The remainder of us...have asked for biblical arguments, e.g., exegesis of specific passages and/or reasonable rebuttals of our premise that the "tithe" belongs to the civil and/or ceremonial laws of theocratic Israel. Unfortunately, I have my doubts that any biblical defense will be forthcoming if what has gone before is any indication.

You aren't the only one!!! <img src="/forum/images/graemlins/Banghead.gif" alt="" />

Whatever position one holds on this matter, only one side in this argument (so far) has consistently attempted to "reason from the Scriptures" (Acts 17:2) as opposed to merely cutting and pasting passages of Scripture that rarely relate directly or unambiguously to the real issue at hand.

I don't wish to further muddy the waters, and forgive me if I missed this somewhere back in the first 80 posts; but, has anyone yet bothered to explain how and why most theologians (whether Dispensational or Covenantal) make a distinction between the moral, civil, and ceremonial laws of the Old Testament? Some folks here seem to be under the mistaken impression that these are nothing more than a clever excuse to ignore or abrogate God's eternal commandments, or as Kierkegaard put it, to "pad their breeches against the Law of God."

Where in the Bible is it taught that the tithe is "ceremonial?" C'mon. Are you guys making this stuff up as you go?

My sense (and it may be mistaken) is not that it is being denied that tithing should be classified as civil or ceremonial, but rather that "ceremonial law" and "civil law" are invalid distinctions or categories, since these terms do not appear explicitly in Scripture. Such a view (if anyone here in fact holds it) is mistaken and should be corrected.

"Law: Civic, Cermonial and Moral" - Richard Alderson

Westminster Confession of Faith XIX

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