I don't want to add to any unpleasantness, but in the interests of accuracy I must say that the translation of a Greek aorist participle into the pluperfect is not uncommon in the NT.

Consider Luke 4:17:-
'Kai anaptuxas to bibliov, heure ton topon hou en gegrammenon.' Literally, 'And having opened ('unrolled') the book he found the place where it was written....'.
[Sorry, I don't know how to get a Greek font on this board]

'Anaptuxas' is an aorist participle. 'Heure' is an aorist verb. What is happening here? First, the Lord Jesus opens the book, then he finds the place. In English we tend not to use aorist participles; we would be more likely to use a temporal clause. That is why the NKJV translation, with absolute correctness, renders the passage, 'And when He had opened(pluperfect) the book, he found the place where it was written....'.

This is by no means rare in the NT. Check it out.

Blessings to all,

Itinerant Preacher & Bible Teacher in Merrie England.
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