The Highway Forums General Discussion Theology Discussion Forum Security, infant salvation, and universalism

<blockquote><font size=1>In reply to:</font><hr>[color:"blue"]Having just read the passage in Acts before reading your post , the two contain interesting similarities - to my poor overactive mind at least.</font><hr></blockquote><p>So, just to interject a bit of humor (hopefully) here, may I assume then, that one must "see" in the Acts passage the parents of the soldiers actually brought their now grown "children" to Jesus for the purpose of having Him bless them? Would that be one of the "interesting similarities"? [img]http://www.the-highway.com/w3timages/icons/laugh.gif" alt="laugh" title="laugh[/img]<br><br>Now, back to the more mundane yet serious side of this topic. In my mind, it makes no difference whatsoever if the parents of the children came in faith, with a spurious faith, or a hatred of Christ. The passage doesn't speak to that issue directly or even implicitly. We may offer conjectures as to the spiritual state of these people who came to Christ with their children, but again, there is nothing IN THE TEXT that would indicate anything certain about this. And, if I may take this opportunity to point out again, no one has bothered to answer few if any of my other questions, which appear in my two replies to Stucco. Can one with certainty, show that this "blessing" given by Jesus to these children was salvific? And if it was, then doesn't the text then prove too much as He "blessed" all who came to Him and thus would that not mean that ALL children who are brought to Jesus (I'm not sure how one today does that, unless someone wants to equate that historical act to baptism?) without exception are "blessed" and thus saved, whether they die or not?<br><br>In His Grace,