Matthew said:
. . . but I hold an alternitive view of particular atonement, that of particular redemption. I believe that Christ died to atone for the sins of the world, but that atonement is only effective for those He redeemed.
I apologize up front and confess I am going
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with my question. <img src="/forum/images/graemlins/rolleyes2.gif" alt="" />
The question is simple enough: Is the term "particular redemption" as you define it, actually represent Amyraldianism?
My reason for asking is that historically, particular redemption has been used as a synonym for Definite Atonement or Limited Atonement which holds that Christ suffered the penalty for only the elect, albeit IF He had intended to do so, His sacrifice
would have been sufficient for the entire human race. This is decidedly different than saying that He "atoned for the sins of the world", w/o qualification.
In His grace,