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John_C
John_C
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#36682 - Mon May 28, 2007 8:32 AM An offshoot of Robin's point  
Joined: Sep 2001
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John_C Offline
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John_C  Offline

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Robin asked,
Quote
True or False? Our salvation is based on perfect obedience to the Ten Commandments.

Answer: True!


This may be a left field question.

For those who do not distinquish the moral law from the civil law, do they say that our salvation is based on Jesus' perfect obedience to the Ten Commandments or do they add on the Civil law?

Jesus is not mentioned in God's economy of the the civil law, and Jesus perfect obedience to the moral law abrogated the need of the Ceremonial law. Is the first part of my last sentence correct?


John Chaney

"having been firmly rooted and now being built up in Him and established in your faith . . ." Colossians 2:7
#36683 - Mon May 28, 2007 9:17 AM Re: An offshoot of Robin's point [Re: John_C]  
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John_C said:
Jesus is not mentioned in God's economy of the the civil law, and Jesus perfect obedience to the moral law abrogated the need of the Ceremonial law. Is the first part of my last sentence correct?

John,

It would be better to phrase your statement in a manner similar to: Jesus' perfect (active) obedience of the moral law is that which is imputed to the believer in justification. The civil law was abrogated (fulfilled) at the coming of Christ, since it was restricted/specific to Israel as a theonomic nation of God. And the ceremonial law was a shadow of His actual (passive) obedience, aka: atonement.

Put another way, the keeping of the Moral Law is Christ's active obedience and His death is the fulfilling of the ceremonial law; passive obedience. His active obedience does not abrogate the ceremonial law since the two are mutually exclusive yet inseparable for the accomplishment of redemption.

In His grace,


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simul iustus et peccator

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#36684 - Mon May 28, 2007 2:47 PM Re: An offshoot of Robin's point [Re: Pilgrim]  
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Peter Offline
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Okay got to ask this since Covenant theologians traditionally separate the Law into three components (Moral, Civil, Ceremonial) and since Christ fulfilled the Law's requirements how did he fulfill the Civil?


Peter

If you believe what you like in the gospels, and reject what you don't like, it is not the gospel you believe, but yourself. Augustine of Hippo
#36685 - Mon May 28, 2007 3:47 PM Re: An offshoot of Robin's point [Re: Peter]  
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by faith ?


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#36686 - Mon May 28, 2007 4:10 PM Re: An offshoot of Robin's point [Re: Peter]  
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Boanerges said:
Okay got to ask this since Covenant theologians traditionally separate the Law into three components (Moral, Civil, Ceremonial) and since Christ fulfilled the Law's requirements how did he fulfill the Civil?

Hiya! [Linked Image]
Since the civil law was not a requirement of individuals as to their application, albeit they were subject to it, but to the nation of Israel, Christ was not under obligation to keep it, although He did press the Pharisees at times as representatives of Israel to do so, e.g., cf. Jh 8:1-11; 10:31-33. As I previously wrote:


The civil law was abrogated (fulfilled) at the coming of Christ, since it was restricted/specific to Israel as a theonomic nation of God.


In His grace,


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simul iustus et peccator

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#36687 - Mon May 28, 2007 9:48 PM Re: An offshoot of Robin's point [Re: Pilgrim]  
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Robin Offline
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Jesus fulfilled the ceremonial Law in that He was and is the substance that is represented by the "type and shadow" which was the ceremonial law. The ceremonial law prefigured Christ's work. The ceremonial law is the gospel proclaimed in the Old Testament. Christ's obedience fulfilled the whole law - moral, ceremonial, and civil.

He fulfilled the civil law in the same way. Just as the ceremonial laws of ancient Israel were "type and shadow" of the heavenly and spiritual (Hebrews 8:2), so also the civil laws, I suggest, were type and shadow of His eternal kingdom that is not of this world, but whose character and nature are reflected in the earthly type and shadow of the law. The whole law.

By His grace,
Robin


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