The Highway Forums General Discussion Theology Discussion Forum Antinomianism

On #1, I know Dr. Gerstner is a highly respected Reformed scholar and I do not remember anything specifically I've read by him. My reply was to the "impression" I got from that article, probably out of a larger context. I was thinking as a typical reader who did not know who Gerstner was, but my reply was to your assesment that that article dispelled all the confusion, and I disagreed..

On #2, it is I who did not make myself clear on trichotomy. I have not held the tripartite nature of man for over 50 years. I mentioned one passage used by many based on trichotomy, and considered that doctrine dangerous as the carnal Christian teaching is dangerous. I was rejecting trichotomy along with "carnal Christian".

On #3, The idea of eternal justification is something I am giving a new look since I saw it connected so solidly to antinomianism, and I'm not so sure we can only use black and white thinking on some matters concerning God, of which we can't be quite so dogmatic. If the phrase "his faith is reckoned for righteousness" is used for timing, wouldn't it risk seeming to indicate neonomianism. Does it not mean that his faith indicates that he is, or he is to be considered righteous in Christ, but not when he was actually righteous in Christ?

In the past I had always just considered the idea of eternal justification interesting, but not spent any time on it, so I still have not formed a solid or dogmatic view on it. The one verse or passage that comes to mind that does cause me to think more strongly about the idea is:

"Do not be ashamed, then, of the testimony about our Lord or of me his prisoner, but join with me in suffering for the gospel, relying on the power of God, who saved us and called us with a holy calling, not according to our works but according to his own purpose and grace. This grace was given to us in Christ Jesus before the ages began, but it has now been revealed through the appearing of our Savior Christ Jesus, who abolished death and brought life and immortality to light through the gospel." (2Tim 1:8-10 NRSV)

That sounds to me as if our salvation in total, was given to us in Christ Jesus before the ages began, and this total salvation including justification was brought to light through the gospel, rather than belief in the gospel making our faith the determining factor. True, our faith is a gift, but just how detailed can I be about what in our total salvation was given before creation? There is another phrasing in the writings of Paul and John that has been taken back in the NRSVue to the literal rending of the the KJV and YLT:

"...it was to demonstrate at the present time his own righteousness, so that he is righteous and he justifies the one "who has the faith of Jesus" (Rom. 3:26 NRSVue) plus Rom. 3:22; Gal. 2:16, 3:22.

Prepositions admittedly are tricky, and this can be seen in all the ways the Greek ek can be understood as a look at Strong's shows. But, I am still working on whether this change in preposition has a bearing on the question of eternal justification, or is it solely a matter of our faith exercised?

On #4, I'll post a thread on that topic later, but Rom. 2:14 does state: "Gentiles, who do not possess the law," which is the Old Covenant, and that seems quite clear to me, and it agrees with statements made by Moses in the OT. Gentiles were brought from the everlasting law of God which was in existence in Genesis, before Moses, into the New Covenant, if they are of the elect. (I have some how messed up the "reply" placement)