Originally Posted by glew
While we are on the subject of semantics maybe you could help with another one of my problems?

When the Lord gave the law to Moses the two of them put it in writing. So when the children of Israel caught a guy “working” on the Sabbath why did Moses have to ask the Lord what to do?
1. Welcome to The Highway Discussion Board.

2. The difference between "Armenian" and "Arminian" is decidedly not a matter of semantics. wink The former is defined as Chestnutmare graciously provided in her reply. The latter refers to one who in essence holds to the doctrines as espoused by the followers of Jacobus Arminius in their Remonstrance issued at the great Synod of Dordrecht in 1618. (see HERE)

3. I too would like to see the biblical passage(s) you are referring to in regard to Moses asking God for guidance on how to deal with Sabbath breakers. In the meanwhile, I would like to answer your question with another question. When you read the Fourth Commandment (Ex 20:8-11; Deut 5:12-15), do you find anything there that would give any indication as to what consequences would come about if one did not obey it? In fact, when looking at any/all of the Ten Commandments, do you find what consequences would befall those who transgress any/all of them? scratchchin

In His grace,


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simul iustus et peccator

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