 Cor
5:10 we have that Judgment Seat that also refers to the judgment
seat that Christ endured under Pilate. It is a judgment to discern
guilt as in Mat 27:19, 'And while he [Pilate] was sitting on the
judgment seat', speaking of Pilate deciding Jesus’ guilt. The very
same will occur on Judgment Day, God will sit as Judge of the wicked.
Yet in Rev 3:10 we find that it is Christ who will 'keep you from
the hour of testing', there is no judgment day trial for those who
already were tried and punished with Christ on the cross. Rev 3:10
is not speaking about a rapture from tribulation. Tribulation is
a different word than trial or testing in the Greek, as used here.
There is one trial, with Christ upon the cross, or later without
Him on your own. If that doesn’t change anyone’s mind, at least
you briefly can see that those who hold to pre-trib rapture(s) have
many problems that need to be resolved [well it is all a problem
with scripture really, you can’t get a pre-trib rapture out of it].
If you read the entire post then at least you 'have endured to the
end'. john
Subject: The Rapture will levitate cooler than David Blaine From: Vic Eagle
To: john
hampshire Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 10, 2000 at 15:34:58 (PST) Email Address:roost7@hotmail.com
Message:
john, You said, 'the idea that the nature of the tribulation will
be some physical catastrophe that signals the end is unwarranted.'
That doesn't line up with the events in Matthew 24:15-22, which
immediately precede the rapture event in 24:31. Of course, there's
no reason why this can't also refer to the destruction of Jerusalem
in A.D. 70 as well as the Tribulation. The Noah's Ark analogy isn't
just about Judgment Day. It's a message of hope for believers. Noah
was a believer. This analogy also appears in Matthew 24:37-39 and
in a reinforcing context (verses 40-44) which even more clearly
makes it a message of hope for believers. If you read the context
of Matthew 24:3 a little more carefully (verse 2), you can see that
Jesus was actually asked a series of 3 questions, the first of which
was about when the Temple would be destroyed. This was of special
concern to the Nation of Israel, no doubt. Your contention about
Luke 21:36 would seem to be more with the translators of the Bible,
not me. They chose the word 'escape.' Nevertheless, it's clear that
believers won't have to endure any of it. Your interpretation of
Isaiah 13:10-12 doesn't make much sense because verse 12 refers
to God making mortal
man scarce. I don't know what you had in mind but there will be
no mortal men left on earth on Judgment Day. It would be peculiar
to think Ezekiel 30:3-5 could not refer to an extended time period
of Tribulation. After all, this passage and its context seems to
refer to war ('sword'), and in light of the extended time of wars
described in Matthew 24, Revelation, etc. as occurring during the
Tribulation, I don't see why it must refer to a single Judgment
Day. You must be joking. No specific, 7-year covenant as mentioned
in Daniel 9:27 has ever been confirmed with Israel in history. Daniel
9:26 helps clarify that the 7-year covenant will be confirmed by
an evil ruler. You utterly failed to explain why Joel 3:1-3 could
not have a literal meaning as well. 'Testing' is a strange choice
of words to use for 'judgment' in Revelation 3:10. After all, Revelation
7:9 ff. is clear that there will be Christians who will face persecution
and martyrdom during this period, as Christians today also undergo
such periods of testing. The final judgment does not occur until
the very end of the book. In Jesus, Vic
Subject: Re: The Rapture will levitate cooler than David Blaine
From: jh
To: Vic
Eagle Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 10, 2000 at 15:53:14 (PST) Email Address:It doesn't say persecution...
Message: Vic said: 'After all, Revelation 7:9 ff. is clear
that there will be Christians who will face persecution and martyrdom
during this period' Vic, that verse doesn't say anything about persecution.
Rev. 7:9 'After this I beheld, and, lo, a great multitude, which
no man could number, of all nations, and kindreds, and people, and
tongues, stood before the throne, and before the Lamb, clothed with
white robes, and palms in their hands' These are just the saints
in heaven. 144,000 is a symbolic number for all the saints. jh
Subject: I said Revelation 7:9 ff. From: Vic Eagle To: jh Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 10, 2000 at 16:10:01 (PST) Email Address:roost7@hotmail.com
Message:
jh, Revelation 7:13 And one of the elders
answered, saying to me, 'These who are clothed in the white robes,
who are they, and from where have they come?' Revelation 7:14 And
I said to him, 'My lord, you know.' And he said to me,'These are
the ones who come out of the great tribulation, and they have washed
their robes and made them white in the blood of the Lamb. (NASB) Persecution goes hand in hand with
martyrdom. In Jesus, Vic
Subject: Re: Seems to fly well considering all the
flack you send up :-) NT From: stan To: john hampshire Date Posted:
Sat, Feb 05, 2000 at 19:27:57 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message:
Subject: It doesn't say on earth... From: jh To:
stan Date Posted:
Tues, Feb 08, 2000 at 12:57:23 (PST) Email
Address:Not Provided
Message: I don't believe
that the 1000 years of Rev. 20 is literal. I think it is just symbolic
for the full and complete set of time that the New Testament era
will last. Nowhere in Rev. 20 does it say that the dead saints reigned
on earth. It doesn't say earth. This seems to be located in heaven.
The only thing seen are the 'souls' of the saints who died. The
bodies were not seen. 'I saw the souls of them that were beheaded
for the witness of Jesus' Rev. 20:4 'and they lived and reigned
with Christ a thousand years' Rev. 20:4 The first resurrection is
the moment we are born again. And when the saints die, they immediately
go to be with Christ. 'We are confident, I say, and willing rather
to be absent from the body, and to be present with the Lord.' 2
Corinthians 5:8 And they reign with Him in heaven for the set amount
of time (symbolically 1000 years) until Christ comes to destroy
the earth and the universe. 2 Peter 3:10-13 So you see, when the
saints die, they go to be with Christ. They can never be threatened
or troubled by satan or by sin or by anything else again. That is
very optimistic. Then after the last elect person is saved, Christ
comes and it's judgment day. The saints who reign with Christ in
heaven are united with in the air with the saints who are still
alive on earth at which time they both receive their new spiritual
and glorified bodies. The lost are sent to hell, the earth is destroyed,
and the saints enjoy everlasting life with Christ in sinless bliss.
Joe
Subject: Re: It doesn't say on earth... From: scott lewis To: jh Date Posted: Wed, Feb 09, 2000 at 08:01:02 (PST) Email Address:navyrdc1@megsinet.net
Message:
Vs 7 tells us where the saints are (EARTH, and from the previous
verses we know that the saints are with Christ. 7And when the thousand
years are expired, Satan shall be loosed out of his prison, 8And
shall go out to deceive the nations which are in the four quarters
of the EARTH, Gog and Magog, to gather them together to BATTLE:
the number of whom is as the sand of the sea. 9And they went up
on the breadth of the EARTH, and compassed the CAMP of the SAINTS
about, and the beloved city: and FIRE CAME DOWN from God out of
HEAVEN, and devoured them. The King James Version, (Cambridge: Cambridge)
1769. 'I don't believe that the 1000 years of Rev. 20 is literal.
I think it is just symbolic for the full and complete set of time
that the New Testament era will last.' I've read this comment many
different times and was wondering where in the Bible it describes
1000 years as a symbol for the New Testament era?
Subject: Re: It doesn't say on earth... From: jh To:
scott lewis Date Posted: Wed, Feb 09, 2000 at 12:29:29 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Scott, Yes, verse 7 says earth because Christ has not returned yet.
The earth has not yet been destroyed. The saints who are dead (separated
from their bodies) live and reign with Christ but they are not on
earth. The 1000 years cannot be literal because when Christ comes
again, the whole earth and the universe will be destroyed (according
to 2 Peter chapter 3 ). And the war is spiritual. Satan is already
loosed and tens of thousands are deceived right now in works religion
churches. Satan is worshipped in many churches because they think
they are saved by doctrines of devils. The book of Revelation is
the most syblolic and most difficult part of the bible to understand
- that's for sure. jh
Subject: Re: It doesn't say on earth... From: Pilgrim To: jh Date Posted: Wed, Feb 09, 2000 at 19:53:54 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Amen jh, In addition, if we were, for the sake of argument, take
the 1000 years as LITERAL, then we must also by way of consistency,
also understand that Satan was bound with a LITERAL key, LITERAL
chain, and thrown into a LITERAL 'bottomless pit', LITERAL seal,
etc. I don't think I want to go there... hahaha! In His Precious
Blood, Pilgrim
Subject: I agree again (it's uncanny!) [nt] From: john hampshire To: jh Date Posted: Wed, Feb 09, 2000 at 00:07:08 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
.
Subject: Sin Coming from Heart From: laz To: All Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 03, 2000 at 21:15:40 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Not to amuse Gene, but if the Bible says that sin comes from the
heart...how could Jesus Christ have sinned? Was not His heart untainted
by the fall? Unless it means that sin manifests itself first from
the heart...and not that it's metaphysically resident there just
waiting to come out. Any thoughts? laz
Subject: Re: Sin Coming from Heart From: Gene To: laz Date Posted: Fri, Feb 04, 2000 at 03:04:22 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
laz, I have no clue as to why this would amuse me! :) The heart
is the 'seat of the emotions' (in reality it is where the blood
is pumped through out the body), used in a figurative sense, so
that is why the Bible says it.
Subject: From SLewis' post From: Christopher To: All Date Posted: Wed, Feb 02, 2000 at 19:29:21 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: >>>> 4. The will of Christ. Christ could
only have one will 'to do the will of the father'. Taken from 'the
moody handbook of theology pg.237-238 for more buy the book :) <<<<
I was wondering this issue of the will(s) of Christ in Reformed
theology. When this terms is used, can anyone tell me the relation
to the monophysite (or monothelite, I forget which) heresy which
said that Christ has only one will. If, in Christ, there are two
natures united, without confusion, in one person, does this not
also apply to the will? Thanks, Christopher PS--not interested (or
able) to get into any debate, just interested to know the position.
Subject: Re: From SLewis' post From: Pilgrim To: Christopher Date Posted: Wed, Feb 02, 2000 at 23:43:07 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Christopher, See my comments below in the ongoing discussion, in
a reply to Scott Lewis. Pilgrim
Subject: Found it, thanks much. NT From: Christopher To: Pilgrim Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 03, 2000 at 07:47:35 (PST) Email Address:na
Message:
Subject: Timing of the Rapture From: Brother Bret To: All Date Posted: Tues, Feb 01, 2000 at 16:28:49 (PST) Email Address:Lovitz5@aol.com
Message: Hello Everyone:
I know there is a thread below on Eschatology, but I wanted to bring
this up and start over if you don't mind. :^ ) I know that most
of you on here are either a-mill or post-mill regarding end times.
In about 2 weeks, I will be at 1Thes. 4:13-18 where Paul's mentions
the 'rapturo'(caught up/snatching away). I plan on doing a more
indepth study and look that the Rapture/Day of the Lord. I hope
to do a more of a comparative study of Matt.24 on these things too.
One of my hangups is about the tribulation period being literal.
The 70 heptaphs of Daniel, Jacobs trouble, and the mention of 42
months and 1260 days in Revelation. Our Lord did say that no man
knows the day or the hour. And of course Paul and Peter both mentioned
it being as 'a thief in the night.' Yet Matt. 24 doesn't mention
some things that pre-tribs take for granted. Would appreciate the
input of some of you here, on whatever side you are on. Brother
Mebaser, hope you have time to get involved too. Same with you Pilgrim,
Laz, John, Prestor John, Five Sola, Theo and others :^ ). Value
your insights and studies..................Brother Bret
Subject: Re: Timing of the Rapture From: Ian Achrist To: Brother Bret Date Posted: Sun, Feb 06, 2000 at 20:53:06 (PST) Email Address:ianachrist@juno.com
Message:
Brother Bret-- take a very close and hard look at Hebrew eschatology.
This is the foundation of what John, Paul and Peter knew and what
Jesus built upon in their lives. What you will find is that a great
many things pre-tribbers look for (if not all but His final return)
happened before Jesus came the first time. The day of the Lord to
the faithful 2000 years ago meant the day God would defeat the ultimate
enemy of His people. That enemy was not Rome, or Egypt or Babylon
but was, is and always will be sin-- and He did defeat it -- at
Calvary. The book of Revelation deals less with the future and more
with hope for right now than any other book in the bible-- its message
is a simple we have won. In writing to the Thessolonicans, Paul
was dealing with a church and a people who were giving up their
hope in the face of daily life(sounds familar doesnt it). His purpose
was to restore their faith and hope in the victory Christ had already
accomplished by reminding them that this life too shall pass into
an eternity spent in His presence!! Ian
Subject: Re: Timing of the Rapture From: scott lewis To: Ian Achrist Date Posted: Sun, Feb 06, 2000 at 23:19:37 (PST) Email Address:navyrdc1@megsinet.net
Message:
Sorry had to reply, The day of the Lord to the faithful 2000 years
ago meant the day God would defeat the ultimate enemy of His people.
That enemy was not Rome, or Egypt or Babylon but was, is and always
will be sin-- and He did defeat it -- at Calvary. Then can you explain
2 Peter 3:10 If it has already past? For that matter why did Paul
warn the churchs to be prepared for the Day of the Lord, if it had
already had happened? scott
Subject: Re: Timing of the Rapture From: Prestor John To: Brother Bret Date Posted: Tues, Feb 01, 2000 at 20:02:30 (PST) Email Address:pdnelson@icehouse.net
Message:
Hello Everyone: I know there is a thread below on Eschatology, but
I wanted to bring this up and start over if you don't mind. :^ )
I know that most of you on here are either a-mill or post-mill regarding
end times. In about 2 weeks, I will be at 1Thes. 4:13-18 where Paul's
mentions the 'rapturo'(caught up/snatching away). I plan on doing
a more indepth study and look that the Rapture/Day of the Lord.
I hope to do a more of a comparative study of Matt.24 on these things
too. One of my hangups is about the tribulation period being literal.
The 70 heptaphs of Daniel, Jacobs trouble, and the mention of 42
months and 1260 days in Revelation. Our Lord did say that no man
knows the day or the hour. And of course Paul and Peter both mentioned
it being as 'a thief in the night.' Yet Matt. 24 doesn't mention
some things that pre-tribs take for granted. Would appreciate the
input of some of you here, on whatever side you are on. Brother
Mebaser, hope you have time to get involved too. Same with you Pilgrim,
Laz, John, Prestor John, Five Sola, Theo and others :^ ). Value
your insights and studies..................Brother Bret ---
Well BB I don't mind starting a fire fight if you don't! Let's keep
in mind this: presuppositions. We all have our different presuppositions
in regards to eschatology. What would be good would be to show the
different views and why they believe what they believe. And from
that talk about what we see as the correct interpretation of 1Thes.
4:13-18. Prestor John.
Subject: Re: Timing of the Rapture From: Brother Bret To: Prestor John Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 03, 2000 at 22:32:28 (PST) Email Address:Lovitz5@aol.com
Message: Well BB I don't
mind starting a fire fight if you don't! Let's keep in mind this:
presuppositions. We all have our different presuppositions in regards
to eschatology. What would be good would be to show the different
views and why they believe what they believe. And from that talk
about what we see as the correct interpretation of 1Thes. 4:13-18.
Hello PJ: I know all to well, what you mean by presuppositions.
That's why I was an Arminian for too long :^ ). I agree that there
is no way we can get a 'pre-trib' Rapture out of the 1Th.4:13-18
passage. A Rapture yes. The timing, no! Also, in the 2Th.2 passage
we should be careful about insisting that the Restainer being taken
out of the way is the Christians because we are all indwelt by the
precious holy Spirit. I also agree with what John H shared regarding
the 'thief in the night' references. I would like to focus in the
Tribulation Period itself. Is it literal? Is it for 7 years? Is
the 'Great Tribulation' 3 1/2 years? Is the Great Tribulation also
known as 'Jacob's Trouble?' When does Christ mean when He says 'no
man knows the day or the hour when the Son of man cometh?' Is he
referring to the general time period? Or literally the specific
day and hour, therefore saying we can know the month and the week?
Without a literal Tribulation Period, there can be second coming
of Christ at an unknown time. But if there is a literal Tribulation
Period, wouldn't we be able to figure out the time of His return?
And is the word of God describing the same thing when talking of
'meeting Him in the air' or receiving us unto Himself' compared
against His return to earth to do defeat the Anti-Christ and set
up His Kingdom? Look forward to the replies. Getting late,need to
get to sleep. Brother Bret
Subject: Fires :) From: scott lewis To: Prestor John Date Posted: Tues, Feb 01, 2000 at 21:26:18 (PST) Email Address:navyrdc1@megsinet.net
Message:
Hi Prestor John, Since you started the fire allow me to add a little
fuel :) 1.maintaining a consistently literal method of interptation
2.maintaining a distinction between Israel and the church There
a couple presuppositions for you :) scott FIRE FIRE WE HAVE A CLASS
ALPHA FIRE ON THE MESSAGE BOARD, THIS IS NOT A DRILL. ALL HANDS
MAN YOUR BATTLE STATIONS. sorry just the navy in me coming out,
anytime someone says fire it makes us sailors jumpy :) not far to
run on a ship on fire.
Subject: Re: Fires :) From: Prestor John To: scott lewis Date Posted: Wed, Feb 02, 2000 at 18:17:26 (PST) Email Address:pdnelson@icehouse.net
Message:
Hi Prestor John, Since you started the fire allow me to add a little
fuel :) 1.maintaining a consistently literal method of interptation
2.maintaining a distinction between Israel and the church There
a couple presuppositions for you :) scott FIRE FIRE WE HAVE A CLASS
ALPHA FIRE ON THE MESSAGE BOARD, THIS IS NOT A DRILL. ALL HANDS
MAN YOUR BATTLE STATIONS. sorry just the navy in me coming out,
anytime someone says fire it makes us sailors jumpy :) not far to
run on a ship on fire. --- Well beam me up Scotty: Okay
we've seen John Hampshire's interpretation of the events that he
listed. Now how about you apply that dispensational hermenuetic
to those passages. And after you do that I will have another request
for you. But no peeking. First things first. Prestor John Armchair
Theologian, Curmudgeon, and Esperantist Sola Scriptura, Sola Fide,
Sola Gratia, Solus Christus Servabo Fidem
Subject: Here you go John From: scott lewis To: Prestor John Date Posted: Mon, Feb 07, 2000 at 09:35:55 (PST) Email Address:navyrdc1@megsinet.net
Message:
A verse-by-verse look at 1 Thessalonians 4:13-18 13'But I would
not have you to be ignorant, brethren, concerning them which are
asleep, that ye sorrow not, even as others which have no hope.'
'...which are asleep...' The word 'asleep' in Greek is 'koimao.'
In the New Testament this always refers to the Body that is asleep
and not to the soul. It means 'to put to sleep, pass or reflex,
to slumber, to decrease, be a fall, a fall on, sleep be dead.' The
Apostle Paul was giving understanding to the Thessalonians about
their dead loved ones. He wanted them to know that only their bodies
were asleep or decease, but not their souls or spirits. So there
was no need to be sorrowful. He went on to explain: '...which have
no hope...' In the latter part of this verse, Paul explained that
the Church need not sorrow as the world does when it loses a loved
one. The Church has a hope of seeing their dead loved ones again.
This hope is locked in the resurrection of the Just. (Note John
5:28, 29; Acts 24:15; Daniel 12:2.) 14, 'For if we believe that
Jesus died and rose again, even so them also which sleep in Jesus
will God bring with him.' The condition of those who are Raptured
will be on the basis they believe in the death and resurrection
of Jesus Christ. The scripture teaches that those who believe are
saved. (Romans 10:8-11.) For those who have died in Jesus, their
spirits and souls will, at the time of the Rapture, be brought with
Him. Their spirits and souls will be reunited with their physical
resurrected bodies and at that time their bodies will be changed
from corruptible to incorruptible bodies. (I Corinthians 15:50-57.)
Paul went on to explain: 15, 'For this we say unto you by the word
of the Lord, that we which are alive and remain unto the coming
of the Lord shall not prevent them which are asleep.' '...we say
unto you by the Word of the Lord...' The message of the Rapture
was given to Apostle Paul by the Word of the Lord. This doctrine
was a mystery for the Church from God. (I Corinthians 15:51.) J.
Dwight Pentcost sums up the mystery like this: 'The Church and Israel
are two distinct groups with whom God has a divine plan. The Church
is a mystery unrevealed in the Old Testament. This present mystery
age intervenes within the program of God for Israel because of Israel's
rejection of the Messiah at His first advent. This mystery program
must be completed before God can resume His program with Israel
and bring it to completion...' '...we which are alive and remain
unto the coming of the Lord...' Here we have another condition given
to those who are alive at the time of the Rapture. Those who remain
are those who are still remaining in Christ and have kept their
faith. These will be caught up to meet Jesus. Our Lord is coming
back for a prepared people; that is, only for those who are ready.
Those who have back-slid will not be raptured. Those who are separated
from sin will be raptured. Paul gave the warning in his letter to
the Corinthians. (IICorinthians 6:14-18.) 17, 'Wherefore come out
from among them, and be ye separate, saith the Lord, and touch not
the unclean thing; and I will receive you.' At the time of the Rapture,
if you are separated from sin, Jesus will receive you unto Himself!
