Free-will is alien to scripture.

So, first of all Christ had no will. I believe He is in Scripture, NO?

So , if it be so, how is this text interpreted if man has no will... Matt16:24.
There are some 200 or so verses that use this terminology. The clear implication that man choses, man desires, man abides, man does many things. So you say it is something else besides man's will, namely a decree from eternity that is implied here.

I would be interested in who taught this in the first generation past the disciples. If this were true, then their direct disciples would surely proclaim it as Truth. I might have missed it, but apparently you didn't. How about 4th century.
St Augustine believed man had a will. You take his teaching of predestination and total depravity but not the idea man has a will. Why not. Was he wrong with that aspect of his view?

Matthew 24:13 "But he who endures to the end shall be saved." Which word am i misinterpreting here if a will is not implied. Does" he who" really mean God will force me to endure or just how do you interpret this if man has no will.

You are right, I do not understand Calvinism. but I also know that there are probably several hundred versions of it, so who has Calvinism right, let alone Scripture as once given to the Apostles.