John B said:
(i)The scriptures seem to have a much wider view of the use of the gifts than "just a sign". The letter to Corinth list several gifts in Ch 12 - most of which are presumed to have "passed away" by the Cessationists - but only one of which is actually said to be a "sign" - tongues.
Yet even Charismatics call them "
signs and wonders." All of the supernatural events in Scripture were signs - many were
covenant signs for God's people, and some (far less) were for those outside the covenant community.
All miracles were signs and all had a purpose even though the miracles themselves differ.
Prophecy, Healing, discernment of spirits and miracles are not there said to be "signs" though I suppose one could argue a case for that by inference from Romans 16. But prophecy, as you noted, is "a sign for believers (1st Cor 14:22)."
But in actual fact Paul does not say here that prophecy is a "sign for unbelievers" - the word "sign' does not appear a second time. By implication it is not a "sign" because "signs" are for outsiders.
An invalid assumption. The great majority of miracles were signs intended for and directed at
the people of God and those doing His work. The Scripture is replete with covenant signs for His people - from the rainbow and the Sabbath, Gideon's fleece, the prophesying of King Saul, and the babe wrapped in cloths lying in a manger - to the signs described in 1st Corinthians 12-14 and at the end of the age. Also, the language of 1st Corinthians 14:22
necessarily requires that prophecy is a sign, because of the repeated "not this, but that" grammatical form.
Why should something that is "for believers" and "edifies, encourages and comforts believers" pass away at the end of the first century?
It becomes then, very poor exegesis to run through a list of gifts in 1 Cor 12 and pick and choose which ones are still with us and which ones are not. It sounds more like a matter of opinion.
The
sign gift of prophecy - the one in which the thoughts and secrets of the "unlearned who enters" are supernaturally exposed - is not comparable to "preaching" the word of God. The closest thing we have to an
office of prophet, however, are those who teach and exhort from God's word.
(ii) Also I query the assertion that they were signs "ONLY for the Jews". This is the obvious implication of your statement:
"But "perfection" (completion, not sinlessness and incorruption) did come and was fully realized in the first century when God dealt with the single generation that rejected Christ and saw the end of the Old Covenant."
Quite correct. Tongues was a covenant sign to a single generation of
unbelieving Jews - the ones who rejected Christ and became the chief opponents of the gospel in the first century. I did much more than "imply" that in my article. I assert it as the basis for defining the sign gift of tongues/interpretation and it's purpose.
If they were signs "ONLY for the Jew" then why did Paul bother to "fully preach the gospel... with signs... "throughout the Gentile world. (Rom 16)?
I explained all of this in my article.
Paul is the one who describes tongues as a sign of judgement against the
Jews who followed Paul everywhere opposing the gospel. Paul applied that description (look at the passage Paul quoted - a doomsday prophecy of judgement upon
unbelieving Israel) to the sign of
tongues, but
not to the sign of prophecy, which he describes as a sign to
believing Christians. Two signs - meant for two different people groups. Paul's instructions had to do with the use of the sign meant for unbelievers among believers and vice versa.
Another Question:
Why is "perfection" defined as when "God dealt with the single generation that rejected Christ and saw the end of the Old Covenant"?
For two reasons:
Because the word perfection means
completion, and
Because the signs
purpose had been served when the events to which they pertained had been completed.
Such a definition suits a Cessationist theory - but nowhere does the Bible say this. What the Bible says is that "when the perfect comes" these gifts shall cease we shall and see "face to face" (1 Cor 13).
Changing the definition of the word "perfect" is not a valid argument, nor is misrepresenting your opponents' argument. Perfect, in the Bible, means "complete." And what is "fully known" is Jesus - the Substance of the shadow.
What was the "face to face" seeing that occurred at the end of the 1st Century that necessitated the passing away of the gifts? How did the end of the 1st Century bring us to a point where we "know fully"? How did the destruction of Jerusalem and the Jewish state bring about this "perfect knowledge" and "face to face" seeing?
By fulfilling the Olivet prophecy (Matthew 23-24). The signs persisted for a period of 40 years (one generation) from the ascension to the destruction of the Temple, putting a permanent end to animal sacrifice and bringing the Old Covenant to a close.
By fulfilling all of the Old Covenant. The Substance replaced the Shadow when He disarmed and triumphed over the rulers and authorities (Colossians 2:15), freeing His people from the requirements of the Old Covenant (verse 16-17). God's eternal Plan - first shown in type and shadow and mystery, was
now fully known to the Church because Christ has come and fulfilled all. Hebrews 1:1 says exactly that!
The word "revelation" implies a mystery
disclosed. That mystery -
now known - was Christ.
I can't respond point-by-point because my time is very limited, but most of the questions you're asking are addressed in the articles - from the purpose of the signs (both to believers and to unbelievers) to the historical fulfillment of the things they signified. The signs have ceased because the things they signified were fulfilled in the first century. There is no need to warn of a hurricane that has already passed and dissipated. The warnings cease when the storm has arrived. And they certainly don't continue hundreds of years after the storm has passed. That is the nutshell version of the Cessationist argument.
