Thanks Pilgrim for your well thought through answers. Two questions.
1. If I understand you correctly when you say that God's decree of reprobation is negative and not positive, doesn't this make the decree itself to be conditioned or dependent on the sinfulness of man rather than on what God himself has already determined in eternity past?

2. If God has decreed all things that come to pass, including the sinful actions of men, can we therefore say that God CAUSES men to sin or ALLOWS them to sin? Which is which?


A Debtor to Sovereign Grace