The Highway Forums General Discussion Theology Discussion Forum Atonement insufficient?

This much is true, which I also have stated several times.... the atonement, in and of itself cannot save a sinner. That which was secured by the atonement must also be applied. However, if you believe, which it is evident that you do, that Christ actually atoned for all mankind, without exception, thus satisfying all that was required in their behalf (substitution) and the Father is therefore appeased, then of necessity it must also be that all men are saved. Why? because it was the Father who sent the Son into the world to redeem those whom He had predestinated to eternal life, in Christ. And, it is the Holy Spirit Who in total harmony and agreement with the decree of the Father and the vicarious substitutionary atonement of the Son applies that which He accomplished by his perfect righteousness and death (penal substitution) to them. To assert that the Christ made full atonement for all men indiscriminately but that God refuses the benefits of that atonement to all but even more so holds men accountable for sins which have been atoned for and then casts them into everlasting punishment is absurd. Not only that, it creates a conflict within the Godhead:

The Father predestinates and elects some.
The Son gives His life as a substitute for all.
The Holy Spirit regenerates and calls some

So, your view is corrupt on at least two counts; it violates the economic relationship within the Godhead between the three persons. And it violates the very essence of justice. Of course, there are more caveats to your view, but one other important one which must be mentioned is that you have no biblical support for it.

And your quote from Luther says nothing to support your view either, i.e., about a universal atonement. But again, even if it did, Luther is not infallible; just in case you didn't realize that. <img src="/forum/images/graemlins/evilgrin.gif" alt="" />

In His Grace,