Originally Posted by AllToHim
Not following you here.
Sorry! [Linked Image] This was a comment in regard to your original post where you wrote:

... these two verses hands down, most absolutely, and without any doubt whatsoever, prove that a water baptism must be accomplished before salvation occurs. (I no longer believe this now, however)

Of course, the other construct argues that a water baptism is evidence of what has already happened, that is, it is not salvific.

Thus, my comment to both sides being in error only in opposite ways was in reference to:

#1 Baptism is a condition of salvation, i.e., baptism is a necessary and efficacious rite for salvation.
#2 Baptism is an infallible sign of the recipient actually possessing salvation.

In the case of #1, baptism contributes to salvation. And in #2, it signifies all (indiscriminately) who are baptized are saved. Scripture teaches neither. nope

Hopefully, this clears the confusion for you. shrug grin


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simul iustus et peccator

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