Pilgrim said:

I certainly would not dispute that the widow contributed more in her giving that her rich counterparts..... proportionately. But what those passages do not prescribe is the ubiquitous "10%" figure. Secondly, it wasn't the amount that Jesus was trying to convey but rather the disposition of the heart in one's giving.

The rub here is the requirement for one to be a good steward of what one has. If one were to give 10% (again it has not been established that this is a biblical mandate) and in so doing, one's family lacked the essentials of life, e.g., food, shelter, clothing, etc., then one would not be exhibiting good stewardship. If a family simply cannot afford to give a 10% tithe, then the church should be the one giving to them. <img src="/forum/images/graemlins/grin.gif" alt="" />

In His Grace,

You've made a very logical argument, Pilgrim. I just don't believe it's Biblical.

Where in Holy Scripture would you turn to support such a position?