The Highway Forums General Discussion Theology Discussion Forum omniscient

I think part of the problem is 'definition', i.e., how he is defining the word "omniscient". From what little you have provided, it could be he is using the word as a synonym for "foreordination" or "predestination". It is very common to hear objections to these other terms which allege that if God has foreordained/predestined all things then man cannot be held culpable for anything he does since this makes man nothing more than a robot or puppet. However, if he is defining "omniscient" as God's "foreknowledge", as used in Reformed theology, i.e., God's electing love upon those whom He has predestinated to eternal life in Jesus Christ, then his objection doesn't make any sense. Even if he means by "omniscient" how Arminians/semi-Pelagians define the term as simply 'prescience' (knowledge of raw facts), his statement is still not cogent.