There has not been any response to my earlier question about Hebrews 6:4-6. So, I am putting this question again on the table. Is what the writer of Hebrews is saying in these verses not in principle the same as what the apostle is saying in 2Peter 2:1 and later in 2Peter 2:20-22?

Originally Posted by Johan
At the moment I am not really in a position to write a lengthy post, but are we not
dealing in Hebrews 6:4-6 with the same "problem"?

Quote
For it is impossible for those who were once enlightened, and have tasted the heavenly gift, and have become partakers of the Holy Spirit, and have tasted the good word of God and the powers of the age to come, if they fall away, to renew them again to repentance, since they crucify again for themselves the Son of God, and put Him to an open shame.

Johan

As for Peter being sarcastic, I agree with Tom and Pilgrim that I don't really see it and also that it is not something I see in Peter's other writings. Also, Peter is no addressing the false prophets/teachers but is seriously warning the readers.

I agree with Pilgrim that if Christ has died and paid for the sins of a person, then it means complete salvation for that person.

But then, our problem is not solved yet. The fact that so many commentators also don't agree on the interpretation of 2Peter 2:1 shows that it might not be that simple.

Johan

Last edited by Johan; Tue Jan 04, 2011 6:48 AM.