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CompScriptScript said: What does it mean “but sin is not imputed when there is no law” yet “Nevertheless death reigned from Adam until Moses”. The idea that there is a Covenant with Adam, the Laws written in the heart and the conscience, both being the same things as to that which was given at Mt. Sinai, is not supported as the above verses indicates. Sinned did kill even when the law was not given. It specifically says that the Law was not until Moses even though everyone dies. Sin is not imputed where there is no Law, nevertheless. The Two Covenant Article and your reply indicates that there was a Covent of works (Law) in the beginning to Adam and the Scriptures teaches otherwise. Being they (the Covenants that does not exist if they did exist) are not related, there is no Perpetuity. Cast out the Law at Mt. Sinai, including the decalogue because it was not for the purpose to sanctify. For those in the middle of this please read my original Post for the purpose of the Law and how the Christian establish it's use. Chosen, You may not have intended to stir controversy, but surely anything that is controversial will evoke controversy.  Antinomianism or it's sibling progeny NCT which has over the past 20 or 30 years become popular is antithetical to what the Reformed Faith, aka: Calvinism has always embraced. Thus you are going to find much opposition to your view here by most, albeit there are some here who do hold to NCT. There might be one or two Antinomians still lurking in the shadows, however.  Re: Rom 5:13, 14. The proper understanding of this text is that there WAS law in existence before Sinai for the simple reason that "death reigned"; death being the consequence of transgressing the law (cf. "all sinned" v. 12). That entire section shows that the law existed from Adam to Moses and all died due to their transgression of it albeit their transgression wasn't the same as Adam's and even though the specifics of the Decalogue weren't previously written down. Secondly, everywhere in the N.T. where it speaks of casting out the law, comparing law and grace, etc., are in reference to justification; how can one be made right with God. It is only by grace through faith in Jesus Christ that one is justified. However, justification by grace does not in any way annul the necessity of conforming to God's holy law. It is the freedom from being under the penalty and bondage of the law which Christ provides re: justification. As Paul says: Romans 7:12-14 (ASV) "So that the law is holy, and the commandment holy, and righteous, and good. Did then that which is good become death unto me? God forbid. But sin, that it might be shown to be sin, by working death to me through that which is good; --that through the commandment sin might become exceeding sinful. For we know that the law is spiritual: but I am carnal, sold under sin. . . . 21-22 I find then the law, that, to me who would do good, evil is present. For I delight in the law of God after the inward man:"
I have already provided you with a link to quite a number of articles written by men far superior to myself which present and defend the biblical teaching of the perpetuity of the law as the means and guide for believers unto sanctification. That believers are obligated to obey the law out of a heart of gratitude and with the desire to be like unto their Redeemer Christ should be most obvious. No believer would deliberately live a life of a murderer thinking that the law is no longer applicable; or likewise steal, commit fornication, lie, et al. The injunctions to live a life of holiness according to the moral precepts of God are plentiful and indisputable. Let me end by making it utterly clear.... the keeping of the law provides no merit whatsoever since it is impossible for anyone to keep it perfectly. The keeping of the law is alien to salvation by grace. However, a salvation by grace makes one desirous to keeping the law and to the putting on the new man in Christ which is most pleasing to God. In His grace,
simul iustus et peccator
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