BookMark said: WCF XIX :1,2 says Adam was under the so-called moral law. The bible says no such thing.
Paul is not talking about "moral" law. He is talking about THE LAW.
Gods Law is ONE. This Law , in its entirety, has been nailed to The Cross.
Okay Mark so let me get this straight your beef is with the concept that revealed Law of God can be broken down to three distinct categories ie: Moral, Civil, Ceremonial.
So when Paul writes this: "ROM 2:14 For when the Gentiles, which have not the law, do by nature the things contained in the law, these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves" Your saying that Paul means that the gentiles are keeping the entire law, the civil statutes, the ceremonial statutes, and the moral statutes. Mark how can this be, since the gentiles unless exposed to the teaching of the Law by the Jews would have no concept of the ceremonial laws so defined or the civil laws so defined? It is more reasonable to assert that Paul here was talking about the decalogue which is the basis of the "moral laws". And since every man is made in the image of God and that means that God's character would have been imprinted so to speak upon man then so would the moral law too would have been placed into man. This is the only way that the gentiles would even have an idea of right and wrong.
Mark do you not recognize that there is a difference between the civil and ceremonial laws of the theocracy of Israel and the moral or ethical laws?
