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#58065 Tue Oct 04, 2022 12:00 AM
Joined: Apr 2001
Posts: 4,541
Likes: 13
Tom Offline OP
Needs to get a Life
OP Offline
Needs to get a Life
Joined: Apr 2001
Posts: 4,541
Likes: 13
I was on a Reformed board where someone said something that I do not remember hearing/reading before. Yet, it seems like a fairly important issue, it makes me wonder why?

Quote
There is NO Lucifer
The word only occurs ONCE in scripture, and that is because of the Catholic Latin TRANSLATION of Jerome. (382AD).
It is NO SECRET how the word "lucifer" ended up in the Bible, once.... Jerome put it there and the KJV translators copied him. Jerome alone put Lucifer in the Bible, when he translated the phrase "Helel ben shachar" in Isaiah 14:12 as "lucifer" in his Latin Vulgate.
The scholars authorized by King James I to translate the Bible into English did not use the original Hebrew texts for Isaiah, but used Latin versions translated largely by Jerome.
There is no "Lucifer" in the Hebrew text, nor in the Greek Septuagint version of the Old Testament. The name Lucifer is NOT in scripture.
Lucifer is a made up name, IN LATIN ONLY, by one man - Jerome. But the KJV translators used the Catholic Latin version of Isaiah instead of what was written in ancient Hebrew and Greek. This is not arguable, but absolute KNOWN fact.

By the way, nobody challenged this and there are some pretty knowledgeable people on that site.
Over the years, I have heard the name Lucifer many times from the pulpit.

If anyone knows anything about this issue, I am interested.

Tom

Tom #58067 Tue Oct 04, 2022 7:06 PM
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jta Offline
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Strong's suggests a possible literal translation of "shining son of light" in which case Jerome was not far off the mark.


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