'...shall not prevent them which are asleep.' The word 'prevent'
in Greek means 'to anticipate, to be before, or to precede.' Here
the scripture gives reference to the fact that we which are alive
shall not go up before those who have died in Christ before us,
because the Word of God declares that 'every man in his own order'
after the death of Christ. (ICorinthians 15:23.) 23, 'But every
man in his own order: Christ the firstfruits; afterward they that
are Christ's at his coming.' Thus the dead in Christ will be raised
first, every man in his own order. Then shall those who are alive
be caught up and changed. But we all, both the dead and alive, shall
meet Christ in the clouds together. 16, 'For the Lord Himself shall
descend from Heaven with a shout, with the voice of the Archangel,
and the trump of God: and the dead in Christ shall rise first.'
'For the Lord Himself shall descend from Heaven...' Our Lord Jesus
Himself will come to receive us unto Himself. Here the scripture
indicates that our Lord will physically come to get us. In the Gospel
of John 14:1-3, our Lord stated in verse three: 3, 'And if I go
and prepare a place for you, I will come again, and receive you
unto myself: that where I am, there ye may be also.' Our Lord promised
that He would come and receive us unto Himself. Many today teach
that Jesus will never physically come again. But the scriptures
prove differently. Our Lord will come again and receive His Church
unto Himself. The phrase 'coming of the Lord' in verse 15, explains
the beginning of verse 16, Jesus' descent is called His coming.
The coming is translated: 'parousia' which means 'presence or arrival.'
Our Lord will physically be here to meet us. '...with a shout, with
the voice of the Archangel...' The shout, the announcement of victory
for the Church. The voice of the Archangel to proclaim that Christ
is here, as He promised to take those who are ready for His gathering.
The voice of shout will be Michael, the Archangel. Archangel in
Greek means: Archaggelos- A chief angel - Archangel Arch- To be
first (in political rank or power): reign (rule) over Aggelos- To
bring tidings, a messenger:esp. an 'Angel' The chief angel of Heaven
will announce the coming of our Lord for the Church. '...with the
trump of God...' The trump of God will sound. This blast will sound
the alarm of the Rapture. This sound will get the attention of the
world, living and dead. The trump of God at the Rapture has been
confused with the trump of the seven trumpet judgment of God in
Revelation 8;2, 6-13, 9:1-21 and 11:15. As a result, many would
use these verses to claim that the Church will be raptured at the
middle of the Great Tribulation Period. The scriptures are clear
that these are two different trumpets sounding. The blowing of the
trumpet in IThessalonians 4:13-18 is a trump of victory and the
trumpet of Revelation 8:13 are trumpets of woe and judgement in
the Tribulation. '...and the dead in Christ shall rise first...'
After the Archangel sounds the trump, the dead in Christ will be
raised. Note: The emphasis is on the dead in Christ. At the Rapture
those who have died in Christ will be risen first. The scripture
declares 'Blessed are the dead.' (Revelation 14:13.) 13, 'And I
heard a voice from heaven saying unto me, 'Write, Blessed are the
dead which die in the Lord from henceforth: yea, saith the Spirit,
that they may rest from their labours; and their works do follow
them.' '...Then we which are alive and remain...' As stated earlier,
a condition was given for those who are alive at the point of Rapture.
The saints of God that hath continued with Him will be caught up;
those who have overcome the world and the devil. Many that are not
saved and are in a back-slid condition will not be raptured. '...shall
be caught up together with them in the clouds.' Those that die in
Jesus, and those that are alive and remain, shall be gathered together
in the clouds. At this time we will be seized, caught up, taken
by force to meet Jesus in the air. '...And so shall we ever be with
the Lord.' Those that are raptured will forever be with the Lord.
The door of Rapture will be the end of struggle for the righteous
and they will be delivered from temptation and test from the devil.
'...Wherefore comfort one another with these words.' The Doctrine
of the Rapture is a message of comfort. The Apostle Paul commanded
us to comfort one another with these words. The Rapture should be
taught in every church to give the blessed hope and comfort of the
soon return of Jesus for His Church. Whats next, sorry for taking
so long.
Subject: Re: Here you go John From: Prestor John To: scott lewis Date Posted: Mon, Feb 07, 2000 at 20:58:52 (PST) Email Address:prestor_john@hotmail.com
Message:
A verse-by-verse look at 1 Thessalonians 4:13-18 13'But I would
not have you to be ignorant, brethren, concerning them which are
asleep, that ye sorrow not, even as others which have no hope.'
'...which are asleep...' The word 'asleep' in Greek is 'koimao.'
In the New Testament this always refers to the Body that is asleep
and not to the soul. It means 'to put to sleep, pass or reflex,
to slumber, to decrease, be a fall, a fall on, sleep be dead.' The
Apostle Paul was giving understanding to the Thessalonians about
their dead loved ones. He wanted them to know that only their bodies
were asleep or decease, but not their souls or spirits. So there
was no need to be sorrowful. He went on to explain: '...which have
no hope...' In the latter part of this verse, Paul explained that
the Church need not sorrow as the world does when it loses a loved
one. The Church has a hope of seeing their dead loved ones again.
This hope is locked in the resurrection of the Just. (Note John
5:28, 29; Acts 24:15; Daniel 12:2.) 14, 'For if we believe that
Jesus died and rose again, even so them also which sleep in Jesus
will God bring with him.' The condition of those who are Raptured
will be on the basis they believe in the death and resurrection
of Jesus Christ. The scripture teaches that those who believe are
saved. (Romans 10:8-11.) For those who have died in Jesus, their
spirits and souls will, at the time of the Rapture, be brought with
Him. Their spirits and souls will be reunited with their physical
resurrected bodies and at that time their bodies will be changed
from corruptible to incorruptible bodies. (I Corinthians 15:50-57.)
Paul went on to explain: 15, 'For this we say unto you by the word
of the Lord, that we which are alive and remain unto the coming
of the Lord shall not prevent them which are asleep.' '...we say
unto you by the Word of the Lord...' The message of the Rapture
was given to Apostle Paul by the Word of the Lord. This doctrine
was a mystery for the Church from God. (I Corinthians 15:51.) J.
Dwight Pentcost sums up the mystery like this: 'The Church and Israel
are two distinct groups with whom God has a divine plan. The Church
is a mystery unrevealed in the Old Testament. This present mystery
age intervenes within the program of God for Israel because of Israel's
rejection of the Messiah at His first advent. This mystery program
must be completed before God can resume His program with Israel
and bring it to completion...' '...we which are alive and remain
unto the coming of the Lord...' Here we have another condition given
to those who are alive at the time of the Rapture. Those who remain
are those who are still remaining in Christ and have kept their
faith. These will be caught up to meet Jesus. Our Lord is coming
back for a prepared people; that is, only for those who are ready.
Those who have back-slid will not be raptured. Those who are separated
from sin will be raptured. Paul gave the warning in his letter to
the Corinthians. (IICorinthians 6:14-18.) 17, 'Wherefore come out
from among them, and be ye separate, saith the Lord, and touch not
the unclean thing; and I will receive you.' At the time of the Rapture,
if you are separated from sin, Jesus will receive you unto Himself!
'...shall not prevent them which are asleep.' The word 'prevent'
in Greek means 'to anticipate, to be before, or to precede.' Here
the scripture gives reference to the fact that we which are alive
shall not go up before those who have died in Christ before us,
because the Word of God declares that 'every man in his own order'
after the death of Christ. (ICorinthians 15:23.) 23, 'But every
man in his own order: Christ the firstfruits; afterward they that
are Christ's at his coming.' Thus the dead in Christ will be raised
first, every man in his own order. Then shall those who are alive
be caught up and changed. But we all, both the dead and alive, shall
meet Christ in the clouds together. 16, 'For the Lord Himself shall
descend from Heaven with a shout, with the voice of the Archangel,
and the trump of God: and the dead in Christ shall rise first.'
'For the Lord Himself shall descend from Heaven...' Our Lord Jesus
Himself will come to receive us unto Himself. Here the scripture
indicates that our Lord will physically come to get us. In the Gospel
of John 14:1-3, our Lord stated in verse three: 3, 'And if I go
and prepare a place for you, I will come again, and receive you
unto myself: that where I am, there ye may be also.' Our Lord promised
that He would come and receive us unto Himself. Many today teach
that Jesus will never physically come again. But the scriptures
prove differently. Our Lord will come again and receive His Church
unto Himself. The phrase 'coming of the Lord' in verse 15, explains
the beginning of verse 16, Jesus' descent is called His coming.
The coming is translated: 'parousia' which means 'presence or arrival.'
Our Lord will physically be here to meet us. '...with a shout, with
the voice of the Archangel...' The shout, the announcement of victory
for the Church. The voice of the Archangel to proclaim that Christ
is here, as He promised to take those who are ready for His gathering.
The voice of shout will be Michael, the Archangel. Archangel in
Greek means: Archaggelos- A chief angel - Archangel Arch- To be
first (in political rank or power): reign (rule) over Aggelos- To
bring tidings, a messenger:esp. an 'Angel' The chief angel of Heaven
will announce the coming of our Lord for the Church. '...with the
trump of God...' The trump of God will sound. This blast will sound
the alarm of the Rapture. This sound will get the attention of the
world, living and dead. The trump of God at the Rapture has been
confused with the trump of the seven trumpet judgment of God in
Revelation 8;2, 6-13, 9:1-21 and 11:15. As a result, many would
use these verses to claim that the Church will be raptured at the
middle of the Great Tribulation Period. The scriptures are clear
that these are two different trumpets sounding. The blowing of the
trumpet in IThessalonians 4:13-18 is a trump of victory and the
trumpet of Revelation 8:13 are trumpets of woe and judgement in
the Tribulation. '...and the dead in Christ shall rise first...'
After the Archangel sounds the trump, the dead in Christ will be
raised. Note: The emphasis is on the dead in Christ. At the Rapture
those who have died in Christ will be risen first. The scripture
declares 'Blessed are the dead.' (Revelation 14:13.) 13, 'And I
heard a voice from heaven saying unto me, 'Write, Blessed are the
dead which die in the Lord from henceforth: yea, saith the Spirit,
that they may rest from their labours; and their works do follow
them.' '...Then we which are alive and remain...' As stated earlier,
a condition was given for those who are alive at the point of Rapture.
The saints of God that hath continued with Him will be caught up;
those who have overcome the world and the devil. Many that are not
saved and are in a back-slid condition will not be raptured. '...shall
be caught up together with them in the clouds.' Those that die in
Jesus, and those that are alive and remain, shall be gathered together
in the clouds. At this time we will be seized, caught up, taken
by force to meet Jesus in the air. '...And so shall we ever be with
the Lord.' Those that are raptured will forever be with the Lord.
The door of Rapture will be the end of struggle for the righteous
and they will be delivered from temptation and test from the devil.
'...Wherefore comfort one another with these words.' The Doctrine
of the Rapture is a message of comfort. The Apostle Paul commanded
us to comfort one another with these words. The Rapture should be
taught in every church to give the blessed hope and comfort of the
soon return of Jesus for His Church. Whats next, sorry for taking
so long. --- Well now my dear Caledonian (Scott) that is
great, you have no doubt in your mind done 1.maintaining a consistently
literal method of interptation 2.maintaining a distinction between
Israel and the church Now do the same with this set of verses: Peter
went up on the housetop to pray, about the sixth hour. And he became
very hungry and desired to eat. But while they made ready, an ecstasy
fell on him. And he saw the heaven opened and a certain vessel like
a sheet coming down to him, being bound at the four corners and
let down to the earth; in which were all the four-footed animals
of the earth, and the wild beasts, and the reptiles, and the birds
of the heaven. And a voice came to him, saying, Rise, Peter! Kill
and eat! But Peter said, Not so, Lord, for I have never eaten anything
that is common or unclean. And the voice spoke to him again the
second time, What God has made clean, you do not call common. This
happened three times, and the vessel was received up again into
the heaven. Give me the literal interpretation of this vision. That's all I ask. Prestor
John Armchair theologian, curmudgeon, and esperantist Sola Scriptura,
Sola Gratia, Sola Fide, Solus Christus Servabo Fidem
Subject: Re: Here you go John From: Brother Bret To: Prestor John Date Posted: Wed, Feb 09, 2000 at 15:11:16 (PST) Email Address:Lovitz5@aol.com
Message: Perhaps that's
the key PJ. Peter had a vision. Is there anything about a vision
in Paul's declaration in 1Th.4:13-18? :^ ) BB
Subject: Cannot understand your reasoning From: john hampshire To: Scott Date Posted: Wed, Feb 09, 2000 at 03:32:08 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Scott, Comments on your verse-by-verse look at 1 Thessalonians 4:13-18.
Scott, if I may, you made an initial statement that the term 'fallen
asleep' refers only to a believers body. I would argue that when
Paul spoke of those who have 'fallen asleep' he was NOT referring
to their bodies only, but primarily to that state of separation
in which the spirit is alive with Christ in heaven. In 1 Cor 15:6
for instance, those called 'fallen asleep' are not so much identified
with a corpse in the ground, but to their individual being. That
is, the brethren who fell asleep are still brethren, they just are
not present 'of whom the greater part remain unto this present,
but some are fallen asleep'. Paul is not talking of their bodies,
but their spiritual living state in heaven (having left earth).
In 1 Cor 15:18 the emphasis from vs 17 carries that if Christ is
not raised then 'you are still in your sins', and if this be true,
'then those which are fallen asleep in Christ are perished'. The
perishing is more than simply not getting a resurrected body, it
implies we have no salvation, our spirit must perish, as those who
are wicked perish. So the spiritual death from Adam is compared
to the spiritual life in Christ (vs 22), (which also includes life
to the body). The point of this is that the 'fallen asleep' is not
primarily concerned with the body but with the spirit which is alive.
Thus, those who have 'fallen asleep' refers to the believers in
heaven who continue to exist and are very much alive in their spirit,
though in their bodies they wait like a seed in the ground to be
resurrected. Then you said based on Vs 14, the condition of those
who are raptured will be on the basis they believe in the death
and resurrection of Jesus Christ. The implication here is that there
is a condition upon those who will be raptured. But Vs 14 doesn’t
say that IF we believe that Jesus died and rose again we get raptured.
Rather, these words are to comfort the believer, so that 'if we
believe that Jesus died and rose again' then we are comforted, and
not among those who 'are uninformed' from Vs 13, as the 'rest who
have no hope'. Do you see the difference, 'For if we believe…God
will bring with Him those….', incorrectly connecting 'believing'
with whom God brings. Check the verse again and you will see that
believing is not given as a condition here (notice the 'even so').
Two other things to consider: Jesus is not COMING to get these that
have fallen asleep, but is BRINGING those who have fallen asleep
with Him, and, those who have fallen asleep does not necessarily
refer to bodies only, as discussed above. The clear meaning is that
Jesus is bringing the spirits of those who have fallen asleep with
Him. Just as valid a part of those who sleep (died) as their bodies.
You said that those who have back-slid will not be raptured, based
on Vs 15. The verse does NOT say 'we who are alive, and remain FAITHFUL
until the coming of the Lord….'. I hope you can see that this verse
is not talking about remaining faithful as a requirement for a rapture
event. This verse speaks only to those believers who are alive (as
opposed to dead, i.e., sleeping) and thus remain on the earth because
they still live. Nothing about remaining faithful. Vs 17 makes clear
that those who remain are caught up, not that some believers are
back-slid and have to stay. Simply put, those believers that are
alive when Christ returns will also join Christ in the air with
the fallen asleep (died) believers. By the way, back sliding is
a term for the wicked who pretend to believe then fall away, never
of true believers! You added 2 Cor 6:17 to support the idea that
if a believer is backslidden then God will not 'welcome you' into
the rapture, 'come[ing] out from their midst'. You do realize that
the welcoming here is into the family of God, speaking of salvation.
The coming out is a coming out from the evil things of this world,
things that belongs to the wicked (vs 15). As verse 7:1 makes plain
by stating 'beloved, let us cleanse ourselves', which is the duty
of each believer to remain holy, abstaining from defilement’s. This
verse has nothing to do with a rapture event. You quoted this: 'This
mystery program must be completed before God can resume His program
with Israel and bring it to completion...'. Would you care to substantiate
this quote, for it is not the least bit Biblical, and has little
to nothing to do with 1 Thes in any case. You said, the trump of
God at the Rapture has been confused with the trump of the seven
trumpet judgment of God in Revelation 8;2, 6-13, 9:1-21 and 11:15.
For what it’s worth, the trumpet is simply symbolic of the voice
of God, see Heb 12:19. That is why 2 Thes 16 says 'with a shout',
'with the voice of the chief messenger', and 'with the trumpet of
God'. It is all the same. Christ, who is the chief messenger, returns
to Judge the earth and breaks the silence with a shout, which in
Heb is explained to be God’s anger 'those who heard begged that
no further word should be spoken to them' and 'I am full of fear
and trembling'. It is the voice of an angry God. You said, the blowing
of the trumpet in IThessalonians 4:13-18 is a trump of victory and
the trumpet of Revelation 8:13 are trumpets of woe and judgment
in the Tribulation. No, rather they are the voice of God as He begins
to execute Judgment against mankind. Read Matt 24:31 where 'immediately
after the tribulation of those days', (yes the tribulation is over)
the Son of Man 'sends forth His messengers…with a great trumpet'.
Same event, the Son of Man is the same as the archangel (Chief Messenger)
of Thes 4:16. The voice of God gathers His elect, and begins Judgment
Day. The Son of Man is Christ, Michael the archangel is Christ.
We should not think there is more to history after Jesus returns
and He reveals Himself in His coming. Luke 17:29 clearly states
it is like Sodom, God’s wrath is burns, but only after the believer
is removed to be with Christ. 'It will be the same on the day that
the Son of Man is revealed', that is, it is Judgment Day for the
wicked, there is no further earth history—it is the END!. Read Matt
24:31 if we think there is a different day when the Son of Man will
be revealed. There is only one revealing, it is upon Christ’s return,
the believers are gathered together and the wicked judged, all this
immediately after the tribulation of those days. One rapture, one
return of Christ, one Judgment Day! By the way, Israel doesn’t have
any impact in all this, they are as any nation. The only ones who
are of concern to God are His elect, His chosen ones that the Father
chose in Christ from the beginning. Israel the nation is just like
any other nation, they have no special dispensation awaiting them
and the Bible has nothing more to say of them except they will be
saved like any other nation, a little here and a little there. john
Subject: Cake vs. Spaghetti From: Vic Eagle To: john hampshire Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 10, 2000 at 14:01:21 (PST) Email Address:roost7@hotmail.com
Message:
john, Trying to unravel your tangled, misleading post would seem
to be a futile endeavor, especially since my post (which you might
be interested in reading) lower in this thread, 'Let's have our
Rapture cake and eat it too,' effectively destroys the overall thrust
of it. However, I do think I ought to at least respond to a couple
of your more flagrant errors. You said, 'we should not think there
is more to history after Jesus returns,' and, 'there is no further
earth history.' That overlooks the 'new heaven and a new earth'
of Revelation 21:1, which obviously necessitates a continuation
of history as well. You also said that Israel has no future as a
nation. That contradicts several OT prophecies that promise to restore,
not replace, the people of Israel. It also contradicts Romans 9-11,
which clearly shows the Church as distinct from Israel and that
they'll eventually be restored. In Jesus, Vic
Subject: Re: Cannot understand your reasoning From: Pilgrim To: john hampshire Date Posted: Wed, Feb 09,
2000 at 08:36:38 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: John,
You wrote, 'By
the way, Israel doesn’t have any impact in all this, they are as
any nation. The only ones who are of concern to God are His elect,
His chosen ones that the Father chose in Christ from the beginning.
Israel the nation is just like any other nation, they have no special
dispensation awaiting them and the Bible has nothing more to say
of them except they will be saved like any other nation, a little
here and a little there. This is one of
the major tenets, and I believe errors of Dispensationalism, ie.,
that Israel is given more prominence than God's redemptive decree
to save a lost race of men, women and children out of fallen mankind,
and thus becomes the apex around which the entire Bible is interpreted.
Redemptive history is bifurcated into two groups; Israel and all
else. Where I find that the Scriptures are one integral WHOLE that
displays the grace of God in saving 'mankind' (elect) from the four
corners of the earth, in the Lord Jesus Christ. As I have said numerous
times, Dispensationalism does a terrible injustice to the person
and work of the Lord Christ, who is the central figure and focus
of the Scriptures. It is in HIM that everything is understood. His
work was linear and will continue to be until his eschatological
return to finalize redemptive history. The Atonement is central
in God's covenantal redemptive history, and to assert that Israel
will again resurrect the OT sacrifices etc., with Christ on earth
is absurd and to miss the glory of the cross. Well, that's it for
me. hehehe. I have no 'taste' for debates on Eschatology as they
are more often than not unfruitful. It's like discussing baptism
with Baptists! lol.... they are so ingrained with the idea that
unless an adult is immersed he/she hasn't been obedient and faithful
to Christ. Whereas their view is in error prima facie due to the
fact that they don't even have a valid definition of baptism to
begin with and can't seem to come up with one no matter how hard
they try. Dispensationalists are similar in that Israel is the 'all
and all' and to speak against 'it' is to be found in complete rebellion
against 'God's plan', in their eyes. Have fun! :-)
In His Precious Blood, Pilgrim
Subject: Re: Cannot understand your reasoning From: Brother Bret To: Pilgrim Date Posted: Wed, Feb 09,
2000 at 20:26:18 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: 'Well, that's it for me. hehehe. I have no 'taste'
for debates on Eschatology as they are more often than not unfruitful.
