re: "Why don't you open up, and tell us where you stand, and exactly what your purpose and reasoning is in asking this question? "

My stance/position is that if someone asserts that it was common in the 1st century or before to forecast or say that a daytime or a night would be involved with an event when no part of a daytime or no part of a night time could occur, then that person would have to know of examples in order to legitimately make the assertion of commonality. That is this topic's only issue. And I'm simply curious if it was indeed common usage of the time.

BTW, you have a couple of questions directed to you in post #55417.