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Mar 5th, 2017
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California State Assembly Bill 2943 would make it illegal for “gay conversion therapy”. This Bill according to many will eventually make it so the Bible itself will be illegal in California; because it is opposed to homosexuality. I am not really a fan of Snopes, but I am using it because it seems to represent the Left quite well and they say this accusation is false for the following reasons. The legislation was introduced in February 2018 by San Jose-based Democrat Evan Low, enhances California’s already-existing prohibition on “sexual orientation change efforts” (SOCE), commonly known as “gay conversion therapy.” In 2012, the California Assembly passed Senate Bill 1172, which banned mental health professionals from performing SOCE on children under the age of 18. The law defines SOCE as: “any practices by mental health providers that seek to change an individual’s sexual orientation. This includes efforts to change behaviors or gender expressions, or to eliminate or reduce sexual or romantic attractions or feelings toward individuals of the same sex.” https://www.snopes.com/fact-check/california-bible-ban/As I look at what they are saying concerning this accusation being false. Their own writing on the so called facts, if I am not mistaken could be taken as a ban on the Bible itself. Although they mention ”mental health professionals” ; would this not include Christians who are trained in Biblical Counselling? The Bible is very clear concerning homosexuality and it is the job of any true Biblical Counsellor to represent the Bible properly; knowing that the Gospel is the power of God unto salvation…Romans 1:16. Would it not be logical then to conclude, that Snopes claiming the accusation is false, to be wrong? Tom |
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Does it mean that a church ascribes to a confession of faith, or can it mean that a church ascribes to a statement of faith with might entail 5-10 points? Or, maybe there is really not a specific meaning, but one that is thrown around a lot?
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I have a question related to Dispensationalism.
I have heard it said that many Dispensationalists actually believe that salvation is different for Jews than it is for Gentiles.
I am trying to find out if this is a truthful statement and if so, who are the main teachers who believe it?
Tom
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We are watching a video series on Apologetics with RC. Sproul as the lecturer. It has been a great series, but I wonder about this. I have heard that Sproul in his later years became a Partial Preterist. Well, in a recent video lession, he just said the destruction of the Temple was in 70 AD. If i remember correctly, most commentators will give 66 AD as the date, and doesn't Partial Preterists tend to date John's Epistles much earlier than the consensus of 90-95 AD. Just wondering if the 70 AD remark gives an indication of his Partial Preterism?
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