Just for a little background info... I was raised in an Assemblies of God type church and came out of it in 1999. I was introduced to the Doctrines of Grace through the minsitry of John MacArthur about 5/6 years ago, and I am so grateful to God for allowing me to learn these wonderful truths...
Up until about a few years ago, I had never heard of any other eschatology view outside of Premil Despensationalism, but since realizing other views exist, I've been trying to learn a little bit more about them to draw comparison and find out what the Bible really teaches... I want to know the truth!!! And the more I read and listen to different Bible teachers, the more I see the Premill Dispy view has a whole lot of holes in it... I want to know why I believe what I believe by setting all I've ever known aside/all my presuppositions etc and seriously looking at what the Bible teaches on this subject... Some of the things which really stand out to me thus far are as follows:
The following scriptures need to be carefully considered and explained if one is going to hold to Premillennialism which believes Christ will resurrect the righteous dead 1000 years prior to the resurrection of the wicked dead. How can this be so in light of the following texts wherein the Bible refers to ONLY ONE ressurection for the just and the unjust?
Acts 24:15 "And have hope toward God, which they themselves also allow, that there shall be "A" resurrection of the dead, both of the just and unjust." Note "A resurrection" implies ONE resurrection only, not two.
I cannot see how we can interpret the verse in Acts along with the following texts to reflect two separate resurrections, 1000 years apart. It's just NOT possible, but again I am looking for respectful dialogue here. I want to learn and all my chips are still sitting on the table:
John 5 :28-29
"All that are in the grave shall hear his voice and shall come forth; the good unto the resurrection of life; and they that have done evil, unto the resurrection of damnation."
John 11:24 speaking of Lazarus, Martha says "I know that he shall rise again in the resurrection at the last day." AT THE LAST DAY, not 1000 years before.
John 6:39 Jesus said "all which he hath given me, I shall lose nothing but raise it up at AT THE LAST DAY." Once again, not 1000 years before last day.
John 6:40 Jesus said again "I will raise him up AT THE LAST DAY"
Righteous and wicked will live together until the end of the world according to Jesus himself in Matt 13:36-43 The wheat and the tares live together until the end of the world according to Jesus. They grow together until harvest time when they are separated. The tares first and then the righteous. Verse 40 says "So shall it be in the end of this world..." How can this be 1000 years before?
Matt 13:47-50 - Jesus speaks about the net which is cast into the sea to gather every kind, good and the bad... And he says "so shall it be at the end of the world: the Angels shall go forth, and sever the wicked from among the just, and shall cast them into the furnace of fire: there shall be wailing and gnashing of teeth." How can this be 1000 years earlier?
Luke 17:26-30, Jesus compares it to Noah and Lot, wherein the righteous and wicked dwelled together until the day Noah entered into the ark, the flood came and destroyed the wicked on the same day. The same happened when Lot went out of sodom, God rained fire and brimstone , and Jesus said "even so shall it be when the son of man is revealed." The wicked are destroyed and the righteous are saved "at the end of the world."
Then there is the Historical Premil view and they believe we are raptured right before the MIllenium and immediately return with Jesus (at the exact same time) to spend 1000 years here with him... This also means there would be people with glorified bodies walking around the earth for 1000 years with those who have corrupt bodies. I was told Jesus did this also after he was resurrected for 40 days before he ascended to heaven. Jesus did this, yes, but I find this a hard one to believe that we will do this also--how can this be? How would you refute this?
I've been listening to a wonderful preacher named Arden Hodgins (Trinity Reformed Baptist church, La Mirada CA) and he has raised many interesting points for me with regards to the Amil view (which he believes the Bible teaches). I've also listened to several lectures by Riddlebarger, and he is excellent also. I'm beginning to think the Amil view is the right one also. The Premil Dispensationalist friends on my FB page keep talking about a literal interpretation of Revelation 20, but I am not so certain this is correct anymore. I posted all those scriptures above and ask them for feedback, but not one of them responded with anything to support their position.
Patrice suggested I post this here and so I am hoping some of you will share with me. I have other points to ask about, but I don't want to bombard you with them all at the same time... They will come later, providing you are up to the job!
Ahahahaha!
So can we talk? I am feeling a bit like a deer caught in the headlights and I am so hungry to learn. Looking forward to hearing from you all. Thanks!
