J Edwards said
"Christ died in a general way for all. There are benefits for both believers and non-believers. There is common grace applied to all in the Crucifixion. A good example of this is the preaching of the Word of God (the Gospel, the death, burial, and resurrection) to the unsaved. The mere fact they even hear it is common grace, et. al....."

I am not sure if I agree with this statement. Im not sure if I would ever say "Christ died for all." I was taught that all my life, but totally disagree. I know you did not mean it in a soteriological way yet it seems that is the only way it can be meant. I agree that there is a common grace in preaching the gospel but that in no way means his death was "in a general way" for them. I remember the first time I heard someone, who was reformed, say Christ died for all was in an article by charles hodge called "whom Christ died."
I would be interested in the scripture used for this belief.
I am interested in others opinions. Thanks

Last edited by Soli Deo Gloria; Mon Dec 06, 2004 5:36 PM.