Originally Posted by Cranmer
The first section you quoted from the WCF refers to Adam's condition PRIOR to the fall. The last section clearly denies free will exists.

The human nature prior to the fall is not predetermined to good or evil. But that does not prove that Adam had two equal choices as the libertarian free will view espouses. God has free will but does God have the liberty to become the author of evil acts? Not at all. So the natural liberty you refer to in Adam does not and never could say that Adam had "libertarian" free will. Adam was free from original sin or any corruption of nature prior to the fall. AFTER the fall the human nature IS predetermined to wickedness:...
Once again, you have failed to address what I wrote and the subject of man's "free agency" vs. "free-will", as held by semi-Pelagians. Historic Arminianism, ala the 'Remonstrance' was biblically sound. Their solution to man's dilemma, his corruption of nature, is in error and heretical; prevenient grace.

I do not hold to any form of "libertarian free-will" so you can desist from implying any such nonsense. My position has been stated with great clarity and often enough and is that which is held by all of the Reformers, Puritans and Reformed Confessions & Catechisms. Man can only think, speak and will that which is according to his nature. According to a man's nature, he has the freedom of choice. In short, he is a "free agent".

On the matter of Adam, he was SOLELY predisposed to all righteousness, for he was created upright. Thus the conundrum of HOW he fell. God decreed that he would, but God's decree never forces a man's will, vis-a-vis WCF IX.

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simul iustus et peccator

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