Originally Posted by Charlemagne
Hello Pilgrim,

If God's attitude does not "change" then how would you understand a verse such as this:

"And through Him to reconcile all to Him(making peace through the blood of His cross), through Him, whether those on the earth or those in the heavens." (Col 1:20)

Does this reconciliation and "making peace" have only to do with our attitude toward God or does it involve God's attitude toward believers also?

Or how about these two verses:

Psalm 103:9 He will not always chide, nor will he keep his anger forever.

Who is a God like you, pardoning iniquity
and passing over transgression
for the remnant of his inheritance?
He does not retain his anger forever,
because he delights in steadfast love.(Mic 7:18)

These verses seem to show a "change" in God's attitude from "Anger" to "not angry".
Again, as stated above, it is utterly impossible for God to "change His mind" when the object to which His attitude rests. What happens is that the sinner who is under the just judgment and wrath of God is clothed with the righteousness of Christ, God sees that sinner as a totally different being; righteous by imputation. Thus, God is pleased with that individual because he/she is no longer "seen" as wicked but rather righteous in Christ. I already provided a text for this fundamental truth previously...

Ephesians 1:3-6 (ASV) "Blessed [be] the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who hath blessed us with every spiritual blessing in the heavenly [places] in Christ: even as he chose us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blemish before him in love: having foreordained us unto adoption as sons through Jesus Christ unto himself, according to the good pleasure of his will, to the praise of the glory of his grace, which he [b]freely bestowed on us in the Beloved:
Until the sinner is united to Christ via repentance and a Spirit-wrought faith, which is instrumental in justification, the imputation of the Lord Christ's perfect righteousness (legal transaction), God's wrath rests upon Him (Eph 2:3). But after the sinner is united to the Lord Christ, he is deemed a son and brought into the kingdom of God wherein awaits a glorious inheritance promised to the saints. So again, it isn't that God "changes His mind", but rather the circumstances change and God's wrath which is appeased through the propitiatory sacrifice of Christ is no longer existent because the sinner is declared not guilty.

Originally Posted by Charlemagne
I don't want to reject anything that is true. Why not provide a few verses that speak about Jesus Christ suffering the wrath of God or being punished and we'll discuss.
See above in my last response to you. There are a number of passages referenced which clearly show God's wrath was poured out on the Lord Christ at the crucifixion. The wrath which was due to those for whom Christ died was owned by Christ and which He received by the Father. The Lord Christ was punished for the elect's transgressions of the law.

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simul iustus et peccator

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