Soli Deo Gloria,

On 2 Cor. 5:14-19 you said "To not be universal, there must be some who have not died." Correctamundo my friend. The "all" in verse 14 refers to all of us who died in Christ and now live in him. So obviously not all have died.

Well, then you created a problem and a massive contradictionl. Vs 15 makes a separation from the all to the particular. So, now what do you do. Not all of your "who died in Christ" must still choose Christ. Some obviously do not. Also, a much bigger contradiction... how do you account that unbelievers will be raised in the last day, if Christ did not give them life. Do you just ignore that fact? You have God destroying part of His creation, at that, His highest created being, man.
Furthermore, can you show historically that the Holy Spirit actually preserved this teaching through the ages. That we actually had believers from Christ to the 16th century. Personally, I don't ever recall this teaching in my protestant days. This must be one of those very personal beliefs, not universal, like salvation was supposed to be. See Jude 3.

In 1 Cor 15:20-22 paul is clearly talking about BELIEVERS solidarity with adam (the first man) and Christ (the last man). In verse 20 paul mentions the firstfruits and is showing that because Christ, our representative, was the first to rise from the dead (acts 26:23) and it is now possible for the resurrection of believers. In verse 21 For as by a man (adam) came death, by a man(christ) has come also the resurrection of the dead. The resurrection of believers. In verse 22 it would be safe to say all (everyone) died in adam but the "all" paul uses is strictly all believers. Compare this to Rom 5:17-19.

Really, so there are some people who are actually still living from the time of creation. We know Adam was not one of them. It is not the solidarity of believers but the solidarity of mankind, creation actually. You still have the problem of unbelievers who will be resurrected.
Actually, I would really call you universalist in your view here. All men die, unless you can show as I just pointed out that some never die because not all have been effected by Adam. Only future believers are effected by your view. You have all die, thus all will be saved individually, that is what was condemned by the Church long ago.
Vs, 23 separates something, believers, I would say, from the all. Unless you ignore that little phrase, "who are Christ's". Or is this phrase been eliminated from your text?

In Rom 5:14-19 i would again encourage you to look at the context and who paul is speaking to. In this context paul is comparing adams disobedience with Christs obedience to God. As we see "Therefore" in verse 12 we know that this comparison relates to the preceding text about the benefits that come to those who put their faith in Chirst. And as i said before although it would be safe to say that death came to all men "all human beings", paul is using this in the limited sense to all who are in Christ. He had in mind those who were effected by adams sin and were ultimmately redeemed by Christ as we can see in verse 10 "when we were Gods enemies."
Your very words belie what you are attempting to prove. You state, "He had in mind those who were effe4cted by adams sin and were ultimately redeemd by Christ." That can only mean one thing, there were many who were not effected by Adams sin. Thus Christ did not need to redeem them. Really, "it would be safe to say that death came to all men ""all human beings"". My such a reality statement. You really think that there may be a possibility that some have not?
You use vs 10. This verse very clearly makes the separation as well. From universal redemption to those who are saved by His life. Life meaning resurrection. All men were reconciled in order that they may live IN Him. We do that by our choice. This is the Union of God with man. His created purpose.

Eph. 1:10 does not teach a universal redemption, but Christs reign over all things.
It actually teaches much more than that. He gathered all things and recreated them. He saved His universe. Mankind and the physical world. The only way you can wiggle out, it to show that He only saved some of the physical world as well. Then, if so, what part(s)?

In john 12:32 the "all" that is used here is used in a different way then we have seen earlyer. The "all" refers to "all kinds of", not all without distinction; see 1 tim 6:10 where the same greek word is translated "all kinds of".
Look also at john 6:44, if the "all" here refers to every individual then it would be logical to say that every individual will come to Jesus and will rise on the last day. That obviously is not the case
The context is different, but John 3:14 the context is the same. Here all those present could see the snake, and they needed to look upon the snake in order to be saved. Just by putting the snake up did not save all, but all did see or were drawn. Peoples actually here means both Jew and Gentile.

John 5:28-29 does teach that everyone will be raised but like the WCF says, not all will be raised to honour. WCF 32.3 "The bodies of the unjust shall, by the power of Christ, be raised to dishonour: the bodies of the just, by His Spirit, unto honour; and be made conformable to His own glorious body."
Well, that is a way to possibly solve your contradiction, but now, how does Christ raise all the dead, when He did not die for all to give life to all. Does He come again to die again for them. Or is this some extra miraculous event that is not really discribed in the Bible?
I might also, ask, if this be so, could He not have done this for the believers as well. Why die in the first place?
Also, why even raise them. Obviously, they are not saved. Must God somehow rub it in to them, raise them just to show them why they were not chosen as you probably would put it?

The same goes for Acts 23:6 and Acts 24:15. We do not deny a resurection.
If you read Paul in I Cor 15:12ff. The resurrection is tied to Christ. It affects all of mankind. That is because His redemption was universal. Life to all that we, believers, might live IN Him.

I would urge you to look at context. It would be safe to say that salvation comes by giving away everything that i own, if i ignored context.
I would strongly suggest it in your case. Not only the verse the the entirity of the Bible and its total message for mankind. Obviously you have ignored context. Because Christianity is precisely that. Giving up our all to be all in Christ. We give up our wills, so that they align with the will of the Father. Just as Christ did in the Garden of Gethsemene. It is also obvious that you do not need to do as the Rich Young Ruler.

I think you had better recheck the person who taught you this stuff. Clearly it is not following scripture even in the clear reading of it. You're trying to prove a supposition and must redefine terms, words, and ignore or explain away created contradictions.
However, if you can show somewhere through History that this teaching is visible and can be shown from the beginning to current history, you might have it right.