Originally Posted by MikeL
You argue that God does not force man to choose, because man chooses according to his nature.

Who gave man his nature?
It would appear once again that you are refusing to acknowledge that something radical happened at the Fall and to distinguish between Adam's nature in its prelapsarian state and Adam and all his posterity in his postlapsarian state.

Since you choose to be selectively ignorant of what has been written on this subject, e.g., whatever C.S. Lewis wrote is compulsory reading along with now Aquinas, the best way to refute your error is to quote inspired writers, which I have already done but you dismissed them too, e.g., all the texts I provided for your perusal beginning with Gen 6:5, 8:21, Jer 3:13, etc., etc. But because I believe that Scripture stands on its own since it is God's infallible and inerrant revelation I shall continue to quote His Word to either your salvation or damnation:

Quote
Romans 5:12 (ASV) "Therefore, as through one man sin entered into the world, and death through sin; and so death passed unto all men, for that all sinned:--... (18) Romans 5:18 (ASV) So then as through one trespass [the judgment came] unto all men to condemnation; even so through one act of righteousness [the free gift came] unto all men to justification of life."
God created man (Adam and Eve) very good, upright (Gen 1:27,31; Eccl 7:29) but they transgressed God's law. I'm sure you are familiar with the historical account of the Fall, correct? Thus, in the beginning, man was created with the imago dei. But after the Fall, all Adam's progeny were created in his (Adam) image (Gen 5:3). The spiritual death which God had promised in the curse for disobedience fell upon Adam, Eve and all men, thus this spiritual death, aka: corruption of nature was inherited by all as Paul clearly teaches in Romans 5:12-18.


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simul iustus et peccator

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