It's like discussing baptism with Baptists! lol.... they are so
ingrained with the idea that unless an adult is immersed he/she
hasn't been obedient and faithful to Christ. Whereas their view
is in error prima facie due to the fact that they don't even have
a valid definition of baptism to begin with and can't seem to come
up with one no matter how hard they try. Dispensationalists are
similar in that Israel is the 'all and all' and to speak against
'it' is to be found in complete rebellion against 'God's plan',
in their eyes.' Ah, sarcasm will get you everywhere my friend :^).
One of my goals on here has only been to learn about eschatology,
baptism and covenant theology. The lack of responses has only made
me wonder if you and others didn't have very strong arguments in
these areas and therefore stayed out of it. I appreciate the clarification
(now I'm being sacastic ...LOL). 'Most' Baptists are just being
obedient to the Scriptures such as in Acts 8,9,11,16 where believers
were baptized, just as you feel you are obeying the Scriptures to
Baptize infants as the new covenant sign for circumcision. At least
you don't believe it saves them. And you don't know if such infant
is of the elect or not. I wonder whether Infant Baptism is one of
those leftovers from the Catholic Church :^). I posted a sincere
message last week about the Rapture because I'm coming up on 1Th.
4:13. You didn't respond there, but you get your 'digs' in here
and than take off saying that you have no taste for discussing these
things. Come on brother, what gives? Help me with the 'no man knows
the day or hour' language with the mentioning of specific times
in Daniel and Revelation for a Tribulation Period. Just trying to
reconcile the Scriptures. I haven't heard a good explanation for
it yet :^). As for Baptism? Well you guys aren't going to be right
about everything, LOL........Brother Bret
Subject: Re: Cannot understand your reasoning From: scott To: Pilgrim Date Posted: Wed, Feb 09,
2000 at 08:49:35 (PST) Email Address:navyrdc1@megsinet.net
Message: Hey pilgrim i guess baptists that are dispensationalist
would be of the worse kind :) wait that describes me :) scott lewis
Subject: My own questions to the Dispies! :~) From: Pilgrim To: scott Date Posted: Wed, Feb 09,
2000 at 19:34:07 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Scott,
Let's see if your 'psycho-statistical-mean'
hermeneutic will pass the test. :-) 1) Tell me, if you would please
about how the Levitical Priesthood and related sacrificial system
is to be understood? I.e, were they permanent or were they types
and shadows as the writer of Hebrews specifically and the entire
N.T. testifies? 2) If the latter, and the former has passed away/been
fulfilled; then what is the purpose of their reinstitution during
this alleged 'millennial reign' of a literal and earthly 1000 years?
3) How do the Lord Christ's words to the Pharisees fit in with your
contention that the earthly appearance of the Lord Christ will bring
about the mass conversion of the Jewish nation?:
Luke 16:27 'Then
he said, I pray thee therefore, father, that thou wouldest send
him to my father's house: 28 For I have five brethren; that
he may testify unto them, lest they also come into this place
of torment. 29 Abraham saith unto him, They
have Moses and the prophets; let them hear them.If they hear not Moses and the prophets, neither
will they be persuaded, though one rose from the dead.'
I am perplexed on this issue as
it is held by Dispensationalists, for when Christ walked among the
Jews and the witness of His resurrection was at it's strongest in
history, the majority of the Jews rejected Him and the gospel? 4)
Was the 'Church' a 'parenthesis/plan B/makeup plan' which God had
to devise due to the 'unexpected rejection' of the Lord Christ by
the Jews? or was it the progressive fulfillment of O.T. prophesy?
(cf. Acts 7:38). That's enough for now. :-) In His Precious Blood,
Pilgrim
Subject: Re: Cannot understand your reasoning From: Pilgrim To: scott Date Posted: Wed, Feb 09,
2000 at 12:17:47 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Hey pilgrim i guess baptists that are dispensationalist
would be of the worse kind :) wait that describes me :) scott lewis
--- Scott, Do NOT take it personally. My grievance is against
the theology and not the persons who hold it dear! :-) At one time
I sat under the teaching you embrace and knew only that and assumed
it was true. I learned otherwise, Soli Deo Gloria! In His Precious
Blood, Pilgrim
Subject: Acts 10 From: scott lewis To: Prestor John Date Posted: Tues, Feb 08, 2000 at 09:15:27 (PST) Email Address:navyrdc1@megsinet.net
Message:
HI John, I will try to answer you, despite your sarcasm 'no doubt
in your mind done' plus what does 'Caledonian' mean? Acts 10:9-19a
9 On the morrow, as they went on their journey, and drew nigh unto
the city, Peter went up upon the housetop to pray about the sixth
hour: 10And he became very hungry, and would have eaten: but while
they made ready, he fell into a trance, 11And saw heaven opened,
and a certain vessel descending unto him, as it had been a great
sheet knit at the four corners, and let down to the earth: 12Wherein
were all manner of fourfooted beasts of the earth, and wild beasts,
and creeping things, and fowls of the air. 13And there came a voice
to him, Rise, Peter; kill, and eat. 14But Peter said, Not so, Lord;
for I have never eaten any thing that is common or unclean. 15And
the voice spake unto him again the second time, What God hath cleansed,
that call not thou common. 16 This was done thrice: and the vessel
was received up again into heaven. 17Now while Peter doubted in
himself what this vision which he had seen should mean, behold,
the men which were sent from Cornelius had made enquiry for Simon’s
house, and stood before the gate, 18And called, and asked whether
Simon, which was surnamed Peter, were lodged there. 19While Peter
thought on the vision, The King James Version, (Cambridge: Cambridge)
1769. Give me the literal interpretation of this vision. Ok tell
you what I'll give you Peter's interpretation of it :) hehe He does
a much better job than i could. Acts 10 28-29 28And he said unto
them, Ye know how that it is an unlawful thing for a man that is
a Jew to keep company, or come unto one of another nation; but God
hath SHEWED me that I should not CALL any man COMMON or UNCLEAN.
29Therefore came I unto you without gainsaying, as soon as I was
sent for: I ask therefore for what intent ye have sent for me? The
King James Version, (Cambridge: Cambridge) 1769. scott not sure
what you were trying to get at with the above selected texts, but
I'm sure you will tell us.
Subject: Re: Acts 10 From: Prestor John To: scott lewis Date Posted: Tues, Feb 08, 2000 at 14:06:04 (PST) Email Address:prestor_john@hotmail.com
Message:
I will try to answer you, despite your sarcasm 'no doubt in your
mind done' plus what does 'Caledonian' mean? Okay no sarcasm intended, you must have misinterpreted.
And Caledonian means Scot, its a pun on your name, a witticism,
throwing a little levity here, obviously wasted. Ok tell you what I'll give you Peter's interpretation
of it :) hehe He does a much better job than i could. Glad to see you admit to it. However Peter's
interpretation can in no ways be considered a literal
interpretation, can it? After all what is he saying here 'but God hath SHEWED me that
I should not CALL any man COMMON or UNCLEAN' Is this what Peter literally saw? God SHEWED (sic) Peter
a canvas sheet full of animals not gentiles. Certainly not Cornelius
and his family, how did Peter literally interpret that vision? Or did Peter interpret
it for what it was a symbol of what God was telling him? So where
is your constant literalism now Scot? Prestor John Servabo Fidem
Subject: Re: Acts 10 From: scott
lewis To: Prestor John Date Posted:
Tues, Feb 08, 2000 at 20:56:47 (PST) Email Address:navyrdc1@megsinet.net
Message: Prestor John, 'Glad to see you admit
to it. However Peter's interpretation can in no ways be considered
a literal interpretation, can it? After all what is he saying here
'but God hath SHEWED me that I should not CALL any man COMMON or
UNCLEAN' Is this what Peter literally saw? God SHEWED (sic) Peter
a canvas sheet full of animals not gentiles. Certainly not Cornelius
and his family, how did Peter literally interpret that vision? Or
did Peter interpret it for what it was a symbol of what God was
telling him? So where is your constant literalism now Scott?' I
figured this was the straw man that you were trying to build. I
suppose then we need to talk about methods of interpretation. In
most discussion about this subject, I've noticed how negatively
people view anyone who just takes the Bible literally. I assume
they feel if you dont allegorize and spiritualize every other passage
your not being lead by the Holy Spirit, and just cant understand
the deeper hidden truth. So lets talk about different methods. I
will state the dispensational view and hopefully others will kick
in every now and then with other points of views as well. So here's
a quote for you :) 1st point. In speaking about the Literal method,
let me quote Bernard Ramm from his book Protestant Biblical Interpretation
... 'This does not deny that substantial doctrinal truth is conveyed
symbolically, parabolically, typically, and poetically. But as previously
indicated, the symbolic et al. (i) depend on the literal sense for
their very existence, and (ii) are controlled by the literal. My
point being that Literal doesn't mean that we reject symbolism.
This is a misunderstanding amongst people in our day that throw
stones at those who claim to believe in a literal interpretation
of the Bible. Is poetry to be taken literally? Certainly all biblical
text has a point, or literal truth, but the words being used to
describe the truth may not be meant to be taken literally. That
is often the nature of poetry. This is acknowledged by our method
of interpretation. 2nd Point Grammatical - means we follow the grammatical
rules of literature It follows the rules of grammar, and is expected
to use grammatical tools like similes, metaphors, etc. When interpreting
the Bible, standard grammatical tools must be recognized, and then
interpreted in light of the normal usage of the grammatical tool.
1 Peter 5:8 says 'Your adversary, the devil, prowls about like a
roaring lion, seeking someone to devour.' Does this mean that the
devil is a Lion that eats people? No. It's very clear that He is
comparing the devil to a Lion. It tells us something of the nature
and purpose of the devil. 3rd Point. Historical - means we seek
with diligence to determine the historical background and context
before rendering an interpretation. To drop the history of the time
period is like stripping any conversation from it's context. Try
applying everything in the book of Jeremiah to today. Forget about
the fact that he is directing much of his words at the southern
kingdom of Judah thousands of years ago. Additional rules to remember
:) Interpret according to context The Bible must be interpreted
as part of a whole. To be more precise, each passage of scripture
has 1. its immediate context, 2. the context of the book it belongs
to (and author), 3. and the context of the whole of the Bible. This
is a rule of intepretation that is quite often broken it seems.
New intepretations of familiar passages of scripture often make
a mistake of context. Spiritualizing scripture in places that don't
warrant this kind of intepretation often breaks this rule of context.Words
mean things only within their context. Compare scripture with scripture
This may seem like common sense but historically it wasn't always
practiced. All truth in the Bible should be compared against the
Bible since God doesn't contridict Himself. This of course assumes
a belief in the verbal inspiration of scripture.
Subject: Re: Acts 10 From: mebaser To: scott lewis Date Posted: Tues, Feb 08, 2000 at 22:41:30 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Well said!
Subject: Napalm in the morning folks From: john hampshire To: all Date Posted: Wed, Feb 02, 2000 at 04:04:30 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Good day all, 1Thes. 4:13-18 Things to learn from this passage:
1) The rapture will occur simultaneously with the resurrection of
our bodies. 2) God at His coming will bring with Him those who have
fallen asleep (died). (see 1Thes 4:14) 3) The graves are to be opened,
the dead resurrected 4) The believers yet living receive their resurrected
bodies 5) Both are caught up in the air to be with the Lord forever
6) Only the wicked (unregenerate) remain to face judgment When will
occur the resurrection of the believers bodies? 1) John 6:39-40,44,54
'raise it up on the last day' What does the 'last day' refer to
(only occurs eight times) 1) John 11:24, 'I know that he shall rise
again in the resurrection at the last day' 2) John 12:48, 'He that
rejecteth Me, ..the same shall judge him in the last day' 3) John
7:37, 'In the last day, that great day of the feast...' 4) Nehemiah
8:18, 'from the first day unto the last day, he read in the book
of law of God...' From this we learn... 1) Martha understood the
resurrection of the believers is the last day. 2) John 12:48 teaches
the last day is Judgment Day 3) Since the resurrection of our bodies
occurs simultaneously with the rapture, we can know that the rapture
occurs simultaneously with Judgment Day. 4) If Judgment Day is the
last day, then the resurrection of the unbelievers must also be
the last day (see Rev 20:13). There is one general resurrection
of both the wicked and the saved on the last day. Check John 5:28-29
to see if both are resurrected together. 'Marvel no at this: for
the hour is coming, in which all that are in the graves shall hear
his voice, and shall come forth;.....' 1) It is for all to come
forth, no one will be left in the grave. While 1 Thes 4:17 speaks
of a shout (from Christ) that begins the resurrection, John 5:28
shows the unbelievers will hear it too. Note there are two destinations
for those resurrected. Back to John 7:37 which speaks of the last
day, the great day of the feast and Neh 8:18 speaking of the reading
of the law of God unto the last day. 1) Both verses are speaking
of the last day of the Feast of Tabernacles. 2) This feast day looked
back on the sojournings of Israel in the wilderness (Lev 23:42-43),
and it was the time of the completion of the harvest (Exd 23:16).
3) The feast commemorates a spiritual truth. It is when Christ comes
that our spiritual rest is complete. With our resurrected bodies,
our salvation is complete, it is then that our wilderness sojourn
is ended. Exd 23:16 says '...and the feast of ingathering, which
is in the end of the year, when thou hast gathered in thy labours
out of the field' 1) The Feast of Ingathering is the same as the
Feast of Tabernacles 2) The Feast of Tabernacles was celebrated
during the seventh month (Lev 23:39), which is not the end of the
year actually, yet God speaks of it as the end or going out of the
year. 3) Jesus also refers to His coming as the harvest time (Matt
13:30) Note Vs 39 'The harvest is the end of the world; and the
reapers are the messengers'. 4) The relation is: end of year vs
end of time, end of wilderness sojourn vs end of wilderness sojourn,
last day (Exd 23:16) vs last day (John 6:39-40). Note: there was
three times a year all men were required to appear before the Lord.
Feast of Unleavened Bread which is identified with the Passover.
The Feast of Harvest or Firstfruits or Feast or Weeks. The last
was The Feast of Tabernacles preceded by the Day of Atonement. 1)
It was on the Feast of Passover 33AD Jesus hung on the cross as
the passover lamb. 2) It was on the Feast of Pentecost (OT Feast
of Firstfruits) that the Holy Spirit was poured out, and the harvesting
of souls began. It was then the firstfruits were seen 3,000 from
18 nations saved. 3) The Feast of Tabernacles (Feast of Ingathering)
suggests Christ will return in literal fulfillment of this feast,
which is why the 'last day' is found in connection with it. Matt
24:21-31 outlines the events which must take place before the end
of the world. 1) Here we find there must be a great tribulation
first 2) Immediately after this tribulation comes the Son of man,
the rapture (gathering the elect from the four winds). 3) The rapture
follows immediately after the tribulation period, it occurs simultaneously
with the end of the world 4) The end of the world, as we have seen,
is the last day. The 'elect' of Matt 24 are found in Rev 17:14,
'These shall make war with the Lamb, and the Lamb shall overcome
them: for He is Lord of lords, and King of kings: and they that
are with Him are called, and chosen (elected), and faithful' 1)
All true believers are God's elect, not just Israel, since the tribulation
is shortened on their account, it is not surprising that they are
present throughout the tribulation. 2) The wording 'immediately
after' in Matt 24 does not allow any time between the tribulation
and the end. (as described so well in Rev 6:12-17) when Christ returns
on that last day. 3) 2Ptr 3:10-13 speaks of the same collapse of
the universe and destruction when Christ returns. (as Rom 8:20-22
points out is mandatory for a cursed creation). In 2 Thes 2:1-9
we read of the man of sin who must be revealed 1) Rev 13:4 speaks
of the dragon (Satan) who gives power to the beast, and they worshipped
the beast. 2 Thes 2 speaks of the man of sin being worshipped. 2)
Satan is not worshipped directly, he is worshipped when God is not,
through false gospels. 3) Satan is described as a man in Isa 14:16,
'is this the man that made the earth to tremble, that did shake
kingdoms...'. Rev 18 teaches Babylon is often used as a figure of
the kingdom of Satan. Satan is also typified as the king of Babylon,
a man. 4) The temple where Satan sits (rules) is the type of a 'holy
temple' of Eph 2:19-21 and 1 Ptr 2:5. The temple is the church,
the corporate body of believers which only typifies that spiritual
temple. It is in the church (where the body of believers are) that
Satan operates as the man of sin. Satan is spirit, but he can rule
through the false prophets and pseudo-christs who bring false gospels
(see 2 Cor 11:13-14 and Mat 24:24). Note the emphasis on all power
and signs and lying wonders. The Bible speaks of Christ coming as
a thief in the night (Mat 24:43) speaking of Christ’s return at
the end of time (2 Ptr 3:10, Rev 3:3) 1) Rev 16:15 says 'Behold
I come as a thief, blessed is he that watcheth…', it is not for
the believers that Christ’s returning is like a thief, it is for
the unbelievers. 1 Thes 5:1-9 says concerning the thief in the night
,'But ye, brethren, are not in darkness, that that day should overtake
you as a thief. Ye are all the children of Light, and the children
of the Day: we are not of the night, nor of darkness' 2) The day
of the Lord is the day Christ returns on the clouds with power and
great glory, it is the time of sudden destruction for the wicked,
who think only peace and safety. The wicked are not looking for
Christ’s return at all, and the followers of the man of sin are
not looking for Christ to return in Judgment but rather they are
looking forward to all kinds of rewards and His setup of a 1000
year reign on earth. To all but God’s own, Judgment day is no real
concern, it is only to His elect who know that it is the end, a
day of God’s wrath. For the wicked it will come unexpectedly, suddenly,
and with great distress and fear. But for the believer it is the
completion of our wanderings, the fulfillment of our salvation for
those who truly are at peace with God. It is just like in Noah’s
day, the wicked thought they were safe, suddenly they were deluged
with water and destroyed. But the believers, like Noah’s family,
wait for it in anticipation and are ready for it. What do we know?
The rapture takes place simultaneously with the resurrection of
the believers. John 6 taught that the resurrection occurs on the
last day of this earth’s existence. John 12 we find the last day
references to the Feast of Tabernacles and that the last day is
Judgment Day, and that all this agrees with John 5:28-29 that there
is one general resurrection at Christ’s return. Any discussion?
john
Subject: Re: Napalm in the morning folks From: scott lewis To: john hampshire Date Posted: Wed, Feb 02, 2000 at 22:07:37 (PST) Email Address:navyrdc1@megsinet.net
Message:
You will have to forgive me for taking John's post alittle at a
time but he's does to like to write alot :) 1Thes. 4:13-18 Things
to learn from this passage: 1) The rapture will occur simultaneously
with the resurrection of our bodies. 2) God at His coming will bring
with Him those who have fallen asleep (died). (see 1Thes 4:14) 3)
The graves are to be opened, the dead (IN CHRIST is)resurrected
4) The believers yet living receive their resurrected bodies 5)
Both are caught up in the air to be with the Lord forever 6) Only
the wicked (unregenerate) remain to face judgment 1Thes. 4:13-18
vs 14 says 'those who have fallen asleep in Jesus' 1.Could you explain
to us who these are and how they are different than those in vs
16'and the dead in Christ will rise first' It seems that your 2nd
and 3rd point contradict each other. Next we can compare 1 Thes.
4:13-18 to Matt. 24:29-30; Rev. 19:11-16. I will do that after work
tomorrow night. ? see you then scott
Subject: Re: Napalm in the morning folks From: john hampshire To: scott lewis Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 03, 2000 at 03:31:32 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Hello Scott, vs 14 says 'those who have fallen asleep in Jesus'
1.Could you explain to us who these are Yes I could. Those who have
fallen asleep in Jesus are anyone who is a narcoleptic. Just kidding.
The terminology refers to those who have died as believers throughout
history. In 1 Cor15:18 we find IF Jesus was not raised then their
is no resurrection to life, and the hope for the dead in Christ
is lost, 'and if Christ has not been raised, your faith is worthless;
you are still in your sins. Then those also who have fallen asleep
in Christ have perished'. If Christ is not the firstfruits of those
who are asleep (dead) then how can they be raised to life (they
have no salvation, in spirit and cannot receive a new spiritual
body). 'But now Christ has been raised from the dead; the first
fruits of those who are asleep'. Indeed He has, and so we have hope
that the dead in Christ will also be raised to life (and certain
judgment awaits against the other group who are raised to face God’s
wrath). Note the order of the resurrection, Vs 23, Christ first,
then those who are His at His coming. To underscore this is speaking
of Judgment day Vs 24 adds 'then comes the end'. At Christ's return
on Judgment Day, the 'dead in Christ shall rise first'(1 Thes 4:16),
that is, all the believers whose bodies lie in the dust while their
spirits awaited judgment day in heaven (to be absent from the body
is to be present with the Lord). Then the believers who are living
on that day, receive the completion of their salvation too. After
the dead are rejoined with their new spiritual bodies, 'Then we
who are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them...'.
