I have a question concerning the hermeneutics of Dispensational Premillennialism and Historic Premillennialism.

It is my understanding that the New Testament should interpret the Old Testament.
However, as you are aware, Dispensational Premillennialism interprets the opposite way.
Someone told me that not only does Dispensational Premillennialism interpret it that way, but Historic Premillennialism also interprets the same way.
If that is correct, it surprises me, mainly because many Historic Premillennialism are confessional and it has been my understanding that confessional Christians believe the New Testament interprets the Old Testament.
Can someone shed any light on this particular aspect?