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Tom
Kelowna, British Columbia, Canada
Posts: 4,893
Joined: April 2001
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Joined: Feb 2004
Posts: 187
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Joined: Feb 2004
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Yes, but he does not say, "If you do not have both, baptize by pouring." He couldn't, because baptism is dipping. I fully agree that when sufficient water was not available, pouring (affusion) was regarded by the Didache as acceptable. That, however, is not the point I was making.
FWIW, in my church, we will accept into membership folk who have been 'christened' as infants and do not feel it right to be 'baptized' again. My point is solely concerning the Greek.
Steve
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