Tom
Kelowna, British Columbia, Canada
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Joined: April 2001
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Wes, one final question for you on this one if you have the chance to respond-
Can we be absolutely certain that Zech 9-14 does speak of a future fulfillment? Zech 9 and the donkey was fulfilled during the life of Christ; certain preterists have attempted to relate the early portion of Zech 14 to the Roman siege under Titus. The majority of the Christian commentators I've read from feel that Zech 13:1-7 relates to the disciples having scattered at the time of Jesus' death on the Cross.
If we were to pull those together, the one part that wouldn't work with the rest would be Zech 12 itself. But why must we apply the scene here, if nothing else the heart's message itself concerning such, to a futuristic Jewish nationalistic gathering?
Why can't the individual reader, be that person Jew or Gentile, recognize what took place at the Cross in this specific verse of Zech 12:10 for what it was? Under that scenario, wouldn't the Preterists have this portion of the story right, to a certain extent?
At such point, it would seem, the individual issue is left up to the individual him/herself. If the entire passage, speaking mainly of the events from Zech 9-14 are literal descriptions of what took place during Jesus' life as proclaimed by Zechariah some 600-700 years earlier, why must we insert the scene of a future based nationalistic fulfillment of this block of prophesy when in fact Jesus Himself became the high King of this world at the time of His death?
At the very minimum, would this not put a quick end to the many Jewish questions asking why Jesus never returned them to their homeland? Would it not offer a mystery in the riddle, so to speak? And would that answer not be Faith itself, Faith in what has already accomplished at the Cross and the path by which the heart is led as a result.
The final question being, therefore, is this REALLY a prophecy intended for the future by itself, or was Paul's comments concerning the full flock of the Gentiles coming in prior to the Jews so to speak,the final Word involving such.
It may be a crucial question because of the importance we as humans tend to place on the Jewish homeland of Israel which is the key point I'm trying to get to, I guess, aside from pointing out that our Savior's death was final and complete at the time it took place, IE-when we as Christians gently brush aside those "Why didn't Jesus return us to the homeland" questions stemming from blood born Jews, why are we required to say that such will occur at His second coming?
Where is there Biblical evidence to demand the question be answered in such a way when in reality the boundary between the modern non Christian Jew and Christ could be the inner pride itself in the individual case and thus, the question for us might be, where is the specific Bible verse that tells us specifically Jesus will return to the homeland of Israel to address the ancient Jews in such regard as we might suspect based on our individual assumptions that Zech 12:10 does indeed reflect a future, nationalistic gathering in/among the Jewish homeland?
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