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Probably not. Both John and Philo were probably drawing on Jewish intertestamental usage of the term. John imbued it with a clear understanding of God become incarnate in time and space which is not Philo's way of using the term.<br><br>A good, brief discussion can be found in Stephen Smalley's John:Evangelisit and Interpreter published by Paternoster Press.<br><br>James.
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