That is, all the believers living on earth upon Christ’s return
are changed (in a twinkling of an eye), given a spiritual body,
and join Christ in the air with the other believers who had been
in heaven. Now all the believers are together with Christ, and only
the wicked are on the earth to stand for judgment. Did that answer
your question? john
Subject: Let's have our Rapture cake and eat it, too From: Vic Eagle To: john hampshire Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 03,
2000 at 15:15:23 (PST) Email Address:roost7@hotmail.com
Message: john, I don't see how 'last day' or 'the end'are
exactly the same as 'Judgment Day.' The terms could instead refer
to a general endtime period, as 'day of the Lord' does, without
precluding a pre-Trib Rapture. Here are a few reasons why the Rapture
must be pre-Trib:
Matthew
There are 4 raptures in the Bible. The first rapture
happened to Enoch in Genesis 5:24 (cf. Hebrews 11:5). The second
happened to Elijah in 2 Kings 2:11. The next 2 raptures, including
the Rapture,
appear in Matthew 24 but in reverse chronological order. The implication
of an aerial event like a rapture ('gather,' 'winds,' 'sky') in
Matthew 24:31 is strong, and there's also a trumpet which parallels
the trumpet heralding the Rapture in 1 Corinthians 15:52, 1 Thessalonians
4:16, and Revelation 4:1. But the Tribulation and Rapture mentioned
in verses 38,40,41,42-51 can not describe the same events described
in verses 29-31, since they come as a surprise upon a world going
on with normal day-to-day activities. This would be impossible if
Tribulation had already begun. Matthew 24:32 ff. can not be totally
disconnected from the preceding verses since the content is directly
related, however, beginning with verse 32 Christ stops the historic
timetable and begins using parables. And since verses 36 ff. do
not describe any Tribulation events as presently occurring, this
leaves them open to being an interjection about a pre-Trib Rapture.
Jesus brought up the analogy of Noah and his family being taken
away (verse 37), not left behind to experience God's wrath. The
Flood isn't a perfect analogy (no analogy is), however, Noah and
his family were indeed lifted up by the waters well above any encounter
with or threat of destruction. So Matthew 24:1-35 primarily address
Israel during the Tribulation, and verses 32 ff. primarily address
Christians living just before the Tribulation. There are 2 different
raptures described in Matthew 24, one for Christians before the
Tribulation (the
Rapture, verse 40-41), and the other for those who have become Christians
during the Tribulation (verse 31). In both cases, those left behind
will face God's judgment and wrath. There's no reason why Matthew
23:36 or 24:34 would have to refer exclusively to Jesus' own generation,
i. e. the one he was directly addressing.
Luke
The parable in Luke 12:35-40 says it will be 'good,'
not bad, for those servants watching and ready when their master
returns, and that he'll even serve them at the table. Verses 39-40
mirror those statements in 1 Thessalonians 5 about Jesus' coming
and the Rapture. Again, Luke 17:26-37 compares the Rapture with
Noah's escape in the ark, and Lot's evacuation from Sodom. The good
were not kept through but from God's judgment. When the disciples
asked, 'Where?', they didn't specify the righteous or the wicked,
however verses 31-32 prove that the righteous are the ones who must
leave. Verse 37 refers to those who are left behind. In Luke 24:25-27,44-48,
Jesus clearly meant that prophecies are about observable physical
things that can be witnessed. Luke 21:36 says that we can escape
all the Tribulation judgments. This verse is part of the 'Olivet
Discourse' appearing in Matthew, Mark and Luke, about the end of
the age and the Tribulation. The terrible distress will never be
equalled, according to Mark 13:19. Jesus couldn't have been speaking
exclusively to the apostles, because WW2 was the greatest distress
the world has experienced so far. Yet Jesus was referring to the
apostles in a certain sense, because the Olivet Discourse contains
'double reference prophecy.' Isaiah 7:14 apparently had a double
fulfillment in Isaiah 8:18 and in Matthew 1:23. Some double reference
prophecies that have been completely fulfilled (by King David and
Jesus) include Psalms 22:1, 22:17-18, 34:20, and 41:9. The following
passages also must have a double reference, since they've never
been completely fulfilled: Isaiah 13:10-12: 'The day of the Lord'
here describes punishment of humanity in a way that has never been
fulfilled. Jeremiah 30:11: The 'nations' where Israel was exiled
have never been destroyed. Ezekiel 30:3-5: This passage about 'the
day of the Lord' (God's wrath) which is simultaneously inflicted
upon Ethiopia, Put, Lud, all Arabia, Libya, and 'the people of the
land that is in league.' This has never happened in known history.
Daniel 9:27: No such 7-year covenant has yet been confirmed with
Israel in history. Joel 3:1-3: No such battle in the valley of Jehoshaphat
has ever occurred. Zephaniah 2:8-15, 3:6-10,13-20: Such events have
ever taken place. 1 Thessalonians 5:3: See below. None of the above
prophecies contain any obvious figurative language, nor are they
set in such a context. They deal with very specific people, countries,
etc. and exactly what will happen to them, and have never been historically
fulfilled. For more about double reference prophecies, read 'The
Road to Holocaust' and chapter 3 of 'The Late Great Planet Earth,'
both by Hal Lindsey.
1 Thessalonians
1 Thessalonians 1:10, 4:18, and 5:9 all indicate
Christians will not have to endure God's wrath, or Tribulation.
1 Thessalonians 5:9 does not compare salvation with wrath, it says
we're appointed to salvation, not wrath. 1 Thessaloinans 5:3 says
people will be talking 'peace and safety' before the sudden destruction.
In the period before Jerusalem's destruction in A.D. 70, however,
everybody was talking about revolting against the occupying Roman
soldiers, not 'peace and safety.' So this verse has yet to be fulfilled.
2 Thessalonians
2 Thessalonians 2:6-8 shows that the restrainer
(the Holy Spirit within Christians) is taken into heaven before
the unveiling of Antichrist, who comes to power at the beginning
of the 7-year Tribulation (Daniel 9:27). Looking back at verse 3,
the Rapture must therefore precede the Tribulation. Verses 6-8 are
not in clean chronology with verses 3-4, verse 5 breaks into the
train of thought, then verses 6-8 shift the focus back in order
to interject that the Rapture precedes the unveiling of Antichrist.
No conclusion about the timing of the Rapture can be drawn solely
from verses 1-3, because the words 'it will not come' (NASB) do
not appear in the Greek mss, and 'the day of the Lord' in verse
2 is not positioned chronologically with respect to the Rapture
in verse 1. 'Day of the Lord' is an Old Testament phrase referring
only to the Tribulation, not the Rapture (see Isaiah 2:12-21, 13:6,
9-16, Ezekiel 30:3-4, Joel 1:15 ff., 28-32, Amos 5:18-20, Obadiah
15-17, Zephaniah 1:7-18, Malachi 4:5, Acts 2:20, 1 Thessalonians
5:2, 2 Thessalonians 2:2, 2 Peter 3:10). According to Daniel 9:26-27,
the world will be under the Antichrist system during the entire
7-year Tribulation, but according to 2 Thessalonians 2:1 ff., the
Rapture must happen before the Antichrist is even revealed.
2 Peter
2 Peter 3:1-13 describes the 'day of God,' which
is the same event as the 'day of the Lord' described in OT prophecies,
the Olivet Discourse, 1 Thessalonians 5:2-4, and Revelation 16-19.
These passages all describe God's fiery wrath upon Earth during
the Tribulation. 2 Peter 3:1-13 does not refer to the passing away
of the old heaven and earth described in Revelation 21:1, which
involves no wrath (judgment), burning, or destruction. Revelation
21:1 occurs at the end of the 1,000-year Millennial Kingdom, the
final judgment.
Revelation
The author of Revelation classified it as both
an apocalypse (1:1) and as a prophecy (1:3). The Church is mentioned
19 times in Revelation 1-3. In Revelation 4:1-2, all mention of
the Church disappears before the Tribulation judgments begin (chapter
6). The trumpet call in 4:1 specifically relates to John's being
caught up, but also seems to have a double, symbolic meaning for
the Church.The Church does not reappear until chapter 19 when it
returns with Jesus Christ at the end of the Great Tribulation. No
mention of the church appears in any NT or OT passages about the
Tribulation (Deuteronomy 4:29-30, Jeremiah 30:4-11, Ezekiel 38-39,
Daniel 9, 12:1-2, Joel 3, Zechariah 12-14, Revelation 6-18). The
only people mentioned are Jews and the nations attacking them. The
invading nations are destroyed in the Tribulation, not taken away.
Revelation 3:10 promises that Christians will likewise be kept 'out
of' (can also be translated 'from' or 'through') the Tribulation
and it wouldn't make sense if Christians were to be martyred, persecuted,
tested, etc. during the Tribulation (Revelation 7:9 ff.): Revelation 3:10 'Because you have kept the word of
My perseverance, I also will keep you from the hour of testing,
that hour which is about to come upon the whole world, to test those
who dwell on the earth. (NASB)
Any passages that seem to dispute a pre-Trib Rapture can be interpreted
differently. Christians are already supposed to be experiencing
tribulation and persecution in their lives, however many today are
living comfortable, self-satisfied lives and aren't experiencing
much peril, persecution, tribulation, etc. So when talk of the Tribulation
comes up, they have a natural inclination to feel that they'll have
to live through it. Some of them may actually have to live through
it, but for the most part the 7-year Tribulation is a time of God's
wrath and judgment upon the world, not upon Christians. In Jesus,
Vic
Subject: There is only one rapture From:
jh To: Vic Eagle Date Posted:
Fri, Feb 04, 2000 at 13:20:36 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message:
There is only one rapture. Enoch and Elijah were not 'changed'.
They did not receive their new spiritual and glorified bodies. That
only happens once - when Christ comes again. 'Behold, I shew you
a mystery; We shall not all sleep, but we shall all be changed,
In a moment, in the twinkling of an eye, at the last trump: for
the trumpet shall sound, and the dead shall be raised incorruptible,
and we shall be changed.' 1 Corinthians 15:51,52 jh
Subject: They were nevertheless _r_aptured From: Vic Eagle To: jh Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 10, 2000 at 13:13:13 (PST) Email Address:roost7@hotmail.com
Message:
jh, They were caught up to heaven and that's what the word 'rapture'
is supposed to mean. So they were quasi-_R_aptured. In Jesus, Vic
Subject: Re: Napalm in the morning folks From: scott lewis To: john hampshire Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 03, 2000 at 08:21:13 (PST) Email Address:navyrdc1@megsinet.net
Message:
. 2) God at His coming will bring with Him those who have fallen
asleep (died). (see 1Thes 4:14) 3) The graves are to be opened,
the dead(IN CHRIST are) resurrected vs 14 says 'those who have fallen
asleep in Jesus' 1.Could you explain to us who these are? The terminology
refers to those who have died as believers throughout history OK
we have Christ returning with all the believers who have died throughout
history. Then who are the dead IN CHRIST that is refered to in vs
16? scott
Subject: Re: Napalm in the morning folks From: Brother Bret To: scott lewis Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 03, 2000 at 21:32:11 (PST) Email Address:Lovitz5@aol.com
Message: I don't know
if I am missing something here. But as John said: 'to be absent
from the body is to be present with the Lord' (quoting Paul), than
God is bringing the spirits of those who have died in Christ with
Him to be united with their resurrected bodies that were in the
grave. Is that what you were getting at? Brother Bret
Subject: The Perfection of the Lord Jesus From: Rod To: All Date Posted: Fri, Jan 28, 2000 at 15:07:13 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: Has this board ever dealt with the fact that the
Lord Jesus Christ, though fully man, was unable to sin? He absolutely
had to be sinless and unable to sin, by the fact that He was the
holy and immutable God, and by the fact that the thing which causes
other men to sin, their being 'in the flesh' (a description of the
sin nature), is not a part of Him.
Subject: yes it has From: lindell To: Rod Date Posted: Sat, Jan 29, 2000 at 14:09:42 (PST) Email Address:ldunning@usa.net
Message: Rod, This was
hashed about last year or the year before. What was mentioned then
was: M.R.DeHaan was of the opinion that the Lord could not sin because
His blood was not tainted by Adam. In his book 'The Chemistry of
the Blood', he declares that none of the womans blood enters the
fetus, hence the absence of the sin nature. Although, if your religious
palate longs to cast a disparaging eye on the Lord's character,
then it may delight you to know that M.R.'s grandson Richard DeHaan
allowed that He could have sinned. Then the matter of the Lord's
temptation by Satan. Psalm 24:1 says the Lord owns the earth. Exodus
19:5 says the same. Now if Moses and Aaron had their religious thinking
correct, then Satan's offer was not a valid offer, was it? The Lord
said that Satan never told the truth, so at what point was He tempted.
If the temptation was valid, would not the Lord then believed that
Satan was telling the truth? Have at it amigo, I'm outta here..
Subject: Re: The Perfection of the Lord Jesus From: laz To: Rod Date Posted: Sat, Jan 29,
2000 at 08:58:39 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Rod - Adam originally had no sin nature, YET, he
sinned. As Gene states, what would have been the purpose of the
'temptation' and Christ becoming like us in the flesh if he could
not suffer (which we know He did) or be tempted. Christ in his humanity
felt all of our struggles.... Having said that (to the best of my
limited ability and knowledge of theology) I think Christ, even
though He did not possess a sin nature (like Adam originally did
not), COULD have sinned in his humanity but unlike Adam CHOSE not to. He behaved perfectly -
without sin. He had no desire to sin (no sin nature) but COULD HAVE
nevertheless made the DECISION to sin. He is the perfect SECOND
ADAM. As believers we still have the ability to sin as well as the
desire...albeit diminishing in time as we grow in grace and knowledge.
Am I in error? If so, correct me gently, please. ;-) blessings,
laz
Subject: Re: The Perfection of the Lord Jesus From: Rod To: laz Date Posted: Sat, Jan 29,
2000 at 13:46:21 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: laz, I am going to disagree with you. And I must
say that I will try to do it gently, but this is a real 'burr under
my saddle' that Christians don't comprehend the absolute holiness
of God and that the Lord Jesus is and was God. As such, He would
never and could never associate Himself
with the reality or even the possibility to sin. God loathes sin
with a loathing we cannot comprehend. God chose to 'become flesh and dwell among us' and He prepared
His body and human nature for His habitation and to be permanently
united with Him in eternity. Do you honestly think He would have
chosen a vessel in which sin was possible? Heb. 10:4-10, especially
verse 5, as I told Gene, describes the body (and subsequent human
nature) provided. It was a body prepared for sacrifice and the Sacrifice
was to be perfect, without spot or blemish. That was the purpose
of the 'temptations,' to demonstrate that He was perfect and couldn't
sin and fail! I suggested some Scriptures to Anne in this capacity,
let me take you to some of them. Let's begin with Mark 1:9-13. Here,
we have the Lord Jesus baptized by John, and immediately the Father
declares, 'Thou art my Son, in whom I am well pleased .' His being
well-pleased is a continuous state; there was never a time in which
He wasn't well pleased with the Lord Jesus, as He affirmed again
at the Mount of Transfiguration. Now, notice that, as soon as this
pronouncement is made, Mark says, 'immediately,' the Spirit of the
Lord 'drove Him' into the wilderness to be tempted. Mark's gospel
is the only one to use this term, but note its urgency and the necessity
of His facing that temptation to prove that He was well pleasing
to God. To find out the details of the transaction, we have to turn
to Matthew. In Matt. 4:1-11 we find the account of the temptations.
Now, please be aware that, before any of the temptations began,
the Lord Jesus 'fasted forty days and forty nights,' and 'he was
afterwards hungry.' I'll say! I'd guess that He was very weak and
trembly also. But then the Enemy, 'the tempter,' came and said,
'If thou be the Son of God, command that these stones be made bread'
(verse 3). Let's pause a moment and consider how you and I view
'temptations.' I think most of us see them as things we want and
yield to because they're so enticing. And even, if we're 'strong,'
and don't yield, we wish we could; we pine for them as a result.
But the word here means to 'test' or 'try.' That puts a different
face on it. The Lord Jesus was being 'tested' or 'tried' to see
what was in Him. Think of what you do when you contemplate a new
car. Do you 'try it out?' Do you do that to find out its characteristics
and to see if it 'pleases' you in its performance? The Lord Jesus,
while not an object, was 'tried' to bring out what was in Him, to
demonstrate for the record that He was pure, clean, holy, and had
all the righteousness of God, being unable to sin. If you or I had
fasted forty days and nights, wouldn't we longingly and mouth-wateringly
have contemplated creating food from stones? But the Scripture doesn't
even hint at that about our Lord. The Lord Jesus immeditately responded
with Scriptural rebuke. And it was so for the rest of the trials
also. He couldn't fail, being possessed of 'all the fulness of the
Godhead bodily' (Col 2:9), possessing God's immutable attribute
of inherent holiness. I think we Christians have two particular
failings. One is that we 'separate out' the natures of the Lord
Jesus (more on that in a moment). The other is that we are too familiar
and casual with Him. So many call Him, 'Jesus,' as if addressing
or talking about the kid next door. He is, 'My Lord and my God!'
This is an infinitely holy Being, One Who has condescended to 'become
flesh and dwell among us' so that He could bring about our salvation.
But we often command Him to do things in prayer and treat Him with
an intimacy which is either disrespect or borders on it. Too many
Christians, I think, forget that He is One whole and complete Person.
He is God. He is man. He is both together and all the time and is
not one without the Other. Look at what the angel said to Mary about
His future existence: 'The Holy Spirit shall come upon thee, and
the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee; therefore also that holy thing which shall
be born of thee shall be called the Son of God' (Luke 1:35). 'That
holy thing' was not just the God side of Him, nor was merely His
human nature. 'That holy thing' was and is the whole package of
God's gift of a Savior to us. He is the Lord Jesus Christ, a name
and a title, and a description of Him. (It would do each of us good
to research those words and that title to get a feeling for Who
and What He really is.) The thing to keep uppermost in mind in all
this is that He is holy. He is holy as God, and He is holy as man,
because, though He has two natures, they are joined in one and He
is one total Person, the Second Person of the Triune God. God can
never fail or sin. He sent His Son 'to condemn sin in the flesh,'
and that achievement was in the 'likeness of,' or representation
of, 'sinful flesh,' but of necessity, His divine nature could never
have abode in actual sinful flesh. It was never God's choice not
to sin. It didn't have to be--sin for Him is a most distinct impossibility.
He didn't choose not to sin when He prepared the body/human nature
of the Lord Jesus; He didn't choose not to sin in the Lord Jesus
when presented with the temptations; and He could never, in the
past or present have chosen such a thing as sin, so contrary to
His immutable nature.
Subject: Brings up another question From: Gene To: Rod Date Posted: Sat, Jan 29, 2000 at 19:22:26 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Rod, I will comment later on your post but this I find interesting:
Too many Christians, I think, forget that He is One whole and complete
Person. He is God. He is man. He is both together and all the time
and is not one without the Other. Does this mean God the Father
never 'forsook' Jesus on the cross? I do recall Jesus accusing God
of leaving him. Carrying this point further, IF God did forsake
Jesus on the cross (and left him) then at that point would not the
unblemished sacrifice become blemished? In other words, God was
then not a part of the sacrifice rendering it null and void.
Subject: Re: The Perfection of the Lord Jesus From: Gene To: laz Date Posted: Sat, Jan 29,
2000 at 09:39:11 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Laz, We agree!!!!!!!!!!!! Mark this day on your calendar.
:) I never thought about Adam that way...good point!
Subject: Re: The Perfection of the Lord Jesus From: laz To: Gene Date Posted: Sat, Jan 29,
2000 at 19:07:30 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Laz, We agree!!!!!!!!!!!! Mark this day on your calendar.
:) I never thought about Adam that way...good point! ---
Gene - don't party just yet...I'm more than willing to be corrected
and change my views if shown biblically as Rod is trying to do.
;-) Rod - I did read the verses you gave Anne and they had no impact
on my tentative position as I had articulated it earlier this afternoon....I
will reread your post above. blessings, laz
Subject: Re: The Perfection of the Lord Jesus From: Gene To: Rod Date Posted: Fri, Jan 28,
2000 at 18:20:32 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Rod, John 1:14: 'The Word became FLESH and made his
dwelling among us.' Now, tell me again how Jesus was not 'in the
flesh.' Sarx is the word used both here and in Paul's writings to
describe, as the NIV puts it, 'sinful nature [flesh].'
Subject: Re: The Perfection of the Lord Jesus From: Rod To: Gene Date Posted: Fri, Jan 28,
2000 at 19:32:08 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: Gene, I know you're angry and disturbed with me,
but you always err. That error has to be pointed out and demonstrated
when doing so will benefit God's people. And you're actually angry
with God with whom you constantly disagree, not me. Okay, here's
the explanation. I hope you were sincere in the request. Go back
to verse 1 of John 1: 'In the beginning was the Word and the Word
was with God, and the Word was God.' God and the Word are synonymous; God spoke the creation
into existence in Gen. 1. And the sinning couple 'heard the voice
of the LORD God walking' in the Garden in Gen. 3. Now go to Heb.
1 and read 1-3. There you'll find that the writer is describing
the One who was on the earth, the One Who 'spoke to us...in these
last days.' You will note that He is 'the brightness of [God's]
glory, and the express image of his person.' Those words in Heb.1
which describe the Lord Jesus Christ signify, as I'm sure your Greek
expertise will tell you, an exact image of God. An exact image is
possible only if, as John 1:1, which you ignored, is true, and the
Lord Jesus is Who the Bible states repeatedly, the Second Person
of the One triune God. Now, take a look at your verse you quoted.
Is the emphasis on the 'flesh' which God became of His choice to
accomplish His plan? Or, is the emphasis on the Word Who is God,
Who is the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth?
