My position that fornication is grounds for divorce is based on the idea that the word porneia in Matt 19:9 should be translated as fornication and not as adultery. Although it can’t be proven, I agree with the supposition that Jesus would have been more likely to use the word moicheia if he meant simple adultery.
Al, the problem I have with your explanation is that you haven't
defined what "fornication" is vs. "adultery". You only state that fornication is not adultery.
From my studies of the Greek word
porneia, it is a much broader term than "adultery", but includes adultery. In short, it encompasses all forms of unlawful sexual intercourse. If you have it on hand, I would recommend you consult
A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and other Early Christian Literature, by Arndt, Bauer and Gingrich (pp. 699-700). This is the standard lexical reference book used universally by students of Greek. Thus, adultery is a legitimate ground for divorce according to Jesus' teaching in Matt 19:9 for
porneia includes it within its scope.
Perhaps Hendriksen's footnote on
porneia in regard to Matt 19:9 will be helpful.
The term porneia ("fornication") is very broad in meaning. In its widest sense it indicates immorality or sexual sin in general (15:19; Gal 5:19), illicit (often clandestine) relationships of every description, particularly unlawful sexual intercourse (John 8:41). In Paul's epistles the word occurs frequently. In addition to Gal 5:19 see also 1Cor 5:1; 6:13, 18; 7:2; 2Cor 12:21; Eph 5:3; Col 3:5; 1Thess 4:32. In the book of Acts it occurs a few times; also several times in Revelation. In the latter book, as in the Old Testament (LXX), it may at times be used figuratively, to indicate departure from the Lord, who was considered his people's "husband." Hence, in such passages (see, for example, Hos 6:10 and Rev 19:2) it has at times been translated "whoredom," "harlotry," or even "idolatry." By reason of the context it is clear that here in Matt 19:9, as also in 54:32, the reference is to the infidelity of a married woman. - As to the other word, a form of the verb moichao, see on 5:32, where also the verb moicheuo is explained in the light of its context.
I am familiar with Piper's view and have to disagree with it as does his church's official statement. I find myself at variance with quite a number of Piper's views on important and less important subjects and thus consequently, I have little confidence in what he writes or says.
Thayer's & Smith's Bible Dictionary I think has the definition of
porneia right.
As you probably know, porneia is translated as sexual immorality in some modern translations (e.g. the ESV). IMO, the problem with translating porneia as sexual immorality is that sexual immorality is too broad and general and doesn’t adequately convey the meaning of porneia. Even though fornication is not an exact translation for porneia, I think it is better than adultery or sexual immorality.
I would agree with you here also in that "sexual immorality" is too broad and to use that as an accurate description of the word would allow divorce for things less grievous than adultery, e.g., looking at pornographic literature, flirtatiousness, etc., which are sinful practices to be sure but which I do not believe qualify as grounds for a divorce. Restricting the meaning of the word to
just adultery would do the opposite, i.e., disallow a divorce of a spouse who, e.g., is guilty of child molestation, bestiality, etc.
In His grace,
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