Jesus did not make a distinction of what aspect of a child was good or bad, so i take it to be the whole child.
Try again. Jesus specifically points to the child's HUMILITY: "Whoever then
humbles himself as this child, he is the greatest in the kingdom of heaven" (Matt. 18:4).
"God is forced to love us" This kind of reasoning is called"setting up a straw man,so you can easily knock him down" and is not credible reasoning.
It's a perfectly legitimate response. You say that if God made man to love Him without also giving man the freedom to sin, then that love would be meaningless. If God loves all men, as you seem to believe, then it's fair to ask whether God can commit sin. If He cannot commit sin, what makes God's love meaningful? The real problem is not with my reasoning, but with yours, which is both unscriptural and irrational.
The scripture is replete with the teaching that all men sin, does it teach anywhere that babies sin?
Ps. 58:3: "The wicked are estranged from the womb; these who speak lies go astray from birth." Besides which, babies are a category of "men," just as women are a category of "men." "Men" refers to mankind generally, not to adults exclusively.
"After how long" after they know to choose to do good or evil, the same as Adam.
Adam knew what to do before he ate from the tree. God had already commanded him and told him the punishment for disobedience.
Gen.6:5 offers no clarity to this discussion at all.
What do you mean it offers no clarity? It says: "Then the LORD saw that the wickedness of man was great on the earth, and that every intent of the thoughts of his heart was only evil continually." Seems pretty clear to me that since the Fall man has an evil heart all the time. Not just after he has gotten big enough.
We are created in Gods image and at the same time we are "distorted", i think we distort ourselves later on when we choose to do evil. Romans 5: All have sinned. To sin is to transgress the law of God; to do wrong. The apostle in this expression does not say that all have sinned in Adam, or that their nature has become corrupt, which is true, but which is not affirmed here; nor that the sin of Adam is imputed to them; but simply affirms that all men have sinned. He speaks evidently of the great universal fact that all men are sinners. He is not settling a metaphysical difficulty; nor does he speak of the condition of man as he comes into the world. He speaks as other men would; he addresses himself to the common sense of the world; and is discoursing of universal, well-known facts. Here is the fact—that all men experience calamity, condemnation, death. How is this to be accounted for? The answer is, "All have sinned." This is a sufficient answer; it meets the case.
You seem to be ignoring about half of the passage in question. Rom. 5:15 has, "by the transgression of the one the many died." The many died because of Adam's sin. In v. 16, "for on the one hand the judgment arose from one transgression resulting in condemnation." One transgression resulted in condemnation (which results in death to all, so the condemnation is upon all). In v. 17, "by the transgression of the one, death reigned through the one." Death reigned over all men through the sin of one man. In v. 18, "So then as through one transgression there resulted condemnation to all men." Through Adam's one sin, all men were condemned! Then v. 19, "through the one man's disobedience the many were made sinners." The many were made sinners because of Adam's disobedience! The conclusion: In Adam's fall, we sinned all. Adam's sin is our own sin.