Obviously, the emphasis of that verse and the context of the Chapter
is on the holiness of the One Who chose to become flesh and dwell among us. Now, go back to Hebrews.
Look at chapter 10:4-10, especially, but not
exclusively, verse 5. Who prepared that
flesh? Answer: God ('and the Word was God,' remember?). Why did
God prepare that particular body? Answer, so that it might be a
perfect Substitutional Sacrifice for our sins and so that the exact
righteousness of Jesus Christ, the righteousness of God, could be
imputed to those who are saved, those who could have absolutely
no righteousness otherwise. 'For he hath made him who knew no sin
to be sin for us, that we might be made the righteousnes of God
in him.' How
could Christians possibly be 'made the righteousness of God in him'
if He hadn't the exact righteousness of God, i. e., He had to be God. One can't impart
to others by imputation what he doesn't possess. He gets our imputed
sin and we get His imputed righteousness. Okay, now to the issue
of the 'flesh.' Yes, Gene, he was 'flesh,' unique 'flesh,' a human
being without Adam for a progenitor, His Father being God and His
human nature coming from Mary. Note how that complete Person is
described in the Bible: 'And the angel answered, and said unto her,
The Holy Spirit shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest
shall over shadow thee; therefore also that holy
thing which shall be born of thee, shall
be called the Son of God' (Luke 1:35). 'I and my Father are one.
Then the Jews took up stones again to stone him. Jesus answered
them, Many good works have I shown you from my Father; for which
of these works do ye stone me? The Jews answered him, saying, For
a good work we stone thee not, but for blasphemy; and because that
thou, being a man, makest thyself God' (John 10:30-33). 'The Jews answered [Pilate], We have
a law, and by our law he ought to die, because he made himself to
be the Son of God' (John 19:7). 'And Thomas answered and said unto
him, 'My Lord and my God' (John 20:29). Now let's read what Paul
said on this issue in conclusion. 'For the law of the Spirit of
life in Christ Jesus hath made me free from the law of sin and death'
(Rom. 8:2). The 'Spirit of life' was 'in' Christ Jesus and it is
God's power, the power to make one free from sin and death and alive
to God. Only God can do that; Christ Jesus was God, and God come
in the flesh. But what kind of 'flesh' was it? Was it the 'flesh'
I spoke to you of before, that rotten, corrupt, putrid, dead-to-God
nature described in Rom. 8:5-9? No. It was something else entirely;
something from God and God Himself: 'For what the law could not
do, in that it was weak through the flesh [that would be the sin
nature of Adam's offspring], God sending his Son, in the likeness [a 'resemblance']
of sinful flesh and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh' (verse 3). And He did that,
'that the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who
walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit' (verse 4), speaking
of those whom Christ has made alive in the new spiritual birth.
His 'flesh' is, as I said, a unique thing. It's a product of the
welding of a perfect human nature with no sin tendency and no possibility
to sin with the nature of God. That Person, the God-Man is the fulfillment
of God's plan for salvation. No one is saved unless a partaker with
Him in God's inheritance (see Rom. 8:14-17). Well, Gene, that was
only a thumbnail sketch, but, if God has given you 'spiritual eyes
and ears,' it will suffice for your salvation.
Subject: Re: The Perfection of the Lord Jesus From: Gene To: Rod Date Posted: Fri, Jan 28,
2000 at 20:25:33 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: His 'flesh' is, as I said, a unique thing. It's a
product of the welding of a perfect human nature with no sin tendency
and no possibility to sin with the nature of God. That Person, the
God-Man is the fulfillment of God's plan for salvation. No one is
saved unless a partaker with Him in God's inheritance (see Rom.
8:14-17). If, as you say, he had 'no sin tendency' then I guess
the temptations in the desert were really not temptations. If Jesus
had no possibility to sin then he was not tempted! And 'unique'
flesh?!?!? I missed the chapter and verse that came from. There
is no qualifier used to describe Jesus' flesh. John could have used
'man' but instead he chose the most crass term (sarx). Did Jesus
sin? NO! I think you had better understand what 'flesh' means and
how the SAME word is used to describe Jesus' human nature AND man's.
Subject: Re: The Perfection of the Lord Jesus From: mebaser To: Gene & Rod Date Posted: Sat, Jan 29,
2000 at 12:17:14 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Greetings Gene and Rod, Consider Hebrews 2:14-18.
14 Since then the children share in flesh and blood, He Himself
likewise also partook of the same, that through death He might render
powerless him who had the power of death, that is, the devil; 15
and might deliver those who through fear of death were subject to
slavery all their lives. 16 For assuredly He does not give help
to angels, but He gives help to the descendant of Abraham. 17 Therefore,
He had to be made like His brethren in all things, that He might
become a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining
to God, to make propitiation for the sins of the people. 18 For
since He Himself was tempted in that which He has suffered, He is
able to come to the aid of those who are tempted. Verse 14 indicates
that Jesus partook of the same 'flesh and blood' as mankind does.
If Jesus would have merely partaken of the flesh, then there may
be an argument that would support that Jesus was 'in the flesh,'
meaning human sinful nature as Gene supposes. But the fact remains
that Jesus partook of 'flesh and blood,' which is a phrase that
always has the meaning of a physical body (cf. Matt. 16:18; 1 Cor.
15:50; Gal. 1:16; Eph. 6:12; and this passage) rather than a spiritual
condition. The rest of verse 14, as well as vv. 15-16 clearly spell
out the reason why Jesus became flesh and blood; to save the 'descendant
of Abraham' by annuling the power of him who had the power of death
(Satan). Verse 17 proves the pre-existence of Jesus Christ. Yhe
Bible version I use (NASB) says, 'He had to be made like His brethren...'
while the KJV uses, 'it behooved him to be made like unto his brethren
...' The KJV is more accurate to the Greek, but even more accurate
is: He was OBLIGATED (behooved) to BECOME (be made) like His brethren.
1. Jesus was OBLIGATED (Opheilen) to become like His human brethren.
By the fact that He was obligated before he was incarnated reveals
His preexistence. 2. He wasn't 'created' like his brethren, he BECAME
(homoiOtheinai) like His brethren. Again indicating His preexistence.
As for verse 18, I am inclined to agree with laz and Gene in at
least one thing, Jesus SUFFERED in His temptation. But we can all
rest on the fact that He never sinned. Hebrews 4:15 'For we do not
have a high priest who cannot sympathize with our weaknesses, but
One who has been tempted in all things as we are, yet without sin.'
In Christ, mebaser
Subject: Re: The Perfection of the Lord Jesus From: Rod To: mebaser Date Posted: Sat, Jan 29,
2000 at 14:37:54 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: mebaser, Everyone is ignoring one thing. He was fully
man, but He was not of the same flesh as other men, as pointed out
in Rom. 8:2-4. There it is specifically stated that He was 'in the
likeness of sinful flesh,' a specific expression denoting the fact
that here was something unique. Here was a perfect man, a man possessing
the inherent goodness of God, else we would never be justified.
Our justification rests on the fact that He received our sins in
imputation, and in turn imputed His righteousness to us. If he'd
had flesh with the same capacity to sin as all other men have, we
would have had another sin tendency imputed to us! We would have
remained in sin. How could that save us? But instead, 'For he hath
made him, who knew no sin, to be sin for us, that we might be made
the righteousness of God in him' (2 Cor. 5:21). Now, He knew sin,
He knew all about it. It was what had wrecked man and brought on
the requirement that He come to save His own. So, how did He not
'know' sin? He didn't know it because it couldn't touch and taint
Him. Go back to Heb. 1:1-3. Adam was created 'in God's image,' but
the Lord Jesus was not created, but eternal, and His human nature
was 'prepared' as Luke 1 and Heb. 10 both declare. He was (and you
students of Greek should pick this up in the original and determine
that it is true) the 'express image' of God, and that
was in His human and divine natures in combination, as one Christ/Messiah. That is, He wasn't 'good' because He didn't sin; He
was good because He was God, inherently good and unable even to
associate with the possiblity of sin. look at what He stated while
here on earth in His earthly body: 'Why callest thou me good? There
is none good, but one, that is God' (Matt. 19:17). Was He God at
that point? 'I and my Father are one' (John 10:30). Was He not God?
'Have I been such a long time with you, and yet hast thou not known
me, Philip? He that hath seen me hath see the Father; and how sayest
thou then, Show us the Father?' (John 14:9). Was He not God? When
John 1:14 says that the 'Word became flesh and tabernacled among
us,' isn't that a reminder of the 'tabernacle' which God gave specific
instructions about in to the nation Israel in the wilderness? Wasn't
that the place where God and man met in reconciliation and atonement?
Wasn't it a holy Tabernacle, built to specific instructions to reinforce
just that fact and to glorify God? Jesus Christ was just such a
holy Tabernacle in His flesh, the place where God and man met so
that God's anger could be propitiated and acceptance could be found
through a pure and clean Sacrifice of His flesh and lifeblood. He
was 'the brightness of [God's] glory, and the express image of his
person, and upholding all things by the word of his power, when
he had by himself
purged our sins, sat down on the right hand of the Majesty on high'
(Heb. 1:3). The right hand of the Majesty on high was His place,
His rightful place, both before and after His coming to the earth
in bodily form. And that was because He was the eternal Son of God
and a holy, acceptable Sacrifice, completely well pleasing to God.
He could never have sinned and He never wanted to sin. {Please compare
my earlier post to laz.}
Subject: Re: The Perfection of the Lord Jesus From: mebaser To: Rod Date Posted: Sat, Jan 29,
2000 at 17:12:43 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Hi Rod, In your post, you wrote, ' Everyone is ignoring
one thing. He was fully man, but He was not of the same flesh as
other men, as pointed out in Rom. 8:2-4. There it is specifically
stated that He was 'in the likeness of sinful flesh,' a specific
expression denoting the fact that here was something unique.' I
assure you that Gene is the only one ignoring you there. You are
preaching to the choir if you say to me that Jesus in the flesh
was something truly unique. As far as your statement, 'If he'd had
flesh with the same capacity to sin as all other men have, we would
have had another sin tendency imputed to us!' I simply disagree
with this statement. There is nothing scriptural or logically arguable
that NECESSITATES this statement to be true. He does not impute
to us His nature, but His righteousness. If He imputed to us His
nature, then we would stop sinnig due to our new perfect and divine
nature. Now, I know that His righteousness stems from the fact that
He is the righteousness of God, but remember that the righteousness
imputed to us is that righteousness demanded by the Law. We could
never fulfill the Law, but Christ did. You covenant theologians
express this very doctrine in what's called the covenant of redemption
between the Son and the Father. If you dismiss the righteousness
of Christ manifested by His perfect attainment of the Law, you dismiss
the covenant of redemption. Now to your credit, you affirm the very
biblical notion that God cannot possibly 'know sin' from an experiential
perspective (for God cannot be tempted by evil, James 1:13). But
do not forget that Christ laid aside His divine prerogative (Philippians
2:6-7) when He took on human flesh, and He did suffer in temptation
(Hebrews 2:18). Christ may not have had a sin nature, but He surely
faced temptation whereby He 'suffered' in some sense, otherwise
blot out Hebrews 2:18 from your Bible. The fact of Jesus being flesh
and blood, the kind of flesh and blood that suffers by temptation,
in no way has to mean that Jesus is less righteous than He would
be if He did not suffer in temptation. On the contrary, by enduring
the suffering, and even defeating it by not sinning, actually is
able to aid those of us who suffer and fall to temptation on a daily
basis (Hebrews 2:18b). In Christ, mebaser
Subject: Re: The Perfection of the Lord Jesus From: Rod To: mebaser Date Posted: Sat, Jan 29,
2000 at 19:36:09 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: Hi, mebaser, We differ on several points. First,
I'm not strictly a 'covenantal theologian,' as the Reformed see
it, not bearing any label, including 'Reformed.' Also, I don't classify
myself as a 'theologian,' not being schooled in the 'Queen of the
Sciences.' I'm truly just a simple Bible student. mebaser--'As far
as your statement, 'If he'd had flesh with the same capacity to
sin as all other men have, we would have had another sin tendency
imputed to us!' I simply disagree with this statement. There is
nothing scriptural or logically arguable that NECESSITATES this
statement to be true. I know that His righteousness stems from the
fact that He is the righteousness of God, but remember that the
righteousness imputed to us is that righteousness demanded by the
Law. We could never fulfill the Law, but Christ did. You covenant
theologians express this very doctrine in what's called the covenant
of redemption between the Son and the Father. If you dismiss the
righteousness of Christ manifested by His perfect attainment of
the Law, you dismiss the covenant of redemption.' I see this as
an error on your part, based on both Scripture and logic. First,
the Lord Jesus imputes to us His nature, which is total righteousness.
If He'd had a sin capability, which would be a sin 'tendency,' so
to speak, as all who mention this point to Adam, who was innocent
and good, without guilt or penalty, who had the most auspicious
of circumstances and communion with God as an incentive to stay
sin free. But Adam sinned at his first opportunity. If the Lord
Jesus were like Adam in His human nature, that would be part of
the 'righteousness' imputed to us, as we are imputed His exact standing
before God and are to be 'conformed to the image of [God's] Son'
(Rom. 8:29, as if you didn't know). One imputes what one has: We
had sin and only sin, imputing that to Him; He had no sin (and no
'tendency' to sin), but pure righteousness before God and He imputed
that to us. That fact is evident for the law was 'weak through the
flesh' (Rom. 8:2). The law brings out the tendencies of the flesh,
according to that statement, but the law brought nothing from Him,
but praise and obedience. I conclude, on the basis of that evidence,
that it shone forth 'the brightness of [God's] glory' in the Lord
Jesus, because He was completely filled with being 'the express
image of [God's] person' with no room for anything else in His character
and nature just as God (Who He also is) doesn't. The expression
'his person' should be of great significance to you who are students
of Greek, as it undoubtedly refers to God's 'substance,' or 'essence.'
I want to emphasize to you that I don't 'blot anything out of my
Bible.' I'm aware of Heb. 2:18. Let's delve into it. 'For in that
he himself suffered being tempted, he is able to help them that
are tempted.' If one puts a comma after 'suffered,' or reads it
that way, with a pause, it seemingly changes the whole meaning of
the verse. Also, we sinning humans have a concrete idea of what
'temptations' are which clouds our thinking, having ourselves suffered
by longing for
the item in the temptation. That isn't what the verse is referring
to. The Lord Jesus didn't covet and long for the things suggested
by 'the tempter.' But He did suffer in the temptation. In the event
in the wilderness, the Lord Jesus was suffering physically at the
beginning of the temptations, having foregone food and other 'creature
comforts' for forty days and nights. But His spiritual and emotional
suffering came from knowing that it was God's will that He be subjected
to Satan's presence and his offers, both of which were at odds with
His nature and repugnant to Him. Also, knowing that Satan was tempting
Him on every level of humanity, physical, emotional, and spiritual,
realizing that mankind was faced with those temptations daily and
unable to resist, being unregenerate and spiritually dead, condemned
under sin. He, however, wanted none of the things Satan offered
or suggested. There were things which did cause Him to suffer, but
the tendency to yield was not among them, for he didn't consider
doing them. He immediately rejected the things 'offered' with the
confirmation of Scripture, no hesitation at all is recorded or implied.
His most intense suffering was in in prayer to His Father when He
sweat great drops of blood. Let's be very clear concerning what
was troubling Him at that point. It wasn't that He was going to
die. It wasn't that the death would be excruciating. In John 10:10-18,
He spoke freely about laying down His life for the sheep. The tone
of those verses indicates that it is an accomplished fact and that
He is ready to assume the task. Yet, in the Garden, He wrestled
with the fact of His forthcoming death. It seems to me to do no
violence to the Scriptural teaching, to the focus of the Bible,
to conclude that the thing which is so despicable to Him was the
assumption of the burden of our sin. It is actually that sin which
killed Him, the 'wages of sin' being death (Rom. 6:23, cp. Gen.
2:17). For One so utterly righteous, Who had never known sin, or
it's penalty, the horror of that fact of receiving the penalty for
our sins is so mind-bendingly abhorrent to Him that His whole righteous
nature drew back form the fact, not in rebellion to God's will,
though. He wasn't actually tempted to forego the cross for a very
simple reason. He was now human and divine, but that combination
was Jesus Christ, the Son of God, God Himself. His will, therefore,
was the same will as the Father's and the Spirit's. It was one will
for the three Persons of the Godhead. What He actually submitted
Himself to was His own will to save the predestinated in election,
though it wasn't His 'personal will' in the sense of desire to 'be
made sin for us' (2 Cor. 5:21). The intense desire to escape that
penalty was submerged in the larger, more necessary, decree from
God in eternity (in which He was a participant) that we would be
redeemed at that enormous cost. That assumption of the penalty for
sin was, of course, the source of great agony for a God Who had
never experienced sin. Again, this was a 'test,' and a severe one.
But it deeply confirmed that He couldn't sin, couldn't go against
the will of God. Heb. 2:18 is very much in my Bible.
Subject: Re: The Perfection of the Lord Jesus From: Prestor John To: Rod Date Posted: Sun, Jan 30,
2000 at 15:21:44 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Well then to input a covenant theologian's view on
this a little quote from Berkhoff's Systematic Theology: We ascribe
to Christ not only natural, but also moral integrity or moral perfection,
that is sinlessness. This means not only that Christ could avoid
sinning ( potuit non peccare), and did actually avoid it, but also
that it was impossible for Him to sin (non potuit peccare) because
of the essential bond between the human and divine natures. Berkoff
also adds this under the necessity of the two natures: a. The necessity
of His manhood. Since man sinned, it was necessary that the penalty
should be borne by man. Moreover, the paying of the penalty involved
suffering of body and soul, such as only man is capable of bearing,
John 12:27; Acts 3:18; Heb. 2:14; 9:22 . It was necessary that Christ
should assume human nature, not only with its essential properties,
but also with all the infirmities to which it is liable after the
fall, and should thus descend to the depths of degradation that
man had fallen, Heb. 2:17,18. At the same time, He had to be a sinless
man, for a man who was himself a sinner and who had forfeited his
own life certainly could not atone for others, Heb.7:26. Only such
a true human Mediator, who had experimental knowledge of the woes
of mankind and rose superior to all temptation, could enter sympathetically
into all the experiences, the trials, and the temptations of man,
Heb. 2:17, 18; 4:15-5:2; and be a perfect human example for His
followers, Matt. 11:29; Mark 10:39; John 13:13-15; Phil. 2:5-8;
Heb.12:2-4; 1Pet. 2:21. Prestor John Servabo Fidem
Subject: Re: The Perfection of the Lord Jesus From: mebaser To: Rod Date Posted: Sun, Jan 30,
2000 at 02:08:52 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Greetings again Rod, You write: First, the Lord Jesus
imputes to us His nature, which is total righteousness. Perhaps
I am misunderstanding what you are trying to say. But what I see
you saying is that we have to us imputed the nature of Jesus, and
that we must therefore have imputed to us all the tendencies of
that nature. Well, who says that Jesus, in His incarnation, had
the tendency to sin? You bring up the issue of Adam sinning at the
first moment he could, but didn't even you say that Jesus' being
in the flesh was unique only to Him? If this is so, and I do believe
that this is so, then you cannot compare Jesus' nature to Adam's.
You are assuming that if it was possible for Jesus to sin, then
He must have been inclined to sin. We all agree that it is a ridiculous
and even obstinate notion that Jesus could have had the tendency
or inclination to sin. But it does not NECESSARILY follow that if
Jesus could be tempted, then he would be inclined to fall to temptation.
For the record, and to your credit, I do see biblical support (not
necessarily proof) that regenerate men may have to some degree Christ's
nature imputed to them, but only if indeed it can be shown that
to PARTAKE of the divine nature (cf. 2 Peter 1:4) is to have Christ's
nature IMPUTED to us. I will have to study that more in depth before
I reach a conclusion. You write: One imputes what one has ... He
had no sin (and no 'tendency' to sin), but pure righteousness before
God and He imputed that to us. Again, you assume that not having
a tendency to sin necessitates from an inability to sin. You very
well support the fact that Christ had no tendency to sin, but have
not shown either biblically or logically that Jesus was completely
incapable of sinning. You write: 'For in that he himself suffered
being tempted, he is able to help them that are tempted.' ... If
one puts a comma after 'suffered,' or reads it that way, with a
pause, it seemingly changes the whole meaning of the verse. To put
a comma after 'suffered' or pauses after it, so as to attach the
'being tempted' clause to the latter part of the verse is untenable
from the Greek for at least two grammatical reasons. Let me explain
as easily as I can. 1. The word for 'He Himself' (autos) appears
between 'He suffered' (peponthen) and 'being tempted' (peirastheis).
The significance is seen in the literal reading: He suffered, He
Himself having been tempted, He is able to help... In the Greek,
as well as in English, a phrase like this one (beginning with 'He
Himself') interrupts the flow of the sentence for the expressed
purpose of explaining what it immediately interrupted. So the phrase
'He Himself being tempted' is used to explain the fact that 'He
suffered.' 2. The main phrase in this passage is 'he is able to
help them that are tempted.' That means that we have two phrases
left ('in that He suffered' and 'He Himself being tempted') called
modifiers. In Greek, as well as in English, it is irregular to put
modifier phrases before the main phrase unless they are put there
for emphasis. To have two phrases, both modifying the main phrase,
is rare. If what you propose is correct, then we have two phrases,
unrelated to each other, both modifying the main phrase. That would
mean that both phrases are more important than the main phrase which
they modify. But if the grammer given by all Bible translations
(that I have seen) is correct, then we have a main phrase ('he is
able to help them that are tempted.') modified by an 'emphatic'
phrase ('in that he suffered'), and that emphatic phrase is itself
modified by the remainig phrase ('he himself being tempted'). Let
us leave the Greek grammer now and go on to a more convincing argument
that shows that Jesus suffered DUE TO His temptation, rather than
merely saying that He suffered while he happened to be tempted.
