Originally Posted by via_dolorosa
Original draft posted on christianchat by saintmichaeldefendthem (me).

During the Sacrament of Reconciliation, we confess our sins, recounting first our capital sins and then our lessers. The priest, in the name of Jesus and by the authority of Christ's Church pronounces absolution in accordance with Christ's words,

John 20:23
If you forgive the sins of any, they are forgiven them; if you retain the sins of any, they are retained.”
1. Thanks for providing some information concerning the Roman Catholic practice of penance.

2. I find no biblical support for the confession of one's personal sins to a priest, minister, rabbi, or whoever. What I do find is a) confession of our sins to God, and b) confession of our sins committed against another to the one against whom the sin was done. (2Sam 19:19; 2Chron 7:14; Matt 18:15-17; Lk 15:17-21; 2Cor 7:9-11; Eph 4:32; Jam 5:16)

Originally Posted by via_dolorosa
Then the priest assigns penance. This usually takes the form of certain prayers, charity, or acts of kindness to another. Protestants often are confused over this thinking that the penitant is being asked to pay for sins that Jesus already paid for on the cross. But what is the real reason for penance?... Lk 19:8,9
1. Again, I find no biblical support for the "assigning of penance... in the form or certain prayers, charity, or acts of kindness to another." However, what I do find is that true repentance includes not only the acknowledgment of, confession of, turning from sin, but also the resolve to new obedience in regard to that sin. This 'resolve' includes both the ceasing and desisting of the sin but also, when possible, the making of reparation. (Lk 19:8; Eph 4:28)

2. Looking at Luke 19:8,9, which you offered as a proof text as a "reason for penance",
a) There was no confession to a priest (intermediary), but rather Zacchaeus spoke directly to God; Jesus Christ.
b) There was no assignment of penance by Christ but rather Zacchaeus himself expressed his conviction of sin along with the resolve to new obedience in his giving half of his wealth to the poor and his willingness to restore four-fold to those who he had cheated. These acts were the result of the inner working of the Spirit; a mark of grace.

Originally Posted by via_dolorosa
So we are clean before God, but our inclination to sin remains until, by an act of righteousness, we set our feet firmly back on the path of righteousness so that we do not easily fall into the same pattern of sin again. An act of penance is a pledge of good faith, a commitment to change our ways, and a sign that we are the sons of righteousness even when we occasionally sin. You don't even have to be Catholic to perform an act of penance and I recommend that all baptized Christians do so for the reasons stated.
Sorry, but I'm unclear as to what you are intending to relate here. scratch1 Are you saying that any act of alleged "righteousness" (which is what?) turns us from sin and helps us walk in all holiness? And, I'm wondering what this "pledge of good faith" means? Is it a pledge to God, man or both or perhaps neither? How do these acts of penance, i.e., prayers, accomplish any of the three things mentioned: a) a pledge of good faith, b) a commitment to change our ways, and c) a sign that we are the sons of righteousness?


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simul iustus et peccator

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