Just some comments about the post you listed:
1) The writer seems to have an inaccurate definition of the word "perfection." Perfection is translated from telios, that implies bringing something to completion. In the case of what Paul was discussing in 1 Corinthians 13:8ff, something acts upon the specific gifts of prophecy, knowledge and tongues, to bring them to completion. I take that to mean the completion of scripture, when God would have revealed everything the Church of God needs to know in order to grow in the knowledge of Christ. He is basically saying that the gifts have fulfilled the purpose for what they were intended.
2) I want to see some of the sources he lists. Where does he get this information about Irenaeus speaking in tongues? The quote from Wesley? Are those historical comments in context of what the original author was intending to convey? One of the biggest problems with Christians quoting our historic brethern from the past is misstating what they actually were saying.
3) The writer just assumes the perfect of 1 Cor. 13:10 is the second coming of Christ with out any exegetical discussion. Does the text sincerely bring us to that conclusion? On what basis does the author draw that confident conclusion for himself? I also appreciate the fact that he limits any objections by saying "If you can show me from any other passage but that one" which is to say, "If you can only show me tongues have ceased from any other passages but the one that says they have ceased." What kind of logic is that?
I personally would ask a handful of questions:
1. Can all Christians speak in tongues or seek to speak in tongues?
If yes, then how does such a position square with what Paul just wrote in 1 Corinthians 12:11 that states that it is the Spirit that distributes the gifts at his will, not the Christian's?
2. Why are tongues even necessary for worship?
3. If tongues are for the entire Christian body, then why is it that only charismatic/pentecostal Churches the ones to experience them? It would only seem that if God is active among all of his people through out all of the world, and if tongues are still a legitimate gift for any and all believers, then tongues would be being manifested in many congregations irregardless of denomination. They should be present in Bible Churches, OPC churches, and the like, not just charismatic, Assemblies of God, etc.
4. Are these tongues spoken real, genuine earthly languages?
5. When this person speaks in tongues, does he have the tongue interpreted immediately as Paul states the tongue should be in 1 Cor. 14:6ff?
I am sure some other folks can add some additional thoughts to mine, but those things ought to give you something to think about.
Fred
Oh yes, I meant to add this link. It is a transcript of a lecture my boss gave at a shepherd's conference. It is helpful in laying foundations concerning charismatics:
Combating Charismatic Theology