The Scriptures, in at least two places, strongly indicate that Jesus'
suffering was due to His temptation. Those two places are both in
Hebrews, Heb. 4:15 and 5:7-8. Hebrews 4:15 says 'For we do not have
a high priest who cannot sympathize with our weaknesses, but One
who has been tempted in all things as we are, yet without sin.'
Jesus SYMPATHIZES with our weaknesses. To sympathize literally means
to to feel what one goes through. Jesus knows through experience
how we feel when we are tempted. Yet, as the verse indicates, he
never fell to that temptation; He is without sin. Hebrews 5:7-8
say: 7 In the days of His flesh, He offered up both prayers and
supplications with loud crying and tears to the One able to save
Him from death, and He was heard because of His piety. 8 Although
He was a Son, He learned obedience from the things which He suffered.
Verse 7 indicates that when Jesus was 'in the flesh,' He was pious.
Verse 8 goes on to say that although He was a Son (a reference to
His divinity) He learned something, obedience. That obedience was
derived from His sufferings. When Jesus was tempted, he suffered,
but He learned something He had no need of before, obedience. Thus
when Jesus was tempted, he made the (foreordained) choice to obey,
rather than to fall to the temptation. If, as you see it, Jesus
suffered only while He was tempted, then this verse would make no
sense. Well that's all for now. In Christ, mebaser
Subject: Re: The Perfection of the Lord Jesus From: Rod To: mebaser Date Posted: Sun, Jan 30,
2000 at 11:36:40 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: mebaser, my friend and brother, First, a question.
Is the Lord Jesus Christ God? Another: Isn't the message of the
Bible all about the absolute and undeniable holiness and righteousness
of our God? Third question: If God can't abide sin, abhors sin,
loathes sin, and sin brings death to humanity, why would we ever
be able to say that the Lord Jesus Christ ever associated Himself
with a sinful ability? I regard that as
the greatest impossibilty conceivable.
Furthermore, I think it strikes a blow at the heart of the Christian
faith, dealing with the actual Person of the Lord Jesus Christ,
the Second Person of the Trinity, Who didn't become
righteous, but instead, demonstrated
His immutable attribute of righteousness
by the fact that He never, at any time, desired to rebel against
God's will. 'And he that sent me is with me. The Father hath not
left me alone; for I do always those things that please him' (John
8:29). Did you notice that? He is pleasing to God because He, though
now possessing a human nature forever, is
God and The Father is in communion with
the Son, the total Person. The human part isn't separate from the
Person; it became part of the Person, joined with the Second Person
of the Trintiy in a way we can't fathom. The human part is melded
with the divine portion to 'become flesh,' to be 'that holy thing'
(a most striking expression) spoken of to Mary by the angel in Luke
1. The name 'Jesus' is sandwiched between 'Lord' and 'Christ' to
indicate that God gave us a complete gift of grace, a propitiation,
a 'mercy seat,' the place where God and man can meet in reconciiation.
That fact enables Paul to write to Timothy, 'There is one mediator
between God and men, the man, Christ Jesus' (1 Tim. 2:5). He, in his totality, His complete Person,
the unity of his natures which comprise one Person, declared, 'My
food is to do the will of him that sent me, and to finish his work'
(John 4:34). This was spoken at a time when His disciples were concerned
for Him physically: 'Master, eat' (verse 31). But His overriding
desire to serve God was 'nourishment and sustenance' to Him, as
He explains in the succeeding verses. It is an error, I think, to
separate out His two natures to say that one could do this and the
Other wouldn't allow it. He was never 'at war' with Himself within.
I think that, if we come to grips with that concept, the conflict
is resolved. ____________________________________ On the subject
of imputation of His nature to His elect, let's approach the topic
like this: What is God's ultimate goal for His elect? Doesn't Rom.
8:30 tell us it is 'glorification?' Doesn't that glorification result
from justification? '...whom he justified, them he also glorified.'
Now, we have to ask ourselves, what was God's motivation behind
the 'golden chain of salvation?' Looking at verse 28, it was because
He desired that 'all things' (everything which ever transpired)
'work together for good to them that love God.' Comparing that with
Eph. 2:4 and 1 John 4:19, we find that desire was born of His mercy
because of His great love for us. Now, how does that love ultimately
work itself out for us? 'For whom He did foreknow, he also did predestinate
to be conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the first born among many brethren'
(verse 29) so that He might glorify us with Him because we are partakers
of His righteous nature. And that nature is ours by imputation,
a gift indescribable. I say that this 'predestination to conformation'
is God's highest purpose in relation to His people. It is only made
possible by our conformation to His Son because that is only possilbe
due to the fact that His Son was never in rebellion and never desirous
of rebellion, never even capable of rebellion. He was, in that sense
alone, vastly different from us in the flesh. He was in the 'likeness
of sinful flesh' so that He could 'condemn sin in
the flesh,' but He 'knew no sin.' ______________________________________
Did He suffer in the temptation? I've never denied it. What I have
said is that He didn't suffer temptation (trial) in the exact manner
we do. When we suffer in temptation, we do so because we actually
have a desire to disobey God. We often yield to that temptation,
proving that we are 'weak through the flesh.' The Lord Jesus, however,
never wanted to do what was contrary to God's will; couldn't do
what was contrary to God's will. He suffered because He hated the
presence of sin and its effect on man (suffering and death) and
because the very presentation of the opportunity to disobey God
was repulsive to Him. His flesh, His humanity, being unlike ours
in the 'weakness' toward sin, recoiled from it and that made Him
suffer, knowing that His own could not resist and had no will of
their own to do so. I trust this has been helpful.
Subject: Re: The Perfection of the Lord Jesus From: laz To: Rod Date Posted: Sat, Jan 29,
2000 at 19:52:24 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Rod - if Jesus could not be 'tempted' in the plain
understanding of the word 'temptation' because He was God, as you
say ... how could Jesus (as very God) not know all things while
on earth ... to include the fact that the fig tree in the distance
did not have figs? Where Lazarus was buried, etc. To me it's vital
that Christ took on a human nature to the fullest extent....He was
fully man and fully God...Christianity 101. Tell me again in what
sense was Christ human ...or super human? I also have to disagree
that we are imputed with Jesus' nature....in the here and now via
justification we are imputed with his righteousness alone ... otherwise,
if we have his nature, as you say,...we'd not sin either. no? laz
p.s. let me restate that Jesus, the perfet God-man had the ability/power
to sin, like early Adam...but not the desire. He was obedient unto
death....which suggests that disobedience was 'possible' on account
of his human nature. I see no violence being done to the gospel
or the nature of God...
Subject: Re: The Perfection of the Lord Jesus From: Rod To: laz Date Posted: Sat, Jan 29,
2000 at 20:32:40 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: laz, Just a quick answer. My posts, each and every
one of them affirm the humanity of the
Lord Jesus and never detract from it.
I'd appreciate your realizing and acknowledging that. And I sincerely
appreciate your looking at the Scriptures offered. I admire and
respect you and mebaser and others who have such dedication to the
Lord, but hold to a view which just chills my heart and quenches
my spirit. Your view that the Lord Jesus, God, Who chose to become
flesh to condemn sin in the flesh, could actually have committed
sin is just completley abhorrent to me. I'm saying this not to offend
or alienate you, but so that honesty will reveal the depth of my
conviction on this matter. I feel that on it rests the core of Christianity,
determining the 'Who' and 'What' our Lord Jesus is. The Lord Jesus
Christ is the heart of Christianity and His Being, abilities and
attributes. I know of no more important matter to consider. His
complete title, which includes His human name, is really an identification
of Who He is and he is "Jesus Christ, the same yesterday, and
today, and forever" (Heb. 13:8), the Lord jesus Christ. As
for His not knowing, He both knew and didn't know; He grew and didn't
grow. Balanced against your example is this place (and other places)
where He did know: 'And Jesus, knowing their thoughts, said...'
(Matt. 9:4). Was that because He was a 'superman?' No, and I never
suggested it. It was because He was God Who condescended to come
to us in the 'likeness' of sinful flesh and 'for sin' (Rom. 8:3).
He 'knew no sin,' but He knew all about sin, its deadly effects
and its gracious cure. Concerning 'human nature to the fullest extent,'
I'd ask you to think on this. The 'fullest extent of human nature'
is God's conception of it: A man who is without sin and confirmed
in His ability not to sin, as well as His inability to "know
sin" by committing it . A man such as the world has never known,
nor will ever know, outside the Lord Jesus Christ. Our perception
of man, sinful man, man in sinful flesh, is a corrupt conception
of what it is to be 'fully human.' Fully human is God's ideal. That's
why He wants us to be "conformed to the image of his Son, so
that he might be the first-born among many brethren" (Rom.
8:29).
Subject: Re: The Perfection of the Lord Jesus From: laz To: Rod Date Posted: Sat, Jan 29,
2000 at 21:25:34 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Rod - I fully recognize your adherence to the humanity
of Christ in your posts. ;-) But I do believe that your 'position'
does detract abit as you seem to import a notion not supported by
the Bible, as I read it. I just don't see your 'unique' position
being Biblical when taken as a whole...I think MEBASER's post gives
reasons why our position should NOT give you the ebie-jeebies....
;-) Jesus was fully human...like us...no more, no less. I know you
believe this as well. However, I don't agree (or find biblical warrant)
for saying that Jesus' temptation was to show us that he could not
sin. I believe He was tempted because it was God's will to show
us that Christ was just like us, suffered like us...and thus was
worthy to represent and die for us. I also
think that Jesus couldn't have truly sinned because God had ordained
from eternity past that Jesus would 'save His people from their
sins' with a perfect sacrifice...BUT...still,
Jesus had the ability to sin (he was HUMAN), if not the desire.
OK, let me try to see your point in this manner. You believe (as
I ) that Jesus was 100% God. And that it's unconscionable (sp?)
that God could ever sin (I agree with that as well)... being against
His very nature...therefore, Jesus the GOD-man could not possibly sin. Is this how you see it? If
so, how can Jesus suffer if God is impassible? The incarnation makes
it possible. YEs, it's a mystery... laz p.s. as for Jesus being
'the same yesterday, today and forever' do you believe Jesus to
be an eternal being...or created in time via the incarnation?
Subject: Re: The Perfection of the Lord Jesus From: Rod To: laz Date Posted: Sat, Jan 29,
2000 at 22:45:18 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: Brother laz, You asked, 'p.s. as for Jesus being
'the same yesterday, today and forever' do you believe Jesus to
be an eternal being...or created in time via the incarnation?' Please
take note, it doesn't say 'Jesus,' it says, 'Christ Jesus.' That's
significant. laz, I suppose that was intended to be a simple question.
But believe me, it's not! 'Jesus' was His human name. It is seldom
used alone in the NT after the resurrection. It is used almost exclusively
in the gospels to represent His appearance in human form (and of
course His being human), where a familiarity is allowed as an accomodation
to the people to whom He appeared in physical life. During that
time, the Apostle John could lie on his breast at table in complete
innocence and love, not having yet seen or fully realizing His glory.
Cp. Rev. 1:9-18. 'Jesus" is eternal and was never 'created,'
(that may not be the word you meant). His body was 'prepared' for
Him, as I have quoted from Hebrews. It is a word meaning something
like 'thoroughly completed.' The eternal Son existed in the pre-Incarnate
form in time and appeared many times in the Bible to man in visions
and representations. I'm convinced he is the 'Yahweh,' the God of
Israel, the 'I AM' Who showed Himself to Moses. This was before
He took on the flesh, literally 'became flesh,' and lived in that
'tabernacle' of human flesh. But the Bible teaches that He was always
the Lord Jesus Christ, in a sense, because the plan is eternal,
God in His three Persons is eternal and God is not limited or bound
by time, though everything must be worked out by and for us in time.
I'm convinced that, even as we explore this issue, we're already,
in God's eternal view of things, seated with the Lord Jesus 'in
the heavenlies,' as Eph. 1:3 indicates. There are other indications
of this, such as the 'Lamb slain from the foundation of the world,'
in Rev. 13:8 and 2 Tim 1:9, where '[God] who hath saved us, and
called us with an holy calling, not according to our works, but
according to his own purpose and grace, which
was given us in Christ Jesus before the world began.' It seems undeniable to me that there is a temporal
view taught in the Bible, along with the eternal view. At the instant
of God's decision to create and save, the plan was completed in
His mind and the human nature and body 'prepared' for the eternal
Son of God. The Lord Jesus, however, was born, but born as 'that
holy thing' which I've already alluded to at least twice elsewhere.
The Lord told Joseph that he was to name 'that holy thing' promised
to be born of Mary, 'Jesus.' And that is His human designation.
But, as I said somewhere, we have no business referring to Him simply
as 'Jesus' today. He is the Lord Jesus Christ. I say, most often,
'the Lord Jesus.' I've noticed that Pilgrim says, 'the Lord Christ.'
I believe all Christians should refer to Him as "Lord"
when they speak of Him on the basis of the confession it demonstrates
according to 1 Cor. 12:3. You, laz, see my affirmation that God
is so great, so righteous, so far removed from sin, as not even
able to associate Himself with it whatsoever, as 'belittling God.'
I have to confess that that mystifies me no end, for it is to the
praise of His glory that sin can't even be mentioned in association
with His Person. The position you hold makes Him, in my eyes, 'created
in man's own image.' There is a woman on another board who feels
about me as you do, but she even went so far as to question my salvation,
severely denouncing me. As I have said, I think the whole of Christianity
turns on this issue of whether God is that close to sin or not.
I trust that helps. :>)
Subject: Re: The Perfection of the Lord Jesus From: laz To: Rod Date Posted: Sun, Jan 30,
2000 at 14:49:33 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Rod - you said: There is
a woman on another board who feels
about me as you do, but she even
went so far as to question my salvation, severely denouncing me. Tell me you meant something different than what I understood???
...don't recall giving you grief or calling you a nasty name...
hmmm I accept your subtle rebuke about my casual use of the name
'Jesus' without the appropriate qualifiers to His Lordship....hey,
at least I always CAPITALIZE 'He' and 'Him'..etc. I recognize deity
when I write it. ;-) But then again, are we to worship the Name
or the Person? I could joke and accuse you of being a unitarian
who says we MUST be baptized in Jesus' name alone...but I will refrain...
;-) One really can't be too respectful of God. I also agree with
just about the entire post above except the part of my view potentially
'belittling' God. Don't see your point.....yet. Christ Jesus had
no more desire (infinitely less actually) to sin in His humanity
than I do of becoming the next Adolf Hitler or Pol Pot or Ted Bundy.
Yet, I have the ABILITY to do exactly as they...only my spiritual
nature (regenerated) prevents me (and God's love for me). I can
not be tempted to commit murder for I 'don't have it in me' to murder.
I can't be tempted to shoplift for the same reason. But, I can be
tempted to do other things. And it would cause me emotional/spiritual
pain to be subjected to such temptations fortunately we are taught
to pray to be delivered from such temptations...to 'pray and watch'
lest we fall. Is it sin to be temptable? Is it sin to be tempted?
I say no, no. A recovering alchoholic is not in sin for having to
struggle with booze. The pull to drink is not the sin...it's the
giving in to temptation on account of our sinful nature that results
in sin...usually during the thought process when we say 'yes' and
before we actually commit the sin. But on the otherhand, temptation
build us in the faith when we successfully resist. What is meant
for evil is often used for good by God. James
1:12 Blessed is the man that endureth temptation: for when he is
tried, he shall receive the crown of life, which the Lord hath promised
to them that love him. You said something
interesting to Mebaser in a recent post regarding how Christ was
tempted....it had a ring of truth and good sense. Or did it? Did He suffer in the temptation? I've never denied
it. What I have said is that He didn't suffer temptation (trial)
in the exact manner we do. When we suffer in temptation, we do so
because we actually have a desire to disobey God. We often yield
to that temptation, proving that we are 'weak through the flesh.'
The Lord Jesus, however, never wanted to do what was contrary to
God's will; couldn't do what was contrary to God's will. He suffered
because He hated the presence of sin and its effect on man (suffering
and death) and because the very presentation of the opportunity
to disobey God was repulsive to Him. His flesh, His humanity, being
unlike ours in the 'weakness' toward sin, recoiled from it and that
made Him suffer, knowing that His own could not resist and had no
will of their own to do so. ...yet Christ
was born of a sinful women, was raised amongst sinners, and hung
around sinful people during His ministry. Maybe you are right....you've
gotten in a good punch...I need to regroup. ;-) But for the moment,
brother Rod, the bottom line for me is that the incarnation is a
mystery from the get go....and Jesus DID suffer temptation of some
kind in the desert. Blessings, laz p.s. If Christ was credited with
being perfectly obedient on our behalf (which suggests that 'theoretically'
He could have been disobedient)...why the big deal...it was impossible
for Him to do otherwise in your view? Another question. If ONLY
God can refrain from sin (I say this because you seem to be saying
that Christ in his humanity could NOT ever sin because He was also God), what is
our assurance that we will NOT sin in heaven? We will not be deity?
Even many angels sinned? Can I rest in the fact that the 'humanity'
of Christ did not sin....therefore we too in our resurrected bodies
will also be able to resist temptation/sin as Jesus Christ did while
on earth...having his very nature within us?
Subject: Re: The Perfection of the Lord Jesus From: Tom To: laz & Rod Date Posted: Tues, Feb 01,
2000 at 01:59:02 (PST) Email Address:ahardy@rapidnet.net
Message: Rob and Laz I am finding this topic to be very informative,
and up to this point I have hesitated to put my 2 cents into the
conversation. You are much more knowledgable of the scriptures than
I am. But this conversation reminds me of Gal.5:16 'This I say then,
walk in the Spirit, and ye shall not fulfil the lust of the flesh.'
I realise that this scripture is referring to believers not our
Lord Jesus. But somehow (I may be wrong)I believe that it shows
us how Jesus didn't sin. He always walked in the Spirit, while He
was was on the Earth. We the created, are totally depraved, while
our Lord, though fully human and fully God, wasn't totally depraved.
He was not conceived in sin like we were. His very mission here
on Earth was to do the will of the Father, so that the chosen in
Him before the foundations of the world,would be saved through His
death and resurrection. Therefore to me whether or not our Lord
Jesus could or couldn't sin. Is not a point I want to ponder, the
fact is He didn't sin. He must have continually walked in the Spirit.
Another point to ponder is the fact that God's will can not be altered,
so obviously Our Lord Jesus' Godness (is that a word? if not I hope
you get my meaning) was stronger than His humanness. One of the
passages I think that displays our Lord's humanness is found in
Matt.26 particularly verse 39 'And he went a little farther, and
fell on his face, and prayed, saying, O my Father, if it be possible,
let this cup pass from me: nevertheless not as I will, but as thou
wilt.' I can hardly fathom what our Lord must have been going through
at that time. Tom
Subject: Re: The Perfection of the Lord Jesus From: Rod To: laz Date Posted: Sun, Jan 30,
2000 at 18:03:15 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: laz, my friend and brother, I hope I can clear up
some of the misunderstanding. You quoted me and wrote this: 'Rod
- you said: There is a woman on another board who feels about me
as you do, but she even went so far as to question my salvation,
severely denouncing me. Tell me you meant something different than
what I understood??? ...don't recall giving you grief or calling
you a nasty name... hmmm ' Yes, laz, we didn't connect on my meaning.
I meant each of you thinks I'm somehow not glorifying God when my
intention is to praise and honor Him to the utmost. I was trying
to contrast your brotherly attitude to her close-minded and unreasonable
one. I appreciate your attitude and praise you for it. My intent
was to indicate the type of severe opposition I've encountered.
It amazes me that I am trying to uplift and honor God by affirming
His immutability and that effort is interpreted as somehow 'taking
away from God's majesty!' ___________________________________ laz--'I
accept your subtle rebuke about my casual use of the name 'Jesus'
without the appropriate qualifiers to His Lordship....hey, at least
I always CAPITALIZE 'He' and 'Him'..etc. I recognize deity when
I write it. ;-) ' Actually, it wasn't my intent to rebuke you personally.
The thought was triggered by the reference to 'Jesus' concerning
Heb. 13:8, when the verse identifies him as 'Jesus Christ,' in recognition
of His duality of nature and yet His completeness as one Person,
Who remained undivided in His attributes by the addition of the
human nature to the Second Person of the Trinity, the eternal Son.
The failure to always identify Him as "Lord" is an indictment
of the whole Church of Jesus Christ today, generally and at large.
I think it tends to lead to a mistake about His attributes and that
is serious. It is a common error, one I made for many years without
realizing my disrespect to my Lord. _________________________________________
Regarding the suffering of the Lord Jesus, let's all consider this
fact. The Lord Jesus was always well pleasing to the Father because
He did the Father's will (which, since they were co-equal, was also
His own). The Father's will consisted of achieving satisfaction
of His wrath against the predestinated and elect through 'propitiation.'
