In reply to:
[color:"blue"]I'm just saying that nobody called him Jesus (they didn't go up to him and speak the name Jesus). That is all.

Gee, I thought that would be a given; i.e., nobody during the time of Christ's earthly ministry spoke English! [img]http://www.the-highway.com/w3timages/icons/laugh.gif" alt="laugh" title="laugh[/img] Thus my consternation and questions in this regard. Why should the word translated into English as "Jesus", which is an accurate translation of the Greek be somehow given special notice and rejected over any other word which has been translated from the original languages? [Linked Image]

Actually, just to show how silly this entire idea is, on what basis would one choose between Matthew's inspired record of the name of Jesus as given in these two texts:

Matthew 1:21 (KJV) "And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins."

Matthew 1:23 (KJV) "Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us."
In reply to:
[color:"blue"]Again, my point is that it is inconsistent for those who DEMAND we say Yahweh to then say Jesus.

There may be others, but I can think of only one group which demands that the name of God be something particular. That group is the JW's who say that the "name of God" is Jehovah. The argument for this is ludicrous, since as you are probably more than aware, the Hebrew is but four consonants and no vowels. Thus it could be either Jehovah or Yahweh. And, there are many other names which are ascribed to God throughout the Old and New Testaments.

Of course, the Oneness Pentecostals also make a big todo about the "name" of God. But their arguments are even more incredulous. [img]http://www.the-highway.com/w3timages/icons/grin.gif" alt="grin" title="grin[/img]

In His Grace,


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simul iustus et peccator

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