Only then could He be well pleased. Looking in the Bible at the
'pleasing of God,' we discover some interesting things. First, we
see that, in the great statement about the vicarious sacrifice of
our Lord, God has Isaiah conclude, 'Yet it pleased God to bruise
him.' It pleased God because it enabled the anger He had held 'in
reserve' against the predestinated and elect, because of their sins,
to be poured out, expended on His Son. And, seemingly contradictorily,
but not actually so, that 'pleased' the Son also, since He had participated
in that plan's formulation in eternity. That's why it pleased the
Son on earth to 'do always those things which please him.' The remainder
of that long verse in Isaiah is this: '...he hath put him to grief,
when thou shalt make his soul an offering for sin, he shall see
his seed, he shall prolong his days, and the
pleasure of the LORD shall prosper in his hand'
(53:10). That sheds a lot of light on the manner of suffering described
when the Lord Jesus sweat great drops of blood in the Garden. He,
being immutably righteous and untained by sin in any way, even the
consideration of committing it, was faced with the fact of 'assuming'
our sin, being totally identified with it! That awesome contemplation
of receiving sin in Himself was so burdensome that His soul recoiled
from it. But He never recoiled from the cross itself and the necessity
of it. That was His ultimate will, the reason He had come to earth
in human form. But the intermediate step, the reception of such
a repulsive thing, to a holy Being, was a great cause of stress
and suffering. How could He do His ultimate will when the immediate
prospect was so overpowering? How could He, in His earthly Self,
achieve peace with His [God's] own will? ''...looking unto Jesus,
the author and finisher of our faith [cp. the 'of' concerning 'faith'
in Gal. 2:20], who for the joy that was set before him endured the
cross, despising the shame, and is set down at the right hand of
the throne of God' (Heb. 12:2). He looked past the thing which caused
revulsion in Him and comtemplated the joy of bringing to glory those
who are predestinated to election so that they might be forever
with Him and He, thereby, would receive greater glory. That fact,
that realization of the purpose of the entire plan of God, enabled
Him to be at peace with the reception of our punishment which would
kill Him. The anticipation of His ultimate goal overcame the extreme
reaction of disgust and hatred of the reception of sin. _________________________________
You added this: 'p.s. If Christ was credited with being perfectly
obedient on our behalf (which suggests that 'theoretically' He could
have been disobedient)...why the big deal...it was impossible for
Him to do otherwise in your view? I think the last section of this
post showed exacty why it was 'the biggest deal ever done.' I simply
refer you back to it. And it's not unusual for God to 'credit' people
for what they couldn't resist doing. Isn't that what He did in our
salvation? When He brought us to Himself by giving us a new will
in regeneration which was a gift of longing for salvation in faith
in the Lord Jesus? Don't we call it 'iresistible grace?' Then He
rewards us with eternal life for having the faith which He gave
through grace and which justified us? See Rom. 3:21-30, especially
verses 23 and 26 and Eph. 2:8-10. ____________________________________
Your final question: 'Another question. If ONLY God can refrain
from sin (I say this because you seem to be saying that Christ in
his humanity could NOT ever sin because He was also God), what is
our assurance that we will NOT sin in heaven? We will not be deity?
Even many angels sinned? Can I rest in the fact that the 'humanity'
of Christ did not sin....therefore we too in our resurrected bodies
will also be able to resist temptation/sin as Jesus Christ did while
on earth...having his very nature within us?' Actually, what I seem
to be saying and am
saying is that Christ is one total and complete Being Who could
never, and can never sin, the impulse never touching him, and the
tendency to sin not being a part of either of His two natures, which
we emphasize to the point of forgetting that he is One complete
Being, God, the Lord Jesus Christ. Once again, it is God's ultimate
goal to bring us into conformity 'to the image of His Son, that
he might be the first born among many brethren.' We 'shall be like
him for we shall see him as he is,' says John in 1 John 3:2. We
have the 'royal inheritance' (see Rom. 8:14-17), not actually being
diety, but being conformed to His image in righteousness, absolute
righteousness, without the flesh, which we stop dragging along with
us and which tempts us to sin, because we shed that in physical
death. We will then have only the regenerated spiritual life given
by God in Spirit in the new birth (see John 3:3-12 and Rom. 8:4-9)
and we will possess a 'spiritual body,' reaped from the 'sowing'
of this physical body in death, since we are, already, 'in Christ.'
In that regard, see 1 Cor 15:35-50.
Subject: Re: The Perfection of the Lord Jesus From: laz To: Rod Date Posted: Sun, Jan 30,
2000 at 20:00:54 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Rod - thanks for clearing the air...but for the record,
I never considered your view as less glorifying...just not necessarily
supportable by the TEXTS. I know, them be fightin' words! ;-) I
will remain undogmatic until I've read some more on my own. Curious
to see where others fall on this issue. I asked my pastor the question
this morn without giving him any views and he suprisingly parroted
my earlier position and reasons...although he seemed to have been
caught off guard and spoke off the cuff. Perhaps if he heard your
side of the story..... Any way, thanks for the workout. ;-) blessings,
laz
Subject: Re: The Perfection of the Lord Jesus From: Pilgrim To: laz Date Posted: Mon, Jan 31,
2000 at 09:08:34 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: laz,
For the record I must disagree
with Rod on at least 2 items. 1) I believe that it was theoretically possible for
the Lord Christ to have given in to temptation and sin. The Scriptures
seem clear enough to me that the myriad temptations that He was
exposed to, and particularly those of the Evil One, were real albeit
inefficacious. If the temptation of Eve by Satan in the Garden of
Evil was real, then the temptations of this same creature that he
launched against the Lord Christ were also real. I think Rod is
confusing 'temptation by an outside stimulus' with 'propensity to
sin'. May I reference the discussion that went on above concerning
the fall of Adam and Eve, in that I read far too much speculation
on all parts without any biblical support given. The 'WHY' of Adam's
fall is known to all due to the fact that it is recorded in Genesis.
But the 'HOW' is nowhere to be found in God's Word. How Adam, who
was created with the imago dei and no 'propensity to sin' could
fall to temptation is beyond me, the vast majority of theological
giants (Jonathan Edwards included), and myriad others. There just
isn't any indication HOW Adam could sin. We know after the fact,
that it was possible for him to sin. And we know that it was possible
for him not to sin, and thus was the 'test of obedience' given him
by the LORD God. [As a further note, sin didn't enter the world
through Eve or Adam, but Satan. And there was no outside temptation
nor propensity to sin by nature in him. Thus the origin of sin is
indeed a 'mystery' to which I bow before God and His infinite wisdom
and have and will, D.v. never speculate upon such matters.] Likewise,
the Second Adam (1Cor 15:45) was under a 'covenant'; ie. a covenant
with God the Father to do that which was His will. That 'will' was
to do that which the first Adam failed to do; ie., to render perfect
obedience in all things. It is essential that we note that the Lord
Christ was obedient
(Rom 5:19) but more so, He learned obedience, ie., in his humanity even while He was the
Son of the Most High incarnate:
Heb 5:8 Though
he were a Son, yet learned he obedience by the things which
he suffered; 9 And being made perfect, he became the author
of eternal salvation unto all them that obey him;
Note that this 'learned obedience'
came about through/by 'the things which He suffered.' It is not
to be assumed that those 'sufferings' were simply those bodily aches
and pains we all experience in life, but also the spiritual conflict
which was introduced by the temptation of the Devil himself. Let
me state this very clearly so that Rod particularly won't misconstrue
what I am saying here. The Lord Jesus Christ did NOT have a 'propensity/inclination' to sin by nature, yet
the temptations of the Evil Once were no less real. It was the Lord
Christ's OBEDIENCE
ie., His resistance and victory over sin which brought about His
coronation in heaven as King of King and LORD of Lords. It is this
perfect righteousness which is imputed to all who believe upon Him
with a saving faith. But that righteousness was EARNED and LEARNED
by the Lord JESUS Christ in His humanity. Now Rod would have those
who hold to this view be guilty of 'separating' the two natures
of Christ. Yet, I would contend that those who hold that it was
impossible for the Lord Christ to be even tempted etc., to be confluting
the two natures of Christ. The authors of the Nicene Creed were
'inspired' to write what they did having been exposed to the heretical
teachings of Arius and others concerning the Trinity and affirmed
the Deity of the Lord Jesus Christ. Likewise, Chalcedon came about
due to the erroneous teachings concerning the two natures of Christ.
Both of these Creeds are clear that the 'Persons' of both the Godhead
and those of the Incarnate Son must be recognized; not confused
nor separated.
The Chalcedonian Creed
Therefore, following
the holy fathers, we all with one accord teach men to acknowledge
one and the same Son, our Lord Jesus Christ, at once complete
in Godhead and complete in manhood, truly God and truly man,
consisting also of a reasonable soul and body; of one substance
with the Father as regards his Godhead, and at the same time
of one substance with us as regards his manhood; like us in
all respects, apart from sin; as regards his Godhead, begotten
of the Father before the ages, but yet as regards his manhood
begotten, for us men and for our salvation, of Mary the Virgin,
the God-bearer; one and the same Christ, Son, Lord, Only-begotten,
recognized in two natures, without confusion, without change,
without division, without separation; the distinction of natures
being in no way annulled by the union, but rather the characteristics
of each nature being preserved and coming together to form one
person and subsistence, not as parted or separated into two
persons, but one and the same Son and Only-begotten God the
Word, Lord Jesus Christ; even as the prophets from earliest
times spoke of him, and our Lord Jesus Christ himself taught
us, and the creed of the fathers has handed down to us.
The fact that the
Lord Jesus Christ did NOT sin was necessary so as to secure the
eternal redemption of His people but also because He was a SON who
was fully enamoured with God; so much so that to do His will was
indeed His meat and drink ONLY, and thus the power to overcome all
temptation and render a perfect obedience to God's Law. (Ps 40:8;
Lk 4:4; Jh 17:1, 2, 4, 19; Phil 2:5-8; Heb 1:9; etc.) If the 'obedience'
were not of His will, but only a natural outflowing of His nature
(which it was indeed, and therefore His will was moved), then that
which He accomplished for us would not have been applicable to us.
But this is the very reason why the Lord Christ became one OF us,
so as to offer a vicarious substitutionary atonement. 2) This second
item has been discussed several times before in here, that being
the eternal nature of Christ. Rod contends that 'Jesus' was eternal.
But I must disagree with this also. Let me state what I DO believe
before showing why I believe the Scriptures do not support the eternality
of Jesus of Nazareth. I hold that the SON of God, the second person
of the Divine Trinity is eternal, being one with the Father and
the Spirit in essence, ie., nature. I affirm the Nicene and Athanasian
statements concerning the nature and persons of GOD. John's prologue
to his gospel is probably the most perspicuous statement concerning
the deity of Christ ever written. And, it is also the place where
it can be shown that 'Jesus' is not eternal but 'begotten' of the
Father in time and history. In verses 1-3 we have the affirmation
that the 'Word' (logos) was and is God of very God. In verse 14
we have this very same eternal God (logos) taking upon Himself human
flesh and manifesting Himself visibly and materially among men.
Was there a time when this 'WORD' (logos) was not? No, He is, was
and will be the great 'I AM'. However there was a time when the
'WORD' did become flesh. The result of the Word taking upon
flesh is the incarnation of the second person of the Trinity (Son/Word/Logos)
who was BORN of the Virgin Mary, etc. And the name of
this child who was born is JESUS. The resulting incarnation resulted
in a person who was both fully God and fully man, having two natures
as the Chalcedonian Creed above states clearly. Further, even the
prophetic word of the LORD supports that there is the combination
of the eternal with the temporal such as in Isaiah 9:6: 'For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given:'
Notice that the child is 'born', denoting a historical and temporal
event, but the son is 'given' and NOT born, thus not affirming the
temporal. Comparing Scripture with Scripture, we are easily led
to understand that the 'son' spoken of in Isaiah's inspired prophecy,
was the Eternal Son of God. Thus 'Jesus' was NOT eternal but 'born'.
But the 'Son/Word/Logos' that became flesh was eternal, and the
two natures were joined into the one flesh and we now know Him as
the LORD Jesus Christ; ie., LORD=God Jesus=man Christ=Anointed One/Redeemer/Goel
etc. Again, we must not confuse the two natures of the Incarnate
Son of God nor must we separate them, yet we must recognize their
uniqueness both by nature and operation. This has always been a
very fine line on which to walk. And thus I unlike Rod here, don't
feel the passion on the first issue concerning the 'ability of Christ
to have sinned' as he does. I can understand why and how he takes
his position. And although I disagree with him on the issue, I don't
feel that what he believes is crucial to the faith. Likewise for
the second point on the eternality of JESUS. Although I am familiar
with the fact that on the first point, there have been numerous
people on both sides of the issue; people I must say were equally
orthodox in their theology and their practice. As to the second
point, only until recently has this become popular. It has been
held by some in the past, but not nearly proportionately as what
we have today. Well, there's my worthless 2 cents worth on these
two issues! HEY........ you asked!! :-) In His Precious Blood, Pilgrim
Subject: Re: The Perfection of the Lord Jesus From: laz To: Pilgrim Date
Posted: Mon, Jan 31, 2000
at 12:29:57 (PST) Email
Address:Not Provided
Message: Thank you for your time in giving us
your opinion. hehe But I think you've only succeded in running brother
Rod off. I hope he was only kidding.... blessings, laz
Subject: Re: The Perfection of the Lord Jesus From: Pilgrim To: laz Date Posted: Mon, Jan 31,
2000 at 19:01:46 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Thank you for your time in giving us your opinion.
hehe But I think you've only succeded in running brother Rod off.
I hope he was only kidding.... blessings, laz --- laz,
You know me far too well by now to realize that my intention was
never to 'run Rod off' by anything I have said. I agree with what
you said above that this issue is one that deals with more deduction
than actual Biblical doctrine which can be found on the surface.
Albeit, it is unfortunate that Rod has chosen to part company over
this issue. And even more so whereas he has many statements concerning
the heresies promoted on the other boards which he participates.
Either this parting is an indictment that I and others hold to damnable
heresy in his view, or perhaps he is 'thin skinned' concerning this
particular subject? I pray it is the latter! In His Precious Blood,
Pilgrim
Subject: Re: The Perfection of the Lord Jesus From: lindell To: Pilgrim Date Posted: Mon, Jan 31,
2000 at 20:25:37 (PST) Email Address:ldunning@usa.net
Message: Dear Pilgrim, I am disappointed also by men who would
enterain the thought that the Lord had a sin nature and that He
could possibly sin. I also know that a man must answer to the dictates
of his own conscience, both on your part and mine. If the Lord had
a sin nature or if He just had the ability, what a confused state
that would have on my simple minded religious thinking. For this
is how my mind would worry, IF He could sin, then maybe He did and
never told anyone. Perhaps He sinned more than once. Maybe while
He was in that frame of mind He made statements that aren't true
and many of His promises are just lies. Now I have to sift through
the Bible and try to determine which statements are true and which
may be false. Now the Solid Rock who was once my sure foundation
is nothing more than shifting sand. You would say, 'but He didn't
sin,' that He had no will to sin. How could you be sure of that?
Being the Lord of Glory, He would also have the ability to cover
His tracks and would never be exposed by mere mortals. Yes Pilgrim,
I see it as damnable heresy and it is of such magnitude that the
place of fellowship cannot be continued for the conscience will
not quiet itself. Over the last three years I have been made glad
on many occasions by the Bible teaching and lighthearted banter
that the Highway provided. But right this moment, my gut wrenching
feeling is this, if I was to master all the Hebrew and Greek text
in the world and could impress the most noted theologians around
the globe, I would rather remain a hopeless imbecile than to entertain
for one moment that maybe the Lord could sin if He wanted to. If
I was of that thinking, I would call me a blasphemer.
Subject: Re: The Perfection of the Lord Jesus From: laz To: lindell Date Posted: Wed, Feb 02,
2000 at 10:54:24 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: Lindell - you wrote: If
the Lord had a sin nature or if He just had the ability, what a
confused state that would have on my simple minded religious thinking.
For this is how my mind would worry, IF
He could sin, then maybe He did and never told anyone. Perhaps He sinned more than once. Maybe while He
was in that frame of mind He made statements that aren't true and
many of His promises are just lies. What
you know about the life and work of Christ comes from the Bible
ALONE.....an infallible and inerrant book. That book declares the
sinlessness of Christ Jesus and that His resurrection PROVES that
He fulfilled the demands of the the Law. He was PERFECT. Now go
back to bed and sleep worry-free! hehe That having been established,
I can still make the statement that I believe Christ in His humanity
COULD HAVE WILLFULLY sinned without compromising the faith in any
way, shape or form. This is a theoretical point...but one that is
firmly rooted in scripture as I understand covenent theology. For
instance, I find it interesting that the first Adam was tempted
and sinned in the middle of paradise. He then gets sent into the
wilderness to fend for himself...to struggle getting food from the
earth...the place is barren. He also looses his authority over the
earth ...he is a sinner out on his own with Satan to menace him
day and night. Satan takes over! The Second Adam finds Himself in
the same wilderness being tempted by the same temptor who offers
Him all the that First Adam gave up...an alledged means to reclaim
the world, power, authority orginally vested in Adam but handed
over to Satan. The rest is redemptive history. blessings, laz
Subject: Peccability/Impeccability From: scott lewis To: lindell Date Posted: Tues, Feb 01, 2000 at 21:50:36 (PST) Email Address:navyrdc1@megsinet.net
Message:
Hello Its been kinda hard for me to follow what everyone's different
opinion is on the matter but I figured since I had a little time
tonight it wouldn't hurt to throw my 5 cents in ;) Consider this
1. The immutability of Christ (Heb 13:8) 2. The Deity of Christ.
Christ is not only a man but also God. If he had only been a man
then he could have sinned, BUT God cannot sin and in a union of
the two natures, the human nature had to submit to the divine nature.
3. The nature of temptation. The temptation that came to Christ
was from without. However, for sin to take place, there must be
an inner response to the outward temptation. And its already been
stated that Christ had no sin nature therefore it would be impossible
for him to sin. 4. The will of Christ. Christ could only have one
will 'to do the will of the father'. Taken from 'the moody handbook
of theology pg.237-238 for more buy the book :) scott
Subject: Re: Peccability/Impeccability From: Tom To: scott lewis Date Posted: Wed, Feb 02, 2000 at 00:33:50 (PST) Email Address:ahardy@rapidnet.net
Message:
Scott I think the subject of whether or not our Lord Jesus could
sin or not, is an issue that although important, should not divide
believers, because it is not an essential issue. What is essential
is the perfect sinlessness of our Lord Jesus Christ. All that said,
I would like to comment on one of the points you raised. 3. The
nature of temptation. The temptation that came to Christ was from
without. However, for sin to take place, there must be an inner
response to the outward temptation. And its already been stated
that Christ had no sin nature therefore it would be impossible for
him to sin. I may be wrong on this, but it would seem to me that
it isn't impossible for someone to sin, if they don't have a sin
nature. Take for instance Adam, he was born without a sin nature,
and yet we know from scripture that he sinned. I could speculate
on why he sinned, but it would only be speculation. But let me say
this,(not well thought out yet) is it just a coincidence that Satan
was present, in his crafty ways in both the cases before Adam and
Eve sinned and also at the temptations of Jesus? Adam believed the
serpent and therefore ended up sinning. But our Lord Jesus listened
to what He knew to be truth, and therefore remained perfectly sinless.
Tom
Subject: Re: Peccability/Impeccability From: Pilgrim To: Tom Date Posted: Wed, Feb 02, 2000 at 07:44:09 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Tom,
What a guy! :-) I was pondering
replying to Scott on the exact same issue as you did here and masterfully
done I might say. To be human, to possess the imago dei does NOT
equate with owning a sin nature. Yes, SINCE the Fall, all men are
born with a corrupt nature, but as you rightly pointed out, BEFORE
the Fall, Adam was no less human and was in full possession of a
pristine imago dei. Likewise, the Lord Christ was also fully man
in His human nature, and yet without having a sin nature as well.
Neither Adam nor the Christ were 'glorified' saints while on earth
and thus they both lived under a 'Covenant of Works' whereby eternal
life was promised on condition of perfect obedience. And this Christ
did; he LEARNED OBEDIENCE, having been before existing in glory
within the Godhead. The Eternal Son, being in perfect harmony with
the Father and Spirit covenanted to take upon Himself human flesh
and to live a perfect/sinless life for and suffer the punishment
due those whom the Father elected to save out of Adam's fallen race.
We do not have a High Priest who was alienated from the wiles of
the Devil or the sufferings of this life which sin produces. For
even though He was perfect in all His thoughts, words and deeds,
yet He still suffered being a resident among sinners in a corrupt
and fallen world. And so He is able to be not only our Great High
Priest who ever more makes intercession for us, knowing our pain
and sorrows personally, but He is also our Great Redeemer, who was
in ALL WAYS as we, yet without sin. He RESISTED the temptations
of the Evil One. If this were not so, then how could He be MY substitute
and High Priest, for I am commanded and desire to resist also against
sin and temptation. He OVERCAME all obstacles and ENDURED to the
end, thus He was received into heaven and crowned with glory. If
He had no need to overcome and endure, then again would He be a
qualified substitute for ME; for ANY man? A machine is unable to
sin, but is not able to LIVE sinlessly, and thus suffers not, resists
not, endures not, overcomes not and certainly doesn't learn obedience
nor is it faithful to do that which is right in all things. Only
'flesh and blood' can redeem flesh and blood, and unlike Adam the
Lord Christ was faithful to the Covenant and thus He is OUR Saviour.
In His Precious Blood, Pilgrim
Subject: Re: Peccability/Impeccability From: Gene To: Pilgrim Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 03, 2000 at 03:43:20 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Pilgrim, Your wrote: Yes, SINCE the Fall, all men are born with
a corrupt nature, but as you rightly pointed out, BEFORE the Fall,
Adam was no less human... I must take issue with that statement.
In Gen 1:26 God said we are made in the image of Him. Yet, even
after the 'fall' God reassures man he is STILL made in His image:
Genesis 9:6 Whoever sheds the blood of a human, by a human shall
that person's blood be shed; for in his own image God made humankind.
Same wording as in 1:26. We are not a 'lesser' image. We are not
'somewhat' in His image etc. I find it difficult to believe being
made in the image of God makes us sinful or have a 'corrupt nature.'
Subject: Re: Peccability/Impeccability From: mebaser To: Gene Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 03, 2000 at 06:44:24 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Pilgrim, Your wrote: Yes, SINCE the Fall, all men are born with
a corrupt nature, but as you rightly pointed out, BEFORE the Fall,
Adam was no less human... I must take issue with that statement.
In Gen 1:26 God said we are made in the image of Him. Yet, even
after the 'fall' God reassures man he is STILL made in His image:
Genesis 9:6 Whoever sheds the blood of a human, by a human shall
that person's blood be shed; for in his own image God made humankind.
Same wording as in 1:26. We are not a 'lesser' image. We are not
'somewhat' in His image etc. I find it difficult to believe being
made in the image of God makes us sinful or have a 'corrupt nature.'
--- Gene, you are confusing the difference between nature
and image. It is possible for one to have a 'sin nature' and yet
still be created in 'God's image.' But I think that most would agree,
before the fall (before the sin nature), the image of God in man
was a lot clearer than it was after the fall. In Christ, mebaser
Subject: Re: Peccability/Impeccability From: Gene To: mebaser Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 03, 2000 at 09:51:28 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
mebaser, 'a lot clearer'??? Please explain
Subject: Re: Peccability/Impeccability From: mebaser To: Gene Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 03, 2000 at 15:19:15 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
mebaser, 'a lot clearer'??? Please explain --- Gene, 'A
lot clearer' means to be more clear. mebaser
Subject: Re: Peccability/Impeccability From: scott lewis To: Pilgrim Date Posted: Wed, Feb 02, 2000 at 21:20:52 (PST) Email Address:navyrdc1@megsinet.net
Message:
BEFORE the Fall, Adam was no less human and was in full possession
of a pristine imago dei. Likewise, the Lord Christ was also fully
man in His human nature, and yet without having a sin nature as
well. Neither Adam nor the Christ were 'glorified' saints while
on earth and thus they both lived under a 'Covenant of Works' whereby
eternal life was promised on condition of perfect obedience. I have
to object to your above statement about Christs nature, because
you seem to only be taking into account the human side and completely
forgeting about his divine nature. 1. If Jesus human nature had
existed by itself, independent of his divine nature, then it would
have been a human nature just like that which God gave Adam and
Eve. It would have been free from sin but nonetheless able to sin.
2.But Jesus' human nature never exited apart from union with his
divine nature. From the moment of his conception, he existed as
truly God and truly man as well. Both his human and divine nature
existed united in one person. 3. Although there were some things
(such as being hungry and thirsty) that Jesus experienced in his
human nature alone and were not experienced in his divine nature,
nonetheless, an act of sin would have been a moral act that would
have involved the whole person of Christ. And in effect God himself
would have sinned, which is impossible due to holiness of God. Scott
lewis
Subject: Re: Peccability/Impeccability From: Pilgrim To: scott lewis Date Posted: Wed, Feb 02, 2000 at 21:55:36 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Scott, What we are dealing with here is indeed a 'mystery', ie.,
the relationship of the two natures in the one person of the Lord
Christ. However, I feel you are guilty of intermixing the two natures
so that the human nature of the Lord Christ is 'more' than human
in that it could not be nor function as one that was truly man.
Secondly, since Christ came IN PLACE OF the elect so as to do that
which was lacking in them; ie., to live perfectly before God thereby
securing eternal life by meeting all the terms of the Covenant of
Works (of which Adam, as the representative of the human race) failed
to do. It was through the Lord Chris's perfect obedience that the imputed righteousness which is given to believers,
was secured for them. If He were immune to all forms of temptation,
then was He then really 'tempted in all ways such as we, yet without
sin'? Of what value would that be? Would a 'robotic' life qualify
as one that was to be 'in all ways such as we'?, ie., a substitute?
There would have been no 'effort' on the Lord's part to be perfect.
A machine could have done equally as well eh? I am speaking of the
'Active Obedience' of Christ only, and not His 'Passive Obedience'
which relates to His sacrificial death by which He made propitiation,
reconciliation, redemption and became a sacrifice for sin. At the
risk of being redundant, I affirm (looking at the entire Biblical
testimony of the Lord Christ's life) that due to His total commitment
and love for the Father, it was impossible for Him to have sinned.
YET, theoretically (and this is my whole contention), it must have
been INNATELY possible, in the very nature of the case to have sinned
IF HE SO WILLED. Lastly, and very briefly, I reject the view that
states that there was only ONE WILL in the person of the Lord Jesus
Christ. For there were two DISTINCT natures in the one person. Each
having their own distinct attributes. Thus being fully man, the
Lord Christ had a human intellect, human affections and a human
will. In His divinity, He had the Spirit of God resident with Him
as well as being the Son of God. Further, the human nature possessed
a 'soul/spirit' as does every other human being. Indeed this is
a marvelous and incomprehensible truth for us mortals to fathom.
Let us tread lightly therefore and not fall into rank dogmatism
about such things as the unfathomable incarnation of the Living
God. :-) In His Precious Blood, Pilgrim
Subject: Re: Peccability/Impeccability From: scott lewis To: Pilgrim Date Posted: Wed, Feb 02, 2000 at 22:14:36 (PST) Email Address:navyrdc1@megsinet.net
Message:
At the risk of being redundant, I affirm (looking at the entire
Biblical testimony of the Lord Christ's life) that due to His total
commitment and love for the Father, it was impossible for Him to
have sinned. AMEN AMEN AMEN with this statement I will agree completely
:O YET, theoretically (and this is my whole contention), it must
have been INNATELY possible, in the very nature of the case to have
sinned IF HE SO WILLED. 'IF HE SO WILLED' possible but i dont see
how/why He would have since He was here to do the WILL of GOD. Scott
lewis
Subject: Re: Peccability/Impeccability From: Pilgrim To: scott lewis Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 03, 2000 at 00:03:58 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
At the risk of being redundant, I affirm (looking at the entire
Biblical testimony of the Lord Christ's life) that due to His total
commitment and love for the Father, it was impossible for Him to
have sinned. AMEN AMEN AMEN with this statement I will agree completely
:O YET, theoretically (and this is my whole contention), it must
have been INNATELY possible, in the very nature of the case to have
sinned IF HE SO WILLED. 'IF HE SO WILLED' possible but i dont see
how/why He would have since He was here to do the WILL of GOD. Scott
lewis --- Scott,
And then explain to me HOW Adam
fell! He likewise only knew the love of God and even fellowshipped
with Him intimately, having no predisposition toward evil nor owning
any propensity to sin. He only knew goodness and Godness. The fact
is, that Adam was created with 'posse peccare' and 'posse non peccare'
but NOT with an ability to NEVER sin, ie., the ability to sin, the
ability not to sin but NOT with a guarantee of never falling into
sin. Else any and all commandments would be mute. Why tell Adam
NOT to eat of the tree unless he were able to do exactly that by
way of disobedience? Likewise, the Lord Christ CHOSE to live by
every word that proceeded from His Father. Since the Lord Christ
came to fulfill ALL THE LAW, which many are couched in 'negatives',
including a curse on condition of transgression, was His doing so
of any worth AS THE SECOND ADAM, to fulfill the Covenant of Works
once for all, if there was no possibility of breaking the covenant?
Again, a machine could have just as easily been incorporated to
fulfill the 'Active Obedience' required if there was no possibility
of failure. Is a cue ball to be admired for being round when it
is its very nature to be so? Is there any merit in being what you
should be when you can be nothing other than that? In other words,
there would be no achievement, no merit, no reward, no CORONATION
as the King of Kings, who 'endured,' 'overcame,' 'suffered' etc.
as a MAN, albeit joined in the same person with God. Was the Lord
Jesus Christ TRULY HUMAN in all ways such as we? That's the question.....
! :-)
In His Precious Blood, Pilgrim
Subject: Re: Peccability/Impeccability From: facetious LurkerJR To: Pilgrim Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 03, 2000 at 09:06:15 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Leave it to Arminians to take credit for 'our works' (i.e., exercising
freewill) relative to salvation....while at the same time take away
Jesus's work (i.e., perfect and active obedience). :-)
Subject: Re: Peccability/Impeccability From: scott lewis To: Pilgrim Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 03, 2000 at 08:27:57 (PST) Email Address:navyrdc1@megsinet.net
Message:
Was the Lord Jesus Christ TRULY HUMAN in all ways such as we? That's
the question..... ! :-) YES. Was Christ FULLY GOD? Could God sin?
scott
Subject: Re: Peccability/Impeccability From: Pilgrim To: scott lewis Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 03, 2000 at 13:37:26 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Scott,
You aren't thinking this through
obviously. I can affirm without question the full deity of the Lord
Jesus Christ. The divine nature of the Lord Christ of course could
not sin. We both agree on that point! :-) As I asked above, can
you affirm the complete human nature of the Lord Christ? To me,
it seems that you are confusing/intermixing Christ's divine nature
with His human nature. We must walk that fine line here so that
we don't either separate the two natures or combine them. The Lord
Christ's human nature communicated with the divine and the divine
influenced the human. But was the human nature of the Lord Christ
FULLY human, ie., did it possess ALL the attributes of man as God
originally created him? The sin nature came about AFTER the Fall,
and therefore is not part of the man original state. Thus man was
free in the sense that there was no INNATE propensity to sin but
only to do that which was right and pleasing before God, his Creator.
Yet, Adam had the INNATE ability to disobey God and still was pronounced,
'very good' by the Creator. Was Jesus therefore 'different' in His
human nature from Adam? If so, then how could He be our substitute
and our Federal Head? Yes, this is a very difficult and complex
issue. I am trying to maintain the integrity of BOTH natures of
the Lord Jesus Christ without intermixing them or separating them.
It is important that you do the same. :-)
In His Precious Blood, Pilgrim
Subject: Re: Peccability/Impeccability From: laz To: scott lewis Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 03, 2000 at 09:17:49 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
But did Jesus Christ always act as God in His humanity? (no) Did
He lay down some of his divine attributes in order to become 'just
like us'? (yes) Could God be ignorant of any given fact? NO. Yet,
Jesus in His humanity was not omniscient - He couldn't be without
'destroying' His human nature. Therefore, did He stop being God
for a single second? (no) So, why can't we 'speculate' with a logical
and biblical assertion that Jesus COULD HAVE chosen to sin (as Adam
did) while in His humanity? Again, it's mysterious to think upon
this subject and come to this conclusion...but not necessarily heretical
or unfaithful to the text. laz
Subject: Re: Peccability/Impeccability From: Gene To: laz Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 03, 2000 at 09:59:10 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Laz, Yet, Jesus in His humanity was not omniscient - He couldn't
be without 'destroying' His human nature. Therefore, did He stop
being God for a single second? (no) Not even on the cross when he
accused the Father of forsaking him? (Did He or did He not forsake
Jesus on the cross?) With this thread it goes to show all of us
this 'Trinity' business is not as clear-cut as some like to think
it is. It brings up some illogical conclusions that are difficult
to deal with. When we start to examine this doctrine truthfully
we get all these questions. I am surprised someone has not responded
with 1 Cor 2:14 yet!
Subject: Re: Peccability/Impeccability From: Pilgrim To: Gene Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 03, 2000 at 13:45:19 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Gene,
The doctrine of the Trinity is
indeed as 'clear-cut' as many of us KNOW it is. It is a perspicuous
teaching of God's infallible and inerrant Word. The 'mystery' is
the economic relationship of the Godhead, of which those of us who
are created with a finite wisdom are unable to comprehend. The incarnation
of the Lord Jesus Christ, being of like kind is therefore just as
'mysterious'. And that is what we are discussing here. All but yourself
have affirmed unwaveringly that the Lord Christ was both fully God
and fully man existing in the one person of Jesus Christ. Just how
the divine and human natures functioned in the one person is the
topic at hand. There are therefore no 'illogical conclusions' to
be seen in the truth of either the Trinity or the Incarnation and
deity of the Lord Christ. Thus take heed of Paul's indictment of
1Cor 2:14!! :-)
In His Grace, Pilgrim
Subject: Re: Peccability/Impeccability From: laz To: Gene Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 03, 2000 at 13:43:42 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Gene - the Trinity is not only clear in it's existence but is indispensible
to having a systematic/logical understanding of scripture. And don't
give me any 'yeah, yeah'! ;-) The doctrine is clear (the bible is
replete with undeniable references to it) in the sense that we can
and must apprehend it (hang on to it for dear life) ... even if
we can't fully comprehend it. We are speaking about the nature of
an infinite being you know... laz p.s. ...I only reserve the 1Cor2:14 for some folks and only when
they get way ahead of themselves (or the Bible) or clearly show
heretical tendencies ...hehehe
Subject: Re: Peccability/Impeccability From: Gene To: laz Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 03, 2000 at 15:16:34 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
The doctrine is clear (the bible is replete with undeniable references
to it) in the sense that we can and must apprehend it (hang on to
it for dear life) ... even if we can't fully comprehend it. We are
speaking about the nature of an infinite being you know... OH yeah!
Clear as mud! Sure we can understand how Jesus is 100% human and
100% God. Just look at all the posts in this thread! It is easy
to quote scripture to try and 'prove' the Trinity BUT when it comes
time to making sense of it no one can explain what they believe.
Look in any GOOD Bible dictionary and you will see the disagreement
among scholars on this 'clear-cut' teaching. It is not as black
and white as you say. The posts prove it!
Subject: Get Real, Gene From: laz To: Gene Date Posted: Thurs, Feb 03, 2000 at 21:06:32 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
I guess because the historicity of Christ's resurrection, his deity,
and other core beliefs have been doubted by many different religious
systems, including liberal 'christians' ... we ought not get too
dogmatic about anything concerning the scriptures. Besides ... no
one but YOU has called the Trinity into question. Taking your logic,
we might as well throw out the Bible for who can understand it?
The Holy Spirit is certainly not been teaching anyone how to read
and understand it... Pls, don't make me whip out 1 Cor 2:14 on ya...
laz
Subject: Just being honest From: Gene To: laz Date Posted: Fri, Feb 04, 2000 at 02:57:24 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
laz, I am just being honest. How can you say this doctrine is clear
when these posts show so many different opinions? Look at Rod, for
example, he left because of what he calls 'a fundamental truth'
(even you disagreed with him). I believe it was you who said God
and Jesus never speerated. But what about Jesus accusing God of
forsaking him? You never did address that! If God did forsake him
does not this make the sacrifice blemished? These are honest questions
that must be addressed when the trinity doctrine is being taught.
And yes, 1 Cor 2:14 is such an easy answer to give!!!!!!!!!!!!
Subject: Re: Just being honest From: laz To: Gene Date Posted: Fri, Feb 04, 2000 at 08:19:04 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Gene - first of all, we are dealing with a mystery firmly rooted
in scripture - a point that's been reiterated repeatedly on this
forum. Also, Jesus Christ NEVER stopped being very God...even during
the incident on the Cross. The Father, foresook the Son (in His humanity) on the
Cross as He represented sin on our behalf...nothing out of step
with the rest of scripture and with how we find God manifesting
Himself and His attributes to us in the Bible. Just what IS your
issue with Christ Jesus being deity? And the personhood and deity
of the Holy Spirit? Just so we know where you are coming from...perhaps
we can help you? ;-) As for Rod...he is thoroughly orthodox in his
appropriation of the Trinity...he merely disagrees on a particular
aspect and is frankly out of step with historic Christendom in his
understanding of the dual natures of Christ, in my opinion. His
thinking is muddled, but I don't consider him any less a brother
in Christ than my own pastor. The point is that Rod's opinion or
mine do NOTHING to call into question the doctrine of the Trinity...NOTHING.
You'll have to find another avenue to express your disbelief (or
sincere confusion) in the indisputable. laz
Subject: Re: The Perfection of the Lord Jesus From: Pilgrim To: lindell Date Posted: Mon, Jan 31,
2000 at 22:02:52 (PST) Email Address:Not
Provided
Message: lindell,
I haven't any idea who you were
addressing your message to? But no one here has ever even intimated
that the Lord Christ had a 'sin nature'. If that were true, then
His life and death were a sham. Worse yet, the God of all holiness
has not only put over the world's biggest sham, but He would be
a liar far worse than Satan Himself, for He accepted Christ's sacrifice
as being perfect and efficacious for the sins of His people. Adam
had the 'ability' to sin, but until he actually committed the act
or even entertained the idea of rebelling in a positive way, he
was not under judgment and still qualified by God's own appellation,
'very good'! The freedom to do right or wrong does not equate to
being imperfect nor sinful. And I believe this is the misunderstanding
here. IF the Lord Christ had the freedom/ability to sin, does that
of necessity make Him imperfect? And on the other side, IF the Lord
Christ had no ability to sin whatsoever, then how is it that He
is the Saviour of men, who did that which they were unable to do
for themselves; ie., resist all temptation, suffer the assaults
of the Evil One and merit a perfect righteousness in men's stead?
Again, everyone here who has as their own by grace a profession
of faith in the Lord Christ, as the only begotten Son of the Living
God, being very man of very man and very God of very God, has (to
the best of my knowledge) rejected any notion of the Lord Christ
as possessing any semblance of sin. The key is echoed in your own
words, 'to entertain for one moment that
maybe the Lord could sin if He wanted to . . .'
And this is why the Lord Christ was indeed qualified to be the Saviour
of sinners, for He never WANTED TO SIN. He was obedient even unto
death and thus secured the redemption of those who were not nor
could be 'obedient unto death.' Now the remainder of what you said
was ludicrous at best. To suggest that the Lord Christ could have
deceived the Father by allegedly covering up some sin, not once
but even several times is to disdain and deny the Omniscience of
God and worse yet one would have to conclude that the Godhead itself
was involved in a devious plot in the entire matter of redemption.
It doesn't take a 'simpleton' nor an 'imbecile' to see the fallacy
and blaspheme involved in such a thing. Lastly, I resent the personal
attack upon the knowledge the LORD God has given me which I have
unfeignly used for the edification of others. However, I believe
this unwarranted outburst of yours stems from your complete misunderstanding
the issue at hand, and thus I hold no animosity toward you whatsoever.
I would however, encourage you to not remain boastful in your professed
'hopeless imbecile' state and move on in your life to partake of
that which is more substantial.
In His Precious Blood, Pilgrim
Subject: Re: The Perfection of the Lord Jesus From: Rod To: laz Date Posted: Sun, Jan 30,
2000 at 20:41:51 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: laz, In all honesty and with respect, I don't recall
your dealing with the numerous texts I gave in evidence, although
you shouted 'TEXTS' in your post. An exegesis would seem to be required
before they can be rejected outright. but, if you're through, so
am I.
Subject: You didn't 'miss the chapter and verse' you just deny
God's truth. n/t From: Rod To: Gene Date Posted: Fri, Jan 28, 2000 at 20:38:38 (PST) Email Address:na
Message:
Subject: Good answer! From: Gene To: Rod Date Posted: Sat, Jan 29, 2000 at 04:09:24 (PST) Email Address:Not Provided
Message:
Subject: Re: The Perfection of the Lord Jesus From: Anne To: Rod Date Posted: Fri, Jan 28,
2000 at 18:09:30 (PST) Email Address:anneivy@home.com
Message: Has this board ever dealt
with the fact that the Lord Jesus Christ, though fully man, was
unable to sin? Not while I have been monitoring
it, anyway, Rod. I wonder how He was able to, in effect, represent
us without a sin nature (mercy knows, I am NOT suggesting that's
a problem!), since it is one of the defining attributes of being
human. I guess I had always been taught that He understands what
we go through, because He was tempted in the ways we are, though
He never fell. But I would rather think the sin nature would be
a prerequisite for the temptation. If one's nature is perfect, can
one be tempted to do wrong? Or desire the wrong things? I am, no
doubt, wrong, wrong, wrong!!! Truth is, I'd never really given it a lot of thought
one way or t'other. That probably needs to be remedied. I'll get
right on that! ;-> Anne
Subject: Anne--'I'll get right on that!' From: Rod To: Anne Date Posted: Fri, Jan 28, 2000 at 18:27:32 (PST) Email Address:na
Message: Good deal, sister Anne, let us know what you discover!
:>) I think you will want to pay particular attention to the
meaning of the word 'tempt' and 'tempted.' I suggest also that you
look at Mark 1:9-13; Matthew 4:1-11; 17:5; 2 Cor. 5:21; Gal. 2:20;
1 John 2:1; and conclude with Rom. 8:2-4). (BTW, the list is far
from exhaustive.) Good 'hunting